Hawker Final PTM Questions Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
The emergency escape hatch is on the ____ side, ____ window
A
right side fourth window
2
Q
to receive external power, the ground power unit must be plugged into the ground power receptacle on the:
A
right rear fuselage
3
Q
This color annunciator indicates a condition that requires immediate crew action
A
red
4
Q
electrical heating is provided for
A
forward static plates
pitot heads
windshields
5
Q
when the cabin door is not in the fully locked position, microswitches connected to the master warning system illuminate the ___ annunciator
A
yellow ENT DOOR UNLOCKED
6
Q
Power for the EMERG-OFF-STORM switch is controlled by the ____ bus bar
A
PE
7
Q
the entry light switch is on the:
A
left bulkhead sidewall
8
Q
if the NO SMKG switch is positioned to AUTO the NO SMOKING light illuminated when
A
the nose gear locks down during extension
9
Q
the batteries will maintain essential service during a dual generator failure for
A
60 minutes max
10
Q
the max battery amps for takeoff is
A
20 amps
11
Q
when a generator is 0ff-line and the GEN FAIL and ELEC annunciators are illuminated, the generator can be reinstated by
A
positioning the GEN switch to CLOSE for five seconds then releasing it
12
Q
the battery-charging rate can be monitored by
A
depressing the BATT ammeter pushbutton
13
Q
for engine starting, the ground power unit must produce
A
28 volts, 1500 amps, 1100 amp current limiter
14
Q
circuit breakers protecting unstitched PE circuits are marked to ease isolation in the event of soke or fire with
A
a white background
15
Q
when either the BATT 1 CNTCTR or BATT 2 CNTCTR annunciator illuminates, it indicates that the respective
A
battery contractor or emergency contactor is open
16
Q
the MWS annunciators can be dimmed:
A
by pressing the face of either red MWS glare shield annunciator
17
Q
with the exception of DUCT OVHT the arrows on the center annunciator panel flashers signify
A
that a roof panel annunciator is illuminated
18
Q
the white annunciators indicate
A
completed operations or system status
19
Q
the bus bar that powers the master warning system is
A
PE
20
Q
the MW flashing lights on the glare shield can be extinguished by
A
pressing either MW light on the glare shield
21
Q
to illuminate all MWS annunciators at max intensities”
A
press the ANNUN switch
22
Q
to bypass the DIM Circuit
A
position the DIM OVRD switch to OVRD
23
Q
boost pumps are located in the
A
left and right wing tanks
24
Q
there are ___ water drains in the fuel system
A
FIVE
25
when the ventral tank contains fuel, a low Vmo speed warning will sound whenever aircraft exceeds
280 kts
26
the usable fuel capacity is
10,000 lbs
27
the maximum lateral imbalance permitted is
500 lbs
28
with both boost pumps inoperative
ventral fuel cannot be transferred
29
if the ventral tank is to be used in flight, it must be full, and each wing must contain more than
3450 lbs
30
the aircraft fueling system accepts a max refueling supply pressure of
50 psi
31
the function of the apu is to supply
bleed air and DC electrical power for ground operations and in flight operations
32
do not operate apu bleed air and main engine bleed air simultaneously for longer than
1 minute
33
normal APU shut down is accomplished by
depressing the red STOP button on the APU control panel
34
the ___ supplies fuel for the APU
left main tank
35
the power plant classification on the Hawker 900xp series aircraft is
two spool turbofan
36
when the aircraft is static on a standard day at sea level, each engine develops
4660 lbs of thrust
37
the primary overspeed rpm-limiting device on the 731 series engine is the
mechanical governor in the FCU
38
the maximum HP rotor N2 overspeed is
102.5% for 10 seconds
39
the maximum oil pressure for power at or above idle rpm without a time limit is
80 psi
40
the maximum interburbine temperature for engine starting or relight is
994C
41
the maximum transient oil pressure permissible is
100psi
42
if the MWS reverser annunciator illuminates during the deploy cycle, it indicates
rudder bias not inhibited
43
to facilitate an accurate setting of climb power
CLIMB in green displayed on the MFD engine display
44
the APR system is available
to any engine with an operative computer
45
Engine fire extinguisher bottles are in the
rear equipment bay
46
the exterior preflight check of the fire extinguishers includes
checking the condition of two engine discharge indicators
47
the engine fire bell can be silenced
by pressing the BELL CANCEL switch
48
which statement is true regarding discharge of the fire bottles
when a visual fire warning appears, discharge SHOT 1 first then SHOT 2 if neccessary (Purdue recommends shot 2 before shot 1)
49
the following bus bars provide DC power for engine fire extinguisher operation
PE and PS2
50
a portable handheld fire extinguisher is stowed in the
cockpit and baggage compartment
51
for a fire in the apu
a switch on the apu control panel controls the firing of a separate fire extinguisher
52
the apu fire extinguisher automatically discharges _____ seconds after detection of the apu fire alarm
5 seconds
53
The HP bleed air supplements the LP bleed air at the mixing valve when both main air valve switches are selected to OPEN and
LP bleed-air pressure drops to 27 psi
54
Prior to takeoff and landing, ensure that the flight deck valve and the main air valves are set to the ____ position
CLOSE
55
this occurs when a main air valve switch is moved from the CLOSE position to the LP ON position
the main air valve opens, but HP air augmentation is not allowed
56
the position of the MAIN AIR VLV 1 or 2 switch in which electrical power is applied to a pressure switch is
OPEN
57
When placed in the “open” circuit, the No 1 MAV has a time delay of approximately _____ before it reaches the fully open position
20 seconds
58
the following components are anti-iced by the use of hot bleed air
A engine inlet cowlings
59
for takeoff or landing approach in icing conditions, the following switches must be turned on
ENG IGNITION
ENG ANTICE
WING/TAIL ANTICE
60
the following switches provide DC power to rudder bias heater muffs
PITOT/VANE HEAT
61
engine inlet cowling is heated by
hot bleed air
62
the ICE PROT annunciator on the MWS panel does not illuminate when
PITOT/VANE HEAT is on and operating normally
63
the following component may fail to operate satisfactorily when the left pitot heat is inoperative
ADC No1
64
the ENG 1 or A/ICE annunciator indicates
That anti-icing air pressure is not available at sufficient pressure
65
the PITOT AMPS ammeter checks amps of
the left or right pitot heating elements
66
the forward static plates are heated
only when airborne
67
when engine anti-icing is required, the ENG ANTICE switches should be turned on (when)
before takeoff power is set
68
the TKS fluid supply lasts for approximately
108 minutes
69
the airframe anti-icing system
should be primed before flight
70
the following ICE PROTECTION switches shall always be switched on before takeoff and remain on throughout the light
PITOT/VANE HEAT and SCREEN HEAT
71
Which component in the air conditioning system determines the temperature of the air after entering the water separator
low limit temperature control
72
When the duct temperature limiter senses a duct temperature of 116
the limiter illuminates the DUCt OVHT annunciator and automatically gives reduction in duct temperature
73
Cabin delivery air temperature is controlled by the operation of the
Cabin temp control valve
74
a pressure switch downstream of the PRSOV protects the ACM from overspeed if pressure rises above
40 psi
75
when too much air pressure is present the 40-psi pressure switch protects the ACM from overspeed by closing
the No 2 main air valve
76
the switch that controls the auxiliary heating valve to provide additional heating to the cockpit is the
F/DK VLV switch
77
The ____ bus powers the CABIN TEMP-MANUAL mode
PE
78
pressurization system is capable of maintaining a cabin altitude of 7500 feet when the airplane altitude is
41,000 feet
79
the pressurization system can maintain a maximum cabin differential pressure of
8.55 psi
80
the maximum allowable negative cabin differential pressure is
.5
81
the fan-operated Venturi provides suction to open
both outflow valves
82
with the CABIN HIGH DATUM not selected, the CABIN ALTITUDE warning annunciator illuminates and the warning horn sounds at ____ feet
9,300 +/- 300
83
Q
if one engine driven pump fails ( in relation to what the pressure indicator will show)
the hydraulic pressure indicator will display 3000psi and the applicable low pressure annunciator will illuminate
84
if both engine driven hydraulic pumps fail
indicated pressure is 2300 and both low pressure annunciators are illuminated
85
the main hydraulic reservoir is pressurized to prevent
loss of wheel brakes
86
the first step in operating the auxiliary hydraulic system is to
pull the AUX HYD SYSTEM lever
87
the purpose of the pressure-maintaining valve in the main hydraulic system is
to maintain 2300 psi in the main accumulator for normal brake operation
88
if one hydraulic pump fails what systems fail
none - either pump can operate all systems
89
Inadvertent landing gear retraction on the ground is prevented by
a solenoid-operated device engaging the selector lever
90
when all landing gear are up and locked, the position indications are
no green or red annunciators are illuminated
91
the main landing gear inboard doors are closed
when the gear is in either the extended or the retracted position
92
the landing gear warning horn will sound when
gear is not locked down with flaps selected 25
the gear is not locked down with either power lever between 60% and 70% N1 and airspeed below 150kts
the gear is down and locked, the LANDING GEAR lever is not selected down, and start power is selected
93
an indication of landing gear down and locked accompanied by 3 red annunciators indicates
the LANDING GEAR lever is not in the down position and the landing gear is down and locked
94
if the nose gear does not lock down during extension, the indication is that
the red N GEAR annunciator on the panel is illuminated and the mechanical indicator on the pedestal is not extended
95
nose wheel steering with the gear retracted is prevented by
A mechanically actuated hydraulic shutoff valve
96
the EMRG BRK LO PRESS annunciator illuminates
when emergency brake accumulator pressure drops to 2250 psi and below
97
in order to select emergency brakes, the WHEEL BRAKE lever must be positioned
to first aft notch marked in red
98
Elevator trim tabs can be actuated
mechanically and electrically
99
The purpose of the rudder bias system is
to automatically counteract asymmetrical thrust due to engine failure
100
if takeoff is attempted with the aileron/elevator gust lock
only one throttle can be advanced to full power
101
the guard is removed from a pitch trim switch
during testing, to ascertain that trimming cannot be accomplished with one element of the switch
102
the flight control surfaces that are hydraulically actuated are
flaps and airbrakes
103
asymmetrical flap operation is prevented by
a synchronizing cable arrangement that isolates the hydraulic supply to the flap motor, stopping the flaps
104
the purpose of lift dump is
to increase drag and decrease lift on the ground
105
stall warning is provided by
the stick shaker
106
stall identification is provided by
the stick pusher
107
in the stall warning and identification system
flap position is integrated with angle-of-attack signals to determine critical angle of attack of the wing
108
inadvertent stick pusher operation can be prevented by inhibiting
both channel 1 and channel 2 at the same time
109
the rudder bias annunciator extinguishes when
Both RUDDER BIAS switches are on
110
Engine indications are normally displayed on the
pilot MFD
111
aircraft attitude and dynamic flight data are normally displayed on the
pilot PFD
112
If one of the AFDs becomes unusable due to a failure, the same display can be moved to a different display unit by using the controls on the
reversionary control panel
113
which of the following is not a lateral mode of the flight guidance system
flight level change
114
RA MIN, BARO MIN, and V-speeds can be set manually in the _____ menu pages on the PFD
REFS
115
The display control panels are located
above the PFDs
116
if a PFD failure were to occur
power down the failed PFD by pushing the MFD REV switch. A composite PFD/MFD format will display on the MFD
117
On the flight guidance system display on the PFD, active modes are displayed in ____ and armed modes are displayed just below in ____
green, white
118
pressing the ____ confirms modifications and activates the modified flight plan
EXEC
119
The FORMAT LSK allows different options for the lower portion of the PFD. Which is/are an option
arc format
map format
full compass rose format
120
the fully serviced oxygen cylinder pressure at 70F is
1800psi
121
the charging OXYGEN CONTENTS gauge reads
direct system high pressure
122
to deploy the pax oxygen masks, the pilot should pull the
PAX SUPPLY EMERGENCY valve
(red control knob)
123
the valve that controls the oxygen supply to all cockpit and cabin outlets/valves is the
master SUPPLY valve
124
the pax constant-flow masks deliver oxygen
at all times when the system is activated and the mask lanyard is pulled
125
the pax oxygen masks are automatically deployed and oxygen is available to the pax when
cabin alt reaches 14,000 +/- 500 feet, for Hi Datum and the master SUPPLY and pax supply ON-OFF valves are in the ON positions
126
the portable oxygen smoke set supplies oxygen to the wearer for approximately
15 minutes
