HAIR FINAL DISEASE, CHEM, ANAT SCIENCE Flashcards
SCIENCE ASPECT OF FINAL (163 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is a mechanical process?
A
Cleaning
2
Q
In 2012, along with representatives from most nations who participate in the United Nations, OSHA
agreed to comply with which of the following?
A
The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals System
3
Q
According to your text, the GHS gives workers the right to
A
understand safety concerns associated with chemicals
4
Q
As of June 2015, both federal and state laws require that manufacturers supply a(n) _____ for all
chemical products manufactured and sold.
A
SDS
5
Q
Which item is included in the “Identification” section of the MSDS?
A
Restrictions on product use
6
Q
OSHA and state regulatory agencies require that SDSs be
A
kept available in the salon for all products used in the salon
7
Q
Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are known
A
AS disinfectants
8
Q
Which agency is responsible for designating disinfecting agents as being effective enough to be used
in a hospital setting and effective for cleaning blood and body fluids?
A
EPA
9
Q
What is safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called quats?
A
Quaternary ammonium compounds
10
Q
State regulatory agencies _____.
A
create the rules that determine how laws are applied
11
Q
Laws are also called
A
statutes
12
Q
Invasion of body tissues by disease-causing pathogenic bacteria can result in a(n) _____.
A
infection
13
Q
Which action is best defined as removing all visible dirt and debris from tools, implements, and
equipment by washing with soap and water?
A
Cleaning
14
Q
One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characteristics are known as _____.
A
bacteria
15
Q
Nonpathogenic bacteria are _____.
A
harmless
16
Q
Round-shaped bacteria are called _____.
A
cocci
17
Q
Which organisms are pus-forming bacteria that grow in clusters like bunches of grapes?
A
Staphylococci
18
Q
Short, rod-shaped bacteria are called
A
bacilli
19
Q
Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria are called _____.
A
spirilla
20
Q
The type of bacteria that rarely shows any active motility is known as _____.
A
cocci
21
Q
Bacteria generally consist of an outer cell wall containing a liquid called _____.
A
protoplasm
22
Q
Together, the active stage and inactive, or spore-forming, stage of bacteria are referred to as the _____.
A
life cycle of bacteria
23
Q
Inflammation is characterized by which of the following?
A
Swelling
24
Q
A sign of a bacterial infection is the presence of _____.
A
pus
25
A pimple or an abscess is an example of a _____.
local infection
26
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) initially appears as a _____.
skin infection
27
A disease that is transmitted from one person to another is called _____.
communicable
28
A parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism is a
virus
29
Disease-causing microorganisms that are carried in the body by blood or body fluids are called _____.
bloodborne pathogens
30
Which disease is bloodborne and can cause liver damage?
Hepatitis
31
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes
AIDS
32
Single-cell organisms such as molds, mildews, and yeasts are _____.
fungi
33
Which fungus affects plants or grows on inanimate objects but does not cause human infections in the
salon?
Tinea Pedis
34
Poisonous substances produced by some microorganisms are called _____.
toxins
35
The most frequently encountered infection on the foot resulting from nail services is _____.
tinea pedis
36
The body’s first line of defense against infection is _____.
healthy, uncompromised skin
37
Organisms that grow, feed, and find shelter on or in a host organism are called _____.
parasites
38
What is a contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite?
scabies
39
What type of immunity does the body develop after overcoming a disease or through inoculations?
Acquired immunity
40
What is the process that completely destroys all microbial life, including spores?
Sterilization
41
Which action is an acceptable way to clean tools or instruments?
Using a cleaning solvent
42
A reaction due to extreme sensitivity to certain foods, chemicals, or other normally harmless
substances is a(n) _____.
a. allergy
43
The term describing the effectiveness with which a disinfecting solution kills germs when used
according to the label instructions is
efficacy
44
Phenolic disinfectants are _____.
known carcinogens
45
Sodium hypochlorite is the chemical name for _____.
bleach
46
Which item would be described as multi-use?
Nippers
47
Single-use items that do not have the capacity to be disinfected after each client use must be _____.
discarded
48
Which statement best describes UV sanitizers?
They do not disinfect nor do they sterilize.
49
Which foot spa has come under scrutiny because disease-causing microorganisms tend to grow inside
Whirlpool foot spa
50
Chemical germicides formulated for use on skin, and registered and regulated by the FDA are called
antiseptics
51
Which statement describes the proper use of waterless hand sanitizers in the salon?
They can be used AFTER soap and water, but cannot be substituted for soap and water.
52
Standard Precautions that require the employer and employee to assume that all human blood and body
fluids are potentially infectious are published by the _____.
CDC
53
_____ gloves are considered the best choice for use in nail services because they are made of more
durable material and help eliminate the possibility of latex allergy.
Nitrile
54
Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard is called
personal protective equipment
55
When hand washing, it is important to rub hands together for a minimum of how long?
20 seconds
56
Which scenario is an example of an exposure incident?
A cosmetologist cuts herself while providing a service to a client.
57
If an exposure incident should occur, all disposable contaminated objects should be _____.
placed in a plastic bag which is then placed in a closed trash container with a liner bag
58
The study of body structures that can be seen with the eye is called
anatomy
59
The scientific study of the functions and activities performed by the body’s structures is called _____.
physiology
60
The basic units of all living things are
cells
61
The cells of all living organisms are made of a substance called _____.
a. protoplasm
62
The dense, active structure at the center of the cell is the _____.
nucleus
63
What is the fluid of a cell that surrounds the nucleus and is necessary for growth and reproduction?
Cytoplasm
64
In living organisms, cell reproduction is called _____.
mitosis
65
Most cells reproduce by dividing into two cells called _____ cells.
daughter
66
A collection of similar cells that perform a function is called a(n) _____.
tissue
67
What is the tissue that binds together, protects, and supports various parts of the body?
Connective tissue
68
Another term for fat is _____ tissue.
adipose
69
You hungrily take a bite of steaming hot pizza and the bubbling cheese burns the inside of your mouth.
What type of tissue have you damaged?
Epithelial
70
The type of tissue that controls and coordinates body functions is _____ tissue.
nerve
71
Structures composed of specialized tissues that perform specific functions in plants and animals are
called _____.
organs
72
The physical foundation of the body consisting of bones connected by joints is the _____.
skeletal system
73
How many bones are in the adult human body?
206
74
The joint pain people complain about is often caused by _____.
inflammation of tissue surrounding the joint
75
The skull consists of the _____.
cranium and facial bones
76
The facial skeleton has how many bones?
Fourteen
77
The bone that forms the back of the skull above the nape is the _____.
occipital
78
The bone that joins all of the bones of the cranium together is the _____.
d. sphenoid bone
79
The cheekbones are also called the _____.
zygomatic bones
80
The elastic, bony cage that acts as a protective framework for the heart and lungs is the _____.
thorax
81
The inner and larger bone of the forearm, attached at the wrist and located on the side of the little
finger, is the _____.
radius
82
The bones in the fingers or digits are called _____.
a. phalanges
83
The heavy, long bone that forms the leg above the knee is called the _____.
femur
84
The ankle joint is composed of how many bones?
Three
85
The part of the muscle that does not move is the _____.
origin
86
The middle part of the muscle is called the _____.
belly
87
The part of the muscle that moves and is farthest from the skeleton is the _____.
insertion
88
Pressure in massage is usually directed from the _____.
insertion to the origin
89
To find the comb she dropped on the floor while working on her client Tyna lowered her head and
turned her head away. What muscle was Tyna most likely using?
Sternocleidomastoideus
90
Suppose you instruct a client to close his or her eyes before you apply makeup. Which muscle are you
instructing the client to use?
Orbicularis oculi
91
You notice your instructor watching you perform a service. Your instructor’s eyebrows are down and
her forehead has vertical wrinkles in it. What muscle is she most likely using?
Corrugator muscle
92
Which muscle can easily be damaged during makeup application?
Levator palpebrae superioris
93
The muscle that covers the back of the neck and upper and middle region of the back is the _____.
trapezius
94
The muscles that turn the hand inward so the palm faces downward are the _____.
pronators
95
Muscles that draw the fingers together the fingers are called _____.
adductors
96
The scientific study of the structure, function, and pathology of the nervous system is called
neurology
97
The nervous system as a whole is divided into how many main subdivisions?
Three
98
What nervous system controls the voluntary functions of the five senses?
Central
99
The largest and most complex organization of nerve tissue in the body is the
brain
100
The simplest form of nervous activity that includes a sensory and motor nerve is called a(n) _____.
reflex
101
The whitish cords made up of bundles of nerve fibers, held together by connective tissue that make up
the nervous system are called _____.
nerves
102
The largest of the cranial nerves also called the fifth cranial nerve, is the _____.
trigeminal nerve
103
Which nerve supplies impulses to the skin on the outer side and back of the foot and leg?
Sural nerve
104
To what part of the heart is oxygenated blood returned?
left atrium
105
Thin-walled blood vessels that are less elastic than arteries and located closer to the skin surface are
veins
106
How much blood is in the adult human body?
8 to 10 pints
107
Blood is generally bright red in the arteries and dark red in the veins. What accounts for the difference
in color?
The exchange of carbon dioxide for oxygen
108
The main arteries that supply blood to the head, neck, and face are the _____.
common carotid arteries
109
Which of the following is part of the lymphatic system?
Thymus gland
110
The word integument means _____.
natural covering
111
One square centimeter of skin contains_____ yards of nerves.
4
112
Ductless glands that release secretion of hormones directly into the bloodstream are _____.
endocrine glands
113
Insulin, adrenaline, and estrogen are examples of _____.
hormones
114
Which gland plays a major role in sexual development, sleep, and metabolism?
Pineal
115
How might a cosmetologist notice changes in a client’s thyroid function?
Changes in the growth rate, quality, or texture of hair or nails
116
Which organ is part of the female reproductive system?
Ovaries
117
The primary male reproductive hormone is _____.
Progestin
118
Acne, loss of scalp hair, facial hair growth and color, and darker skin pigmentations are some of the
results of changing or fluctuating
hormones
119
A freckle is an example of a mark on the skin known as a _____.
lesion
120
A large blister containing a watery fluid is a _____.
bulla
121
For which of the following skin lesions should the cosmetologist refer the client to his or her
physician?
Bulla
122
A flat spot or discoloration on the skin is a _____.
macule
123
A small elevation on the skin that contains no fluid, but may develop pus is a _____.
papule
124
A _____ forms from a papule when dead white blood cells accumulate in it.
pustule
125
An abnormal cell mass that varies in size, color, and shape is a _____.
tumor
126
Which of the following is considered to be a primary skin lesion?
Wheal
127
A(n) _____ is an itchy, swollen lesion that can be caused by a number of factors and usually resolves
by itself.
wheal
128
Lesions of the skin characterized by piles of material or a depression on the skin surface are _____.
secondary skin lesions
129
Dead cells that form over a wound or blemish while it is healing comprise a _____.
Excorciation
130
Cracks in the skin that penetrate the dermis layer, such as chapped hands or lips, are _____.
fissures
131
Which of the following is a secondary lesion?
Keloid
132
An excessively thick scar resulting from overgrowth of fibrous tissue is known as a _____.
keloid
133
Any thin dry or oily plate of epidermal flakes is known as a _____.
scale
134
An open lesion of the skin or mucous membrane, accompanied by pus and characterized by loss of
skin depth, is a(n) _____.
ulcer
135
A hair follicle filled with keratin and sebum forms a _____.
comedo
136
A whitehead is also called a _____.
closed comedo
137
Benign, keratin-filled cysts that appear just under the epidermis and have no visible opening are
_____.
milia
138
_____ are keratin-filled cysts that are usually associated with newborns and are commonly found
around the eyes, cheeks, and forehead.
Milia
139
What is a skin disorder characterized by chronic inflammation of the sebaceous glands caused from
retained secretions?
Acne
140
A _____ is a large protruding pocket-like lesion filled with sebum.
sebaceous cyst
141
Inflammation of the sebaceous glands characterized by redness, dry or oily scaling, crusting, and/or
itchiness is called _____.
seborrheic dermatitis
142
Distended or dilated surface blood vessels are called _____.
telangiectasias
143
Ingestion of _____ foods can aggravate rosacea.
spicy
144
Excessive sweating, caused by heat or general body weakness is _____.
hyperhidrosis
145
_____ is a common bacterial infection of the eye.
Conjunctivitis
146
What is a contagious, recurring viral infection characterized by fever blisters or cold sores?
Herpes simplex I
147
A noncontagious skin disease characterized by red patches covered with silver-white scales found on
the scalp elbows, knees, chest and lower back is _____.
psoriasis
148
Congenital hypopigmentation, or absence of melanin pigment of the body, including the skin, hair, and
eyes is called _____.
albinism
149
_____ is a skin disorder characterized by abnormal light patches.
Leukoderma
150
_____ refers to an abnormal brown or wine-colored skin discoloration with a circular or irregular
shape.
Stain
151
A _____ is a small brown or flesh-colored outgrowth of the skin.
skin tag
152
Hypertrophy of the papillae and epidermis is a _____.
verruca
153
The most common and least severe type of skin cancer is _____.
basal cell carcinoma
154
What type of skin cancer is often characterized by scaly red papules or nodules?
Squamous cell carcinoma
155
Dark, brown patches on the skin that may appear uneven in texture, jagged, or raised may be a warning
sign of _____.
malignant melanoma
156
The American Cancer Society recommends using a checklist to recognize potential skin cancer or
changes in moles, using the letter B to check mole _____.
borders
157
The main food source for acne bacteria is _____.
fatty acids
158
Which of the following is an extrinsic skin-aging factor?
Sun exposure
159
Between 80 percent and 85 percent of skin aging is caused by _____.
sun exposure
160
The UV rays of the sun reach the skin in two different forms. What are these?
UVA and UVB rays
161
What rays of the sun cause sunburns and tanning and are also known as burning rays?
UVB rays
162
The two types of contact dermatitis are _____.
allergic and irritant
163
_____ is an allergic reaction created by repeated exposure to a chemical or a substance.
Sensitization
