Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

background AML

A

epidemiology

  • most common leukemia in elderly
  • median age >60

aetiology

  • most are idiopathic
  • radiation
  • benzenes
  • alkylating chemotherapy agents
  • topoisomerase II inhibitors
  • accumulation of mutations with ageing

genes

  • associated with bone marrow failure disorders
  • > eg fanconis
  • somatic cell chromosome aneuploidy
  • > eg down syndrome
  • cytogenetic abnormalities
  • > unbalanced deletions (more common in treatment related)
  • > balanced translocations
  • > normal karyotype (more common in de novo than treatment related)

pathophys

  • accumulation of blasts
  • > unable to differentiate into mature neutrophils, platelets or RBCs
  • > bone marrow failure
  • little correlation in blast % and cytopenia
  • > indicates secretion of inhibitory cytokines
  • > rather than crowding out of marrow
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2
Q

hx and exam AML

A

Hx

  • risk factors
  • bleeding/clotting
  • > easy bruising/bleeding
  • > past CVA/MI
  • infection
  • > fevers
  • > systems review for infection
  • anaemia
  • > SOB
  • > palpitations
  • > dizziness
  • > lethargy
  • bone pain

Exam

  • lymphocytopenia
  • > fever
  • > source of infection
  • anaemia
  • > pallor
  • > tachypnea
  • > tachycardia
  • thrombocytopenia/cytosis
  • > splenomegaly
  • > petechiae/eccymoses
  • invasion (myeloid sarcoma)
  • > lymphadenopathy
  • > hepatomegaly
  • > leukemia cutis
  • > gum hypertrophy
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3
Q

CML background

A

epidemiology

  • uncommon in children
  • > median age >55

aetiology

  • no family hx
  • no cancer treatment risk etc
  • radiation
  • > increased with atomic bomb
  • > not with chernobyl

pathophys

  • philidelphia chromosome in >90%
  • > balanced translocation between long arms of 9 and 22
  • > formation of chimeric BCR-ABL1 gene product
  • BCR-ABL1
  • > codes for constitutively active tyrosine kinase
  • > excess proliferation and reduced apoptosis of CML cells

findings

  • indolent
  • > fatigue
  • > weight loss
  • splenomegaly
  • > early satiety
  • > RUQ fullness
  • blastic conversion late in coarse
  • blood
  • > leukocytosis or thrombocytosis
  • > anaemia
  • marrow
  • > high M:E
  • > blasts <5%
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4
Q

ALL background

A

epidemiology
-most common neoplasm in kids

aetiology

  • syndromes
  • > down syndrome = 20x
  • human T cell leukemia virus
  • > adults

findings

  • blood
  • > leukocytosis (but often normal or down)
  • > anaemia/neutropenia/thrombocytopenia
  • marrow
  • > blasts >90% of nucleated cells
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5
Q

CLL background

A

epidemiology

  • older age
  • > median age >70

aetiology

  • family hx strong
  • no environmental exposures known

findings

  • indolent
  • blood
  • > raised WCC with lymphocytosis
  • > some lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly

complications

  • cancers
  • > skin cancers most common
  • richters transformation
  • > transformation to lymphoma
  • > most commonly diffuse large b cell
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6
Q

investigations leukemia

A
FBC
-differential
->20% AML has leuckocytosis
->often anaemia in any leukemia 
-film
->myeloid blasts plus Auer rods = AML
EUCs
-hypokalaemia/hyperuricaemia
->tumour lysis syndrome
-hypercalcaemia with boney invasion
LFTs
Coags
-TT/fibrin degradation products/D dimer
->DIC in APML
-fibrinogen
->decreased

marrow aspirate/biopsy

  • > 20% blasts confirms diagnosis
  • immunohistochemistry (ALL vs AML)
  • > AML = + myeloperoxidase
  • > ALL = + TdT
  • immunophenotyping (flow cytometry) to subclassify
  • > eg CD34/34 % expression
  • cytogenetics for prognosis
  • > 15:17 translocation = good prognosis
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7
Q

AML prognosis and complications

A

prognosis

  • long term survival is infrequent
  • 5 year survival = 25%

complications (CD CLIPT)

  • chemo
  • > secondary cancers
  • > cardiomyopathy
  • DIC
  • CNS leukemia
  • leukostasis
  • infection
  • pancyopenia
  • tumour lysis syndrome
  • > hyperuricaemia
  • > hyperkalaemia
  • > hyperphosphataemia
  • > AKI
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8
Q

types of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

Classic (90%)

  • immunophenotype
  • > CD 15 +
  • > usually CD30 +
  • > never CD45+
  • nodular sclerosing
  • > most common/common in younger patients
  • > nodular growth seperated by fibrous bands
  • > less common RS cells
  • > lacunar variant of RS common (multilobulated nuclei with abundant cytoplasm)
  • > mixed inflammatory background
  • mixed cellularity
  • > elderly patients infected with HIV
  • > diffuse or vaguely nodular growth
  • > absent of prominent fibrous bands
  • > RS more common
  • > mixed inflammatory background
  • lymphocyte rich
  • > usually nodular growth
  • > RS cells common
  • > inflammatory background is mainly lymphocytes
  • lymphocyte depleted
  • > least common
  • > hypocellular with fibrosis and necrosis
  • > lots of RS cells

Nodular lymphocytic predominant (10%)

  • immunophenotype
  • > CD45 +
  • > CD15 -
  • > rarely CD30+
  • lymphocytic and histiocytic cells
  • > polylubulated nuclei
  • > nucleus appears exploded as popcorn cell
  • nodular growth
  • background = b cells, t cells, dendritic cells
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9
Q

hx and exam Hodgkins lymphoma

A

hx

  • onset
  • > usually insidious (weeks/months)
  • B symptoms (40%)
  • > fevers
  • > drenching night sweats
  • > weight loss >10% over 6 months
  • lymphadenopathy (non tender)
  • > cervical most common
  • > mediastinal (cough, sob, retrosternal pain)
  • > axillary
  • > step wise progression
  • generalised pruiritis
  • other
  • > pel epstein fevers
  • > alcohol induced joint pain
  • > hepato/splenomegaly symptoms
  • > bone pain
  • > skin changes
  • PMHx
  • > previous malignancy
  • > chemo/radiation
  • > HIV/immunosuppression
  • > EBV
  • > fmhx

exam

  • lymph nodes
  • > all including waldeyers ring
  • > size, site, number, firmness, mobility
  • hepatosplenomegaly
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10
Q

types of non Hodgkins lymphoma

A

Aggressive b cell

  • diffuse large b cell
  • > most common (1/3rd)
  • > related to EBV infection, immunosuppression and autoimmune disease
  • > large, atypical lymphocytes with prominent nucleoli
  • burkitts
  • > rare in adults
  • > common in children
  • > homogenous staining of b cells with pale macrophages gives starry night appearance

Indolent b cell

  • follicular lymphoma
  • > second most common
  • > nodules of small lymphocytes
  • gastric MALT

Aggressive T cell
-angioimmunoblastic

Indolent T cell

  • Adult T cell
  • > associated with human t lymphotropic virus 1
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11
Q

non Hodgkins lymphoma hx and exam

A

hx

  • risk factors
  • > family hx
  • > past malignancies, chemo, radiation
  • > pesticides and hair dyes
  • > EBV, HTCLV
  • autoimmune diseases
  • B symptoms
  • > more common in aggressive
  • lymphadenopathy
  • > non step wise progression
  • > waxing and waning in indolent
  • extranodal
  • > GI most common = distress/bowel obstruction
  • > lungs = SOB/cough
  • > hepatosplenomegaly= abdodiscomfort
  • > CNS = ataxia
  • > bone pain

exam

  • lymph nodes
  • pallor (anaemia
  • petichiae/purpura (thrombocytopenia)
  • extranodal
  • > skin
  • > jaundice/hepatosplenomegaly
  • > EDCSS = neuro signs
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12
Q

investigations lymphoma

A
FBC
-anaemia
-thrombocytopenia
EUC
-treatment
LFTs
-treatment
-ddxs
Prognostic
-ESR
-albumin
-lactate dehydrogenase

excisional lymph node biopsy

  • occasionally core, never aspirate
  • > diagnosis requires RS/LH cell with appropriate background mileui
  • classic = RS or variant (eg lacunar)
  • > two nucleoli in seperate nuclear lobes
  • > owls eye
  • NLP= HS
  • > popcorn cell

IMMUNOPHENOTYPING

immunohistochemistry

  • classic
  • > CD15+ mostly
  • > CD30+ almost always
  • > CD45-

flow cytometry

  • > PDL-1 expressed by some RS
  • > ligand for immune checkpoint receptors

STAGING

FDG PET CT
-staging

CONSIDER:

bone marrow biopsy

  • Stage 1A and 2A
  • > unnecessary as low risk of marrow involvement
  • Stage 3 and 4
  • > PET CT more sensitive so can be avoided
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13
Q

staging lymphoma

A

lugano classification

  • stage 1
  • > one lymph node region
  • > single extra lymphatic organ site (1E)
  • stage 2
  • > involvement of two or more lymph node regions on same side of diaphragm
  • > contiguous limited involvement of extralymphatic organ (IIE)
  • stage 3
  • > involvement of lymph regions above and below diaphragm
  • stage 4
  • non contiguous involvement of extralymphatic tissue

for treatment

  • 1 and 2 = early stage
  • 3 and 4 = advanced stage

further notation

  • b symptoms
  • > A = absent
  • > B = present
  • bulky disease = X
  • E only relevant to early stage

non-hodgkins

  • no record of b symptoms
  • > no effect on prognosis
  • usefulness
  • > haematogenous spread more common = less utility
  • > no difference in treatment between stage 3 and 4
  • > main use is identifying patients with early disease
  • > hodgkins spreads by contiguous lymphatic involvement
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14
Q

prognosis hodgkins lymphoma

A

Early stage (unfavourable/favourable)

  • ME3 (German Hodgkins Study Group)
  • > unfavourable = 1 of following
  • > Mediastinal mass large
  • > ESR >30 w B symptoms, >50 no B symptoms
  • > 3 or more sites
  • favourable with treatment
  • > survival at 5 years >97%

Advanced stage (International prognostic score)

  • HAM LAW 4
  • > Haemoglobin
  • > Albumin
  • > Male gender
  • > Lymphocytosis
  • > Age >60
  • > WCC
  • > stage 4
  • freedom from progression =
  • > 5 factors = 42%
  • > 0 factors = 84%
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15
Q

prognosis non hodgkins

A

IPS (LEAPS 369)

  • for DLBC with rituximab
  • > Lactate dehydrogenase
  • > Extranodal involvement
  • > Age >60
  • > Performance (ECOG)
  • > Stage 4
  • 3 year survival
  • > 5 factors = 60%
  • > 0 factors = 90%
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16
Q

treatment lymphoma

A

non hodgkins

  • RCHOP for 6 cycles
  • > rituximab
  • > cyclophosphamide
  • > doxorubicin hydrochloride
  • > vincristine
  • > prednisone
  • radiation therapy

hodgkins

  • DBVD
  • > doxorubicin
  • > bleomycin
  • > vinblastine
  • > dacarbazine
  • early = DBVD + radiation
  • advanced = just DBVD
  • > no benefit from radiation
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17
Q

hodgkins vs non hodgkins lymphoma

A

epidemiology

  • non-hodgkins 10x more common
  • hodgkins
  • > bimodal
  • > 20’s and 80’s
  • non hodgkins
  • > risk increases with age

risk factors

  • hodgkins
  • > EBV
  • > family hx
  • non hodgkins
  • > chemo, radiation, pesticides, hair dyes
  • > EBV, HTCLV
  • > immunosuppression and autoimmune

path

  • hodgkins
  • > monoclonal expansion of mature b cells
  • non hodgkins
  • > disease of progenitor or mature B or T cells

clinical presentation

  • in general
  • > hodgkins = indolent
  • > non hodgkins = acute with aggressive or waxing waning with indolent
  • > both lymphadenopathy and B symptoms
  • differences
  • > non hodgkins = non stepwise progression and extranodal involvement more common
  • > hodgkins = pel epstein fevers, alcohol induced pain, involvement of mediastinum

diagnosis

  • investigations similar
  • > bone marrow biopsy in non hodgkins but not usually hodgkins
  • both by biopsy
  • hodgkins
  • > RS or LH with background milleu
  • non hodgkins
  • > histological typical patterns
  • > immunophenotyping for T or B cell origin
  • > genotyping for monoclonality and typical mutations

staging

  • both lugano classification
  • > more useful in hodgkins

treatment

  • both chemotherapy
  • > but different agents
  • both radiation

prognosis
->non hodgkins generally much worse

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18
Q

ddx splenomegaly

A

CHINA

  • congestive
  • > CCF
  • > cirrhosis
  • haematological
  • > haemolytic anaemia
  • > sickle cell
  • infection
  • > malaria
  • > EBV
  • > CMV
  • > HIV
  • neoplasia
  • > CML (CLL)
  • > lymphoma
  • > myelofibrosis
  • autoimmune
  • > amyloidosis
  • > sarcoid
  • > RA (feltys)

Massive = M’s

  • cMl
  • myelofibrosis
  • malaria
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19
Q

Platelet disorders

A

I’M FluID

  • Immune thrombocytopaenia
  • Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemias
  • > HUS
  • > TTP
  • > DIC
  • Functional defects due to
  • > liver disease
  • > uraemia
  • Inherited diseases
  • > Bernard Soulier
  • Dysproteinaemias and myeloproliferative disorders
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20
Q

disorders vessel wall

A

Sick Vessels Can Haemorrhage

  • Steroids/cushings
  • Vasculitis
  • Collagen (Ehlers, marfans, scurvy)
  • Henloch Shonlein Purpura
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21
Q

Coagulation in chronic liver disease

A

Bleeding:

Thrombocytopenia
-portal hypertension
-decreased thrombopoeitin 
-DIC
Decreased FII,VII,IX,X and fibrinogen
-hepatocyte failure
-vitamin k
DIC
Dysfibrinogenaemia 
Systemic fibrinolysis
Clotting:
Altered blood flow
Damage to vessel walls
DIC
Decreased protein C, S and antithrombin
-hepatocyte failure
-vitamin K
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22
Q

ddx bleeding disorder

A
Von Willebrand
Platelet disorders (I'M FluID)
Vessel wall (Sick Vessels Can Haemorrhage)
Coagulation disorders
-Haemophilia A, B and acquired
-Factor XI deficiency
Vitamin K
-deficiency
-enzyme disorder
Liver disease
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23
Q

Types of WVD

A

Type 1: decreased vWF antigen. Activity:Atg normal. All multimeres decreased
Type 2A: decreased vWF antigen, mainly High Molecular Weight, and decreased activity. Activity:Atg decreased
Type 2B: Gain of function, increased binding to GPIb by HMW multimeres. Thrombocytopenia, decreased HMW. Activity: Atg decreased
Type 2M: Decreased antigen, across all multimeres, and decreased binding to GPIb. Activity:Atg decreased.
Type 2N: Decreased binding to FVIII. Increased aPTT. Decreased VIII activity: vWF Atg. vWF activity and antigen normal.
Type 3: undetectable antigen

24
Q

Investigative algorithm WVD

A

Initial: vWF Atg, Ristocetin Cofactor, FVIII activity assay

vWF activity and antigen reduced if <30%

Determine ration activity:antigen. Reduced if <0.7

If functional, Type 2 A and B can be separated from Type 2 M by electrophoresis (HWM multimere decreased in A/B)

A and B can be separated by RIPA (agglutination increased in B).

25
Q

Investigations bleeding disorder

A

FBC (with platelet count), blood film.
aPTT, PT (INR)
Fibrinogen, TT

(if strong bleeding history):

  • PFA 100
  • vWF Atg (ELISA), ristocetin Cofactor, FVIII activity assay

LFTs,
EUCs
Iron studies

26
Q

hx bleeding disorder

A

Fucking Heavy Bleeding is a MEDICAL emergency

  • Family Hx (bleeding or disorder)
  • Hospitalisations, transfusions, previous episodes
  • Bruising, telangectasias, petechiae
  • Menorrhagia
  • Estrogen (OCP, HRT, pregnancy)
  • Drugs
  • Iron deficiency
  • Challenges (surgery, trauma, dentist)
  • Associated medical conditions
  • Lab abnormalities previously
27
Q

Wells criteria DVT

A

pre-test probability (VT OILCAMP)

  • veins (collateral, non varicose)
  • tenderness along venous system
  • oedema (pitting) > opposite
  • immobility >3 day or surgery < 4 weeks
  • leg swollen
  • calf swollen >3cm opposite
  • alternative diagnosis more likely (minus points)
  • malignancy < 6months
  • paralysis
0 = low = 3%
1-2= moderate = 17%
3-8 = high = 50 to 75%
28
Q

Blood film MM

A
Rouleaux formation
Anaemia
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Monoclonal plasma cell
-rare on blood film
->presence indicates plasma cell leukemia
-readily detected with flow cytometry
29
Q

Investigations MM

A

Urinalysis
-sulfosalicylic acid

FBC
-differential
-blood film
EUC
CMP
-calcium
Lactate dehydrogenase
Albumin
Beta 2 microglobulin
CRP/ESR

SPEP/immunofixation
USEP/immunofixation
sFLC

Bone marrow biopsy and aspirate

  • HnE/immunophenotyping/FISH
  • percent plasma cells
  • morphology
  • immunophenotype

Cross sectional imaging

  • whole body low dose non con CT
  • > most accessible
  • whole body MRI
  • > most sensitive for bone involvement
  • whole body FDG PET/CT
  • > most sensitive for extramedullary disease

Skeletal survey

  • backup if cross sectional contraindicated
  • AP chest
  • AP C/T/L spine
  • AP humeri and femora
  • AP pelvis
  • AP and lateral of skull
  • findings
  • > punched out lytic lesions
  • > osteopenia
  • > fractures
30
Q

MM criteria

A

Clonal bone marrow plasma cells >10%
or
Biopsy proven plasmacytoma

+

1. 
presence of organ impairment (CRAB)
-hypercalcaemia
-renal dysfunction (1 boney lesion
-anaemia
-boney lytic lesions
  1. evidence of inevitable organ impairment
    - >60% plasma cells
    - involved:uninvolved FLC ratio 100:1
    - MRI with >1 focal lesion

M protein usually >30g/L

31
Q

ddx for MM

A

Blood dyscrasia (SWAMPS)

  • Smouldering MM
  • Waldestroms macroglobulinaemia
  • AL amyloidosis
  • MGUS
  • POEMS
  • Solitary plasmacytoma
32
Q

Immunological complication blood transfusion

A

A Feared Mistake for Haematologists

  • Allergic reaction
  • Febrile non haemolytic reaction (anti-leukocyte)
  • Modulation with immunosuppression
  • Haemolytic anaemia (acute and delayed)
33
Q

Complication blood transfusion

A

Haematologists Are Very Concerned about Injecting Blood Products

  • Hypothermia
  • Acute lung injury (leukocytes vs alloantibodies)
  • Volume overload
  • Citrate toxicity (alkalosis, calcium)
  • Immunologic (A Feared Mistake for Haematologists)
  • Bleeding due to dilutional coagulopathy
  • Purpura (exposure to platelet antigen)
34
Q

Atherosclerosis pathophys

A

Fatty streak and intimal thickening

  • earliest change
  • fatty streak = accumulation of lipid laden macrophages within intima
  • intimal thickening = proliferation of smooth muscle cells and proteoglycan matrix within intima

Pathologic intimal thickening

  • extracellular lipid pools = lipid deposits, hyaluron and proteoglycans
  • no inflammation

Inflammation and plague progression

  • deposition of LDL within intima
  • LDL becomes oxidised, which leads to increased expression of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells and chemotaxis
  • LDL activates TLRs on macrophages and drive inflammation within intima

Fibroatheroma

  • collagen cap overlying necrotic core
  • fibrous cap made of collagen synthesised by smooth muscle cells
  • necrotic core formed by apoptosis of foam cells, which increases plaque size
  • haemorrhage into plaque by leaky vasa vasorum also contributes
  • as plaque grows there is positive remodelling of artery to increase lumen diameter and compensate for obstruction

Thin fibrous cap

  • thought to develop from fibroatheromas though may arise de novo
  • thinning may be due to release of MMP that degrade collagen, or release of interferon gamma by T cells and subsequent smooth muscle cell apoptosis or collagen synthesis inhibition
  • more vulnerable to rupture

Rupture or erosion
rupture most common
-large necrotic core, thin fibrous cap containing macrophages and T cell, limited smooth muscle cells
-progressive degradation of cap by MMP, smooth muscle apoptosis and shear forces
erosion
-smaller necrotic core, intact fibrous cap, fewer macrophages and T cells and loss of endothelial lining
-greater accumulation of hyaluron and proteoglycan may drive de-epithelialisation
thrombus formation
-in either case, exposure of blood to procoagulation subepithelial tissue, platelet activation/aggregation and coagulation

35
Q

Urinalysis MM

A

MM cast nephropathy

  • large waxy, laminated casts
  • > precipitated light chains and tam-horsfall
  • dipstick normal
  • sulfosalacylic acid positive

AL amyloidosis

  • positive dipstick
  • minimal Bence Protein (UPEP/fixation)
36
Q

MM vs classic mimics

A

MGUS

  • M protein <30g/L
  • clonal bone marrow <10%
  • no organ damage symptoms

Smouldering MM

  • M protein >30
  • clonal bone marrow 10-60%
  • no symptoms

Waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia

  • lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma in bone marrow
  • IgM monoclonal gammopathy in blood
  • Absence of CD56 in bone marrow plasma cells
  • IgM M protein rare in MM

Solitary plasmacytoma

  • normal bone marrow
  • absence of CRA

Al amyloidosis

  • fewer bone plasma cells
  • no lytic bone lesions
  • modest Bence Jone proteinuria
  • positive dipstick
POEMS
1)peripheral neuropathy
2)monoclonal plasma cell disorder
3) 
-osteosclerotic lesions
or
-elevated VEGF
or
-Castlemans disease
->enlarged lymph nodes single region of body
4) with addition of 
-endocrinopathy
-skin changes
-organomegaly
37
Q

ABI procedure and result interpretation

A

Continuous doppler over dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial
Ankle cuff inflated
Released -> record systolic with return of pulse
Repeat with other pulse on ipsilateral
Repeat above on contralateral
Measure brachial pulse with same method bilaterally
Divide highest pulse for each lower limb by highest brachial

Results

  • 0.9-1.3 = normal
  • > 1.3 = calcified vessels
  • 0.4-0.9 = arterial obstruction, correlated with claudication
  • <0.4 = multilevel disease, non healing ulcer, gangrene
38
Q

MM bone marrow

A

Percent plasma cells

  • determined by HnE staining
  • usually >10%

Morphology

  • mature plasma cell
  • > oval
  • > abundant basophilic cytoplasm
  • > eccentrically placed nucleus
  • > clock face chromatin, no nucleoli
  • immature plasma cell
  • > dispersed nuclear chromatin
  • > prominent nucleoli
  • > high N:C
  • intracellular Ig accumulations
  • > Morula cells (bluish white grape like)
  • > Russel bodies (cherry red, round)
  • > Flame cells (vermilion staining glycogen rich IgA)
  • > Gaucher cells (overstuffed fibrils)
  • > crystalline rods

Immunophenotype

  • determined by immunohistochemistry, immunoflurescence, flow cytometry
  • presence of kappa or lambda in plasma cells, but not both
  • normal ratio K:L = 2:1
  • > 4:1 or 1:2 = monoclonality
  • CD receptors
  • > no CD19
  • > CD45 rare
  • > most CD56 positive

Cytogenetics

  • FISH
  • no specific changes
39
Q

MM blood investigation results

A

Detection of M protein

  • SPEP = 80% sensitivity
  • SPEP + immunofixation = 90%
  • ” “ + light chain assay or UPEP/urine immuno fixation = 97%
  • remainder are non secretory MM

Serum and Urine Protein Electrophoresis (SPEP/UPEP)

  • > gamma, beta or alpha 2 mobility
  • > narrow spike on densitometer tracing
  • > dense discrete band on agarose band

Serum immunofixation

  • confirms presence of M protein
  • determines type of M protein
  • > IgG/IgA/IgM/IgD
  • > Kappa or Lambda light chains
  • possible results
  • > heavy chains + light chains
  • > light chains alone (Bence Jones)
  • reduction in uninvolved Ig in most cases
  • > less frequently, reduction of both

Free light chain assay

  • anti sera to constant region of Kappa and Lambda light chains
  • > measures light chains not bound to heavy chains in serum
  • light chain MM detected by abnormality in ratio of K:L
  • > detected in >90% of MM
  • absolute FLC level also prognostic

Light chain myeloma

  • approx 20% of cases
  • normal serum proteins
  • readily detected by sFLC, UPEP and urine immunofixation

Non secretory

  • approx 60% will have abnormal sFLC ratios
  • majority of remainder will have M protein detectable in neoplastic cell cytoplasm
  • hypogammaglobinaemia seen in 50% of non secretory
40
Q

hypo proliferative anaemia causes

A

Marrow damage:

  • infiltration
  • fibrosis

Decreased production:

  • Aplastic
  • Iron deficiency

Systemic:

  • Renal disease
  • Hypothyroidism
41
Q

features hypo proliferative anaemia

A

CBC:
normocytic, normochromic anaemia

Reticulocyte count:
low response

Blood film:
nil

Bone marrow:
M:E 2-3

42
Q

features of proliferative (bleeding/haemolytic) anaemia

A

CBC:
normocytic, may be macrocytic with reticulocytosis
normochromic (unless iron deficient)

Reticulocyte count: high

Blood film:
polychromatophilic macrocytes

Bone marrow:
nil.

43
Q

what are ringed sideroblasts

A

Defect in haem synthesis. Iron is taken up by mitochondria but not incorporated into haem. Iron encrusted mitochondria surround nucleus, forming ring. Seen in myelodysplasia

44
Q

features maturation defect anaemia

A

CBC:
Macrocytosis or microcytosis
Normochromic or hypochromic

Reticulocyte count:
low

Blood film: May show specific anomaly

Marrow: M:E of 1, reflecting ineffective erythropoesis.

45
Q

Howell Jolly bodies

A

Dense blue circular inclusions in RBC that represent nuclear remnants and defective spleen function

46
Q

What are spherocytes

A

small RBC without central pallor. Seen in hereditary spherocytosis and haemolytic anaemias

47
Q

What are dacrocytes

A

teardrop shaped RBC. Seen in haemolytic anaemias, iron deficiency, thalassaemia, myelofibrosis, myelodysplastic syndrome

48
Q

What are schistocytes

A

RBC fragments, seen in microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

49
Q

What are acanthocytes

A

Spiculated RBCs seen in liver disease, renal disease and splenectomy

50
Q

What are stomatocytes

A

Slit shaped central pallow in RBC, seen in inherited red cell membrane defects and alcoholism

51
Q

What are target cells

A

RBC with central pallor that has dense center (bulls eye). Seen in thalassaemia, iron deficiency, cholestatic liver disease

52
Q

What is a Roleaux formation

A

Stacked coin agglutination. Abnormal serum protein levels (eg. multiple myeloma)

53
Q

What is a Heinz body

A

Denatured, agglutinated haemoglobin in G6PD

54
Q

What is a degmacyte

A

Bite cell. Removal of Heinz body

55
Q

What is a dohle body

A

Mutliple toxic granules in neutrophils indicating severe trauma or infection (eg. sepsis)

56
Q

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemias

A

Group of haemolytic disorders characterised by

  • anaemia
  • schistocytes

Haemolytic uraemia syndrome

  • triad of
  • > microangiopathic anaemia
  • > thrombocytopaenia
  • > AKI
  • usually associated with diarrhoea
  • > shiga producing E coli

Thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura

  • pentad of
  • > microangiopathic anaemia
  • > purpura
  • > AKI
  • > neurological signs
  • > fever
  • caused by
  • > deficiency in ADAMTS-13
  • > vWF multimeres not cleaved causing platelet clumping

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

  • acquired disorder
  • > trauma
  • > sepsis and infection
  • > malignancy
  • > toxic reactions
  • activation of coagulation pathways
  • > intravascular thrombi
  • > consumption of platelets and clotting factors
  • presents with
  • > trigger
  • > bleeding and purpura
  • > thrombocytopaenia
  • > prolonged aPTT/PT
  • > low fibrinogen
  • > high d-dimer/fibrin degradation production