Hazmat Flashcards

(174 cards)

1
Q
  1. Hazardous materials or dangerous goods are:
    A) not a serious problem.
    B) always easy to identify.
    C) rarely encountered by firefighters.
    D) substances that possess harmful characteristics.
A

D) substances that possess harmful characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
2. Weapons of mass destruction:
A) cannot be neutralized.
B) do not pose any serious threat.
C) refer to any automated weapon.
D) are particularly dangerous materials used as weapons.
A

D) are particularly dangerous materials used as weapons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CBRNE is an acronym for:
A) types of materials that may be used as weapons.
B) occupancies that may contain hazardous materials.
C) the incident management system used at hazmat incidents.
D) the containers used to ship hazmat materials internationally

A

A) types of materials that may be used as weapons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Hazmat incidents often:
    A) do not pose any threat.
    B) involve international news coverage.
    C) are less complex than other types of emergency incidents.
    D) are more complex than other types of emergency incidents
A

D) are more complex than other types of emergency incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Hazmat first responders must understand their roles and responsibilities,
    as well as:
    A) their limitations.
    B) complex chemical reactions.
    C) how to defuse weapons of mass destruction.
    D) the proper use of monitoring and detection equipment
A

A) their limitations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

. The NFPA:
A) sets federal regulations for hazmat personnel.
B) must be contacted prior to responding to a hazmat incident.
C) requests copies of all post incident analyses from hazmat incidents.
D) has several consensus standards that apply to personnel who respond
to hazmat emergencies

A

D) has several consensus standards that apply to personnel who respond
to hazmat emergencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which first responders may only perform limited defensive actions such
as calling for help and evacuating the area?
A) Operations-core personnel
B) Awareness level personnel
C) Hazardous materials technician
D) Operations mission-specific personnel

A

B) Awareness level personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which first responders are allowed to perform some defensive actions,
but, with some exceptions, are not expected to come into contact with
hazardous materials?
A) Operations-core personnel
B) Awareness level personnel
C) Hazardous materials technician
D) Operations mission-specific personnel

A

A) Operations-core personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

These first responders may be trained beyond core competencies to
perform additional defensive tasks and limited offensive actions.
A) Operations-core personnel
B) Awareness level personnel
C) Hazardous materials technician
D) Operations mission-specific personnel

A

D) Operations mission-specific personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

. The role of the hazardous materials technician is to:
A) ensure that recognized safe practices are followed at hazmat incidents.
B) perform offensive tasks, including controlling releases at hazmat
incidents.
C) manage hazmat personnel and operations under the direction of the
Incident Commander at a hazmat emergency.
D) manage the incident and make command decisions to determine
strategies and tactics to mitigate a hazmat emergency.

A

B) perform offensive tasks, including controlling releases at hazmat
incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The role of the hazardous materials technician specialist is to:
    A) provide additional expertise at hazmat incidents in areas such as
    radiation.
    B) perform offensive tasks, including controlling releases at hazmat
    incidents.
    C) manage hazmat personnel and operations under the direction of the
    Incident Commander at a hazmat emergency.
    D) manage the incident and make command decisions to determine
    strategies and tactics to mitigate a hazmat emergency.
A

A) provide additional expertise at hazmat incidents in areas such as
radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At complex hazmat incidents, first responders:
A) should immediately report any unfamiliar responders.
B) will assume command over state or national agencies.
C) provide expertise in specialized areas such as chemicals and
processes.
D) may be called upon to interact with responders from many different
agencies.

A

D) may be called upon to interact with responders from many different
agencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The APIE process is a simple 4-step response model that:
A) can guide responders’ actions at hazmat incidents.
B) is not effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
C) is most effective in large or complex hazmat incidents.
D) is required to be used at all North American hazmat incidents.

A

A) can guide responders’ actions at hazmat incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In Step 1 of the APIE process, responders:
A) gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
B) perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to
mitigate the incident.
C) use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be
taken to mitigate the incident.
D) monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and
continue throughout the incident.

A

A) gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

. In Step 2 of the APIE process, responders:
A) gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
B) perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to
mitigate the incident.
C) use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be
taken to mitigate the incident.
D) monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and
continue throughout the incident.

A

C) use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be
taken to mitigate the incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In Step 3 of the APIE process, responders:
A) gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
B) perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to
mitigate the incident.
C) use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be
taken to mitigate the incident.
D) monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and
continue throughout the incident.

A

B) perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to
mitigate the incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In Step 4 of the APIE process, responders:
A) gather information and attempt to understand the current situation.
B) perform tasks determined in the planning stage and direct actions to
mitigate the incident.
C) use the information gathered to determine what actions need to be
taken to mitigate the incident.
D) monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and
continue throughout the incident.

A

D) monitor progress to see whether the response plan is working and
continue throughout the incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Awareness level personnel are expected to:
A) perform mission-specific tasks that fit into the APIE process.
B) assume control of the incident and delegate resources and
responsibilities.
C) recognize that a hazardous material is present at an incident and call
for appropriate assistance.
D) protect individuals, environment, and property from effects of the
release in a primarily defensive manner.

A

C) recognize that a hazardous material is present at an incident and call
for appropriate assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the responsibility of Awareness level personnel during the
planning process of a hazmat incident?
A) Prioritizing tasks and making assignments
B) Planning the response is not the responsibility of Awareness level
personnel
C) They are expected to identify the hazardous material and its
dangers/hazards
D) They should identify needed personnel and resources and request
them from dispatch

A

B) Planning the response is not the responsibility of Awareness level
personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Operations level responders are expected to:
A) assume control of the incident and delegate resources.
B) perform mission-specific tasks that fit into the APIE process.
C) identify needed resources and personnel and request them from
dispatch.
D) protect individuals, environment, and property from effects of the
release in a primarily defensive manner.

A

D) protect individuals, environment, and property from effects of the
release in a primarily defensive manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What level of responder is expected to identify potential hazards at an
incident including the type of container involved, the hazardous material
involved, and the hazards presented by the material, but does not
perform offensive actions?
A) Awareness level personnel
B) Operations level personnel
C) Hazardous Materials Technician Specialist
D) Hazardous Materials Incident Commander

A

B) Operations level personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the responsibility of Operations level personnel during the
planning response phase of a hazmat incident?
A) They should delegate tasks and assignments.
B) They will establish scene control by isolating the hazardous area.
C) Planning the response is not the responsibility of Operations level
personnel.
D) They should identify needed personnel and resources and request
them from dispatch

A

C) Planning the response is not the responsibility of Operations level
personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An important role for Operations level responders is to:
A) rescue unresponsive victims.
B) perform a post-incident critique.
C) appoint an Incident Commander.
D) establish the incident management system.

A

D) establish the incident management system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mass decontamination, product control, and victim rescue and recovery
are examples of:
A) freelancing.
B) Awareness level responsibilities.
C) tasks that all first responders must perform.
D) mission-specific tasks with specialized competencies

A

D) mission-specific tasks with specialized competencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Acute health effects are: A) lethal but take a long time to show up. B) long-term effects that may take years to appear. C) short-term effects that may take years to appear. D) short-term effects that appear within hours or days
D) short-term effects that appear within hours or days
26
A chronic exposure to a hazardous material is: A) lethal. B) long-term or reoccurring. C) unlikely to cause health problems. D) a single exposure or several repeated exposures within a short time period.
B) long-term or reoccurring.
27
``` Breathing hazardous materials in through the nose or mouth is defined as: A) injection. B) ingestion. C) inhalation. D) absorption. ```
C) inhalation.
28
``` Eating or swallowing hazardous materials is defined as: A) injection. B) ingestion. C) inhalation. D) absorption ```
B) ingestion.
29
``` The process of taking in hazardous materials through the skin or eyes is defined as: A) injection. B) ingestion. C) inhalation. D) absorption. ```
D) absorption.
30
``` The process of taking in hazardous materials through a puncture of the skin is defined as: A) injection. B) ingestion. C) inhalation. D) absorption. ```
A) injection.
31
``` Fires and explosions are examples of: A) toxicity. B) corrosivity. C) energy release. D) chronic exposure ```
C) energy release.
32
``` A chemical that burns or destroys living tissue is an example of: A) toxicity. B) corrosivity. C) energy release. D) chronic exposure ```
B) corrosivity.
33
Chemicals or biological substances that cause sickness, illness, or injury by doing damage on the molecular scale are examples of: A) toxicity. B) corrosivity. C) energy release. D) chronic exposure
A) toxicity.
34
Fire service professional organizations testified before the U.S. Congress and requested inclusion of emergency responders in the provisions of the Superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act (SARA) based on: A) fire department funding requirements. B) environmental consequences of aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF). C) concern for the potentially toxic chemicals used in firefighting operations. D) a history of harmful and deadly incidents that affected the emergency response community
D) a history of harmful and deadly incidents that affected the emergency response community
35
. In the United States, transportation of hazardous materials via air, highway, pipeline, rail, or water is regulated by the: A) Department of Labor (DOL). B) Department of Transportation (DOT). C) Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC). D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
B) Department of Transportation (DOT).
36
In the United States, responsibility for researching and setting national standards for environmental programs is the duty of the: A) Department of Labor (DOL). B) Department of Transportation (DOT). C) Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC). D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
37
. In the United States, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is administered by the: A) Department of Labor (DOL). B) Department of Transportation (DOT). C) Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC). D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
A) Department of Labor (DOL).
38
. OSHA issues (and enforces) regulations relating to: A) worker safety. B) incident management systems. C) international nuclear weapons storage. D) transportation of nonhazardous materials.
A) worker safety.
39
. In the United States, the civilian use of nuclear and radioactive materials is regulated by the: A) Department of Labor (DOL). B) Department of Transportation (DOT). C) Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC). D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
C) Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC).
40
In the United States, the agency that manages national nuclear research and defense programs is called the: A) Department of Energy (DOE). B) Department of Homeland Security (DHS). C) Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). D) Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB)
A) Department of Energy (DOE).
41
In the United States, the agency concerned with preventing terrorist attacks and reducing the nation's vulnerability to terrorist attacks is the: A) Department of Energy (DOE). B) Department of Homeland Security (DHS). C) Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). D) Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB)
B) Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
42
In the United States, the agency that oversees and enforces compliance with the Federal Hazardous Substance Act (FSHA) is the: A) Department of Energy (DOE). B) Department of Homeland Security (DHS). C) Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). D) Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB)
C) Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
43
In the United States, the agency that provides oversight of explosives and chemical agents specific to DOD facilities worldwide is the: A) Department of Energy (DOE). B) Department of Homeland Security (DHS). C) Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). D) Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB)
D) Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB)
44
In the United States, the Department of Justice: A) provides coordinated comprehensive federal response to any largescale crisis. B) oversees and enforces compliance with the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FSHA). C) assigns primary responsibility for operational response to threat or acts of terrorism to the Federal Bureau of Investigation. D) protects the public's health, safety, and the environment from the effects of radiation from nuclear reactors, materials, and waste facilities.
C) assigns primary responsibility for operational response to threat or acts of terrorism to the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
45
. Which of the following is a Canadian agency that regulates dangerous goods/hazardous materials? A) Safe Labour Canada B) International Atomic Energy Agency C) Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission D) Interprovincial Transportation Commission
C) Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission
46
Secretaría de Medico Ambiente y Recursos Naturales (SEMARNAT) is one of the three main Mexican agencies involved in regulating: A) fireground equipment. B) property mineral rights. C) technical rescue PPE requirements. D) hazardous materials and/or wastes
D) hazardous materials and/or wastes
47
The hazardous materials most likely to be involved in incidents and accidents are those: A) with long half lives. B) most commonly used. C) without any negative side-effects. D) used in manufacture of weapons of mass destruction
B) most commonly used.
48
``` Hazardous materials accidents or incidents are most likely to occur during what type of transportation? A) Air B) Rail C) Water D) Highway ```
D) Highway
49
Time and effort devoted to identifying contents of buildings, vehicles, and containers results in: A) higher rates of civilian casualties. B) increased injuries to first responders. C) greater confusion and chaos at incidents. D) greater safety for first responders and the community
D) greater safety for first responders and the community
50
Once hazardous materials are detected, first responders should: A) deny exit to all bystanders. B) get as close as possible to attempt material identification. C) use a number of resources to identify the materials and potential hazards. D) do nothing until the Incident Commander and a hazmat technician arrive on the scene.
C) use a number of resources to identify the materials and potential hazards.
51
``` When hazardous materials are transported through your area, A) it will be confidential. B) there will be 24-hour notice. C) you may have little or no warning. D) a police escort should be provided ```
C) you may have little or no warning.
52
What are some reasons that pre-incident surveys might not be accurate or useful in a hazmat incident? A) Your AHJ may not regulate hazardous materials. B) Pre-incident surveys are rarely useful in an emergency. C) Definitions of hazardous materials are in constant flux. D) Inventories, businesses, or other factors may change without notice
D) Inventories, businesses, or other factors may change without notice
53
``` In which type of occupancy are first responders MOST likely to find supplies of anhydrous ammonia? A) Farms B) Residences C) Office buildings D) Health care facilities ```
A) Farms
54
Locations such as ports, docks, railroad sidings, airplane hangars and truck terminals: A) do not contain hazardous materials. B) are likely locations for hazmat incidents. C) are unlikely locations for hazmat incidents. D) must announce when hazardous materials will be present
B) are likely locations for hazmat incidents.
55
``` Which of the following is considered a non bulk container? A) Drum B) Railcar C) Cargo tank D) Intermodal container ```
A) Drum
56
. Pressure containers: A) do not contain hazardous materials. B) can be recognized by their two flat ends. C) are constructed out of very flexible material. D) have the potential to release a great deal of energy if involved in an incident.
D) have the potential to release a great deal of energy if involved in an incident.
57
``` . Liquid oxygen (LOX), nitrogen, helium, hydrogen, argon, and liquefied natural gas (LNG) are examples of: A) cryogens. B) corrosives. C) non-hazardous materials. D) weapons of mass destruction. ```
A) cryogens.
58
``` Liquid containers tend to have: A) open tops. B) pressure gauges. C) V-shaped sloping sides. D) flat (or less rounded) ends on tanks. ```
D) flat (or less rounded) ends on tanks.
59
Small airborne particles of solid substances such as grain, flour, sugar, coal, metal, or sawdust: A) can ignite or explode. B) do not present a hazard. C) may be stored in flexible bladders. D) have their own hazardous materials placard.
A) can ignite or explode.
60
Materials with very little radioactivity that present no risk to the public should be shipped using what type of packaging? A) Type A B) Type B C) Type C D) Excepted
D) Excepted
61
Which of the following statements about pipelines is MOST accurate? A) Pipeline markers always mark exact locations. B) Pipelines will run in a straight line between markers. C) Markers are rarely the best way to identify that pipelines are present. D) Pipeline companies must provide markers where pipelines cross under (or over) railroads or waterways
D) Pipeline companies must provide markers where pipelines cross under (or over) railroads or waterways
62
``` Statistics on marine vessel oil spills show that most oil spills: A) are relatively small. B) are large major spills. C) occur in the open ocean. D) are due to animal collisions ```
A) are relatively small.
63
Which marine vessels may serve as floating warehouses with hazardous goods, vehicles, or rail cars inside? A) Barges B) Unit loading devices C) Chemical carrier tankers D) Towing or pushing vessels
A) Barges
64
. What is a unit loading device? A) A large railway cargo container B) A type of marine vessel cargo carrier C) A mechanized device to automatically load hazardous materials D) Containers and aircraft pallets used to consolidate air cargo into a single transportable unit
D) Containers and aircraft pallets used to consolidate air cargo into a single transportable unit
65
. In North America, the U.N.'s _Transportation of Dangerous Goods - Model Regulations_ is the basis of: A) container shapes. B) pre-incident plans and surveys. C) first responder responsibilities and limitations. D) the placarding, labeling, and marking system used to identify hazardous materials during transportation.
D) the placarding, labeling, and marking system used to identify hazardous materials during transportation.
66
``` . Generally speaking, labels are designed for: A) fixed facilities. B) bulk packages. C) non-bulk packages. D) non-hazardous materials. ```
C) non-bulk packages.
67
``` Generally speaking, placards are designed for: A) fixed facilities. B) bulk packages. C) nonbulk packages. D) non-hazardous materials. ```
B) bulk packages.
68
In the U.N. system, hazard classes are divided into: A) explosive and nonexplosive. B) the types of containers they are transported in. C) fifteen different classes, ranked from safest to most dangerous. D) nine classes that include gases, infectious substances, and miscellaneous.
D) nine classes that include gases, infectious substances, and miscellaneous.
69
In North America, rail tank cars, portable tanks, bulk packages, and certain non-bulk packages must display: A) the U.N. four-digit identification number. B) a weatherproof copy of their shipping papers. C) painted stencils identifying the hazardous material. D) their schedule for transportation of hazardous materials.
A) the U.N. four-digit identification number.
70
Which of the following statements regarding the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) and U.N. four-digit identification numbers is MOST accurate? A) U.N. identification numbers can be found in the ERG and on shipping papers. B) U.N. identification numbers are listed in the ERG's green-bordered pages. C) The U.S. DOT requires all U.N. identification numbers to be listed in the ERG. D) Although the ERG can help identify the U.N. identification number, it will not help first responders determine appropriate initial response information.
A) U.N. identification numbers can be found in the ERG and on shipping papers.
71
``` Which of the following is a diamond-shaped, color-coded sign placed on bulk transportation containers? A) Label B) Placard C) Marking D) Four-digit ID number ```
B) Placard
72
``` What type of vehicle is LEAST likely to have hazardous materials placards attached? A) Rail tank cars B) Military vehicles C) Cargo tank vehicles D) Type A radioactive tanks ```
B) Military vehicles
73
What placard designation is used for mixed loads where the transport vehicle contains non-bulk packages with two or more package categories of hazardous materials? A) Dangerous B) Miscellaneous C) Multiple hazards D) n.o.s (Not otherwise specified)
A) Dangerous
74
Which of the following is a 3.9-inch (100 mm) square-on-point diamond that identifies hazardous materials within packaging? A) Label B) Placard C) Marking D) Four-digit ID number
A) Label
75
Which of the following is a descriptive name, identification number, weight, or specification that includes instructions, cautions, or U.N. marks, and is required on outer packaging of hazardous materials? A) Label B) Placard C) Marking D) Four-digit ID number
C) Marking
76
``` What types of materials are first responders MOST likely to find labeled with the marking "hot"? A) Sulfur or aluminum B) Radioactive substances C) Flammable hydrocarbons D) Highly compressed gases ```
A) Sulfur or aluminum
77
Which agency governs transportation placards, labels, and markings in Canada? A) Transport Canada B) Canada Border Services Agency C) Office of the Information Commissioner D) Occupational Health and Safety Tribunal Canada
A) Transport Canada
78
. One difference between Canadian and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that: A) Canadian labels and markings will only be in French. B) Canada does not require placards for radioactive materials. C) the Canadian system has several more hazard classes than the U.S. system. D) most Canadian transport placards do not have signal words written on them.
D) most Canadian transport placards do not have signal words written on them.
79
. Mexican placards, markings, and labels are based on: A) the ERG. B) NFPA 1072. C) U.N. recommendations. D) the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation.
C) U.N. recommendations.
79
. Mexican placards, markings, and labels are based on: A) the ERG. B) NFPA 1072. C) U.N. recommendations. D) the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation.
C) U.N. recommendations.
80
One difference between Mexican and U.S. placard, label, and marking systems is that: A) Mexico does not require placards for radioactive materials. B) Mexico has several placards for materials that may be inhaled. C) the Mexican system has several fewer hazard classes than the U.S. system. D) information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.
D) information provided on Mexican labels and markings is likely to be in Spanish.
81
. NFPA 704, Standard System for the Identification of the Hazards of Materials for Emergency Response gives widely recognized methods for indicating the presence of hazardous materials: A) at residential occupancies. B) for air and water transport. C) for long-distance trucking operations. D) at commercial, manufacturing, institutional, or other fixed-storage facilities.
D) at commercial, manufacturing, institutional, or other fixed-storage facilities.
82
``` In the NFPA 704 System, what does a "4" in the yellow background indicate? A) High flammability B) Severe instability C) Low health hazard D) Radiological or nuclear hazards ```
B) Severe instability
83
``` In the NFPA 704 System, what category does a "W" found in the white background indicate? A) Health risks B) Miscellaneous C) Water reactivity D) Waste products ```
C) Water reactivity
84
In the NFPA 704 System, where are special hazards symbols located? A) At the six o'clock position B) At the twelve o'clock position C) No special hazard symbols are authorized D) Superimposed over the center of the diamond
A) At the six o'clock position
85
. Uniform classification of hazardous substances and uniform labeling standards are key elements of: A) military markings. B) the Global Health System (GHS). C) the Globally Harmonized System (GHS). D) the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
C) the Globally Harmonized System (GHS).
86
OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) requires: A) employers to identify hazards in the workplace. B) employees to wear appropriate personal protective equipment. C) transportation facilities to declare the presence of hazardous materials. D) employers to remove all hazardous materials from the workplace.
A) employers to identify hazards in the workplace.
87
``` In Canada, general caution signals are: A) round. B) triangular. C) hexagonal. D) rectangular ```
A) round.
88
``` In Mexico, general caution signals are: A) round. B) triangular. C) hexagonal. D) rectangular. ```
B) triangular.
89
Chemical Abstract Service® (CAS®) registry numbers are unique numerical identifiers assigned to: A) fixed facilities. B) transportation hubs. C) trucks, tankers, ships, barges, and airplanes that transport hazardous materials. D) individual chemicals, chemical compounds, polymers, mixtures, alloys, and some biological sequences
D) individual chemicals, chemical compounds, polymers, mixtures, alloys, and some biological sequences
90
. In the U.S. and Canada, military markings are: A) uniform. B) not necessarily uniform. C) identical to national systems. D) the same as the Globally Harmonized System (GHS).
B) not necessarily uniform.
91
``` Which of the following are NOT included on pesticide labels in the U.S. and Canada? A) Signal word B) Supplier identification C) PA/Canadian PCP number D) U.N. four-digit identification number ```
D) U.N. four-digit identification number
92
Which of the following statements about other hazard communication symbols is MOST accurate? A) New hazardous materials are always being invented. B) Biological toxins require multiple, complex symbol systems. C) Every facility may have its own symbols, signs, and markings. D) Each type of radiological waste has a different type of symbol
C) Every facility may have its own symbols, signs, and markings.
93
What does the International Organization for Standardization define in ISO-3864? A) What materials are considered hazardous B) Design criteria for international safety signs C) Containers for safely storing radioactive materials D) Rules for the transportation of biohazardous materials
B) Design criteria for international safety signs
94
``` Under ANSI Z535.1, what color means Warning? A) Red B) Green C) Yellow D) Orange ```
D) Orange
95
Under ANSI Z535.1, the color blue: A) is not used. B) is the background color for all signage. C) signifies very cold materials such as cryogens. D) marks safety information signage such as required PPE.
D) marks safety information signage such as required PPE.
96
Shipping papers must accompany: A) any bill of lading or waybill. B) shipments of hazardous materials. C) hazardous materials at fixed facilities. D) permanent storage containers of hazardous waste.
B) shipments of hazardous materials.
97
Which of the following statements regarding shipping papers and similar documents is MOST accurate? A) On airplanes, they are found on the inside of the cargo door. B) They are often placed on the bridge or in the pilothouse on ships and barges. C) Radioactive shipments must be accompanied by a Uniform Radiological Materials Manifest. D) A copy of a train list or consist must be obtained by contacting the railroad's emergency phone number.
B) They are often placed on the bridge or in the pilothouse on ships and barges.
98
Safety data sheets: A) are not formatted according to GHS specifications. B) are confidential and should not be accessed by first responders. C) should only be utilized by responders trained at the Technician level and above. D) are often the best source of information about a particular material to which emergency responders have access.
D) are often the best source of information about a particular material to which emergency responders have access.
99
``` 100.Which of the following is NOT a section included in Safety Data Sheets (SDS)? A) First aid measures B) Physical properties C) Regulatory information D) NIOSH identification number ```
D) NIOSH identification number
100
The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG): A) is designed primarily for use at fixed-facility locations. B) will be more specific and accurate than information on shipping papers. C) addresses all possible circumstances that may be associated with a hazardous response incident. D) provides guidance to personnel who may be first to arrive at a scene of a transportation incident involving hazmat.
D) provides guidance to personnel who may be first to arrive at a scene of a transportation incident involving hazmat.
101
.Which of the following statements regarding the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is MOST accurate? A) Only Awareness level responders use the ERG. B) Operations level training is required to use the ERG. C) Only firefighters will find the information in the ERG useful in planning a response. D) Operations level responders should seek additional, specific information beyond the ERG.
D) Operations level responders should seek additional, specific information beyond the ERG.
102
Chemical Inventory Lists (CILs) at facilities usually contain information about locations of materials within a facility, making them useful tools for: A) setting up decontamination corridors. B) differentiating between different types of radiation. C) identifying containers that have been damaged or are missing labels or markings. D) determining where to most appropriately dispose of biohazardous waste materials.
C. identifying containers that have been damaged or are missing labels or markings.
103
How does a LERP (Local Emergency Response Plan) differ from a preincident plan? A) They are the same thing. B) A LERP takes precedence over a pre-incident plan. C) A LERP is developed working with emergency management agencies, responders, industry, and the public. D) A pre-incident plan is designed to provide a forum for emergency management agencies, responders, industry, and the public
C. A LERP is developed working with emergency management agencies, responders, industry, and the public.
104
.What are CAMEO and WISER? A) Digital databases of shipping papers B) Electronic technical resources designed to help in hazmat incidents C) Forums for emergency responders and the public to work together D) Digital reference sources for international standards on the transportation of chemical products
B. Electronic technical resources designed to help in hazmat incidents
105
Which situation is the most dangerous for first responders? A) Identifying an anhydrous ammonia leak by its irritating fumes B) Using binoculars to identify a placard on an overturned truck C) Gathering reports of strange odors or tastes from witnesses D) Observing a propane vapor cloud from upwind and on top of a hill
A. Identifying an anhydrous ammonia leak by its irritating fumes
106
Which of the following BEST describes olfactory fatigue? A) A slow but continuous loss of consciousness B) The tendency for inexperienced responders to ignore hazards C) The gradual loss of ability to detect the presence of a chemical by smell D) The ability of some hazardous materials to overwhelm the respiratory system
C. The gradual loss of ability to detect the presence of a chemical by smell
107
Which of the following BEST describes physical processes of materials? A) The conversion of one substance to another B) Any erroneous or incomplete placarding or markings C) Peculiar smells, visible vapor clouds, and radiant heat D) Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved
D. Processes that do NOT change the elemental composition of materials involved
108
``` Peeling or discoloration of a container's finish suggests what type of change? A) Nuclear B) Physical C) Chemical D) Physiological ```
C. Chemical
109
``` Physiological signs and symptoms of chemical exposure are LEAST likely to include: A) abdominal distress. B) changes in excretion. C) contusions or hematomas. D) changes in level or consciousness ```
C. contusions or hematomas
110
.Effectively using monitoring and detection devices requires: A) the presence of a hazmat lab on site. B) supervision by a health and safety officer. C) actual contact with the hazardous material. D) at least two active responders and two on backup.
C actual contact with the hazardous material
111
The use of monitoring and detection devices: A) is discouraged for all first responders. B) is required of Awareness level personnel. C) should only be performed by the Incident Commander. D) is outside the scope of action for Awareness level personnel
D. is outside the scope of action for Awareness level personnel.
112
``` For Awareness level personnel, notification procedures may be as simple as: A) calling 911. B) implementing the response. C) performing isolation procedures. D) creating the incident action plan. ```
A. calling 911
113
``` .What should an Awareness level responder do if a terrorist or criminal activity is suspected? A) Restrain suspects B) Plan the response C) Search for booby traps D) Notify law enforcement ```
D. Notify law enforcement
114
. Isolation and protective distances in the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) are based on conditions commonly associated with incidents: A) at sea. B) in flight. C) in open areas. D) at fixed facilities.
C) in open areas.
115
.When using the ERG to locate appropriate initial action, what provides the most specific initial action guide? A) The Table of Placards B) The Road Trailer Identification Chart C) Four-digit ID number or chemical names D) Container profiles in the white pages at the front of the book
C. Four-digit ID number or chemical names
116
``` Where in the ERG would you find identification charts for road trailers? A) Green pages B) Yellow-bordered pages C) White pages, front section D) White pages, back section ```
C. White pages, front section
117
.Where in the _ERG_ would you find information about terrorist use of chemical, biological, or radiological agents? A) Green pages B) Yellow-bordered pages C) White pages, front section D) White pages, back section
D. White pages, back section
118
``` Which section of the ERG provides a four-digit UN/NA ID number index list in numerical order? A) Green pages B) Yellow-bordered pages C) White pages, front section D) White pages, back section ```
B. Yellow-bordered pages
119
The blue-bordered pages in the _ERG_ provide: A) evacuation distances. B) fire and explosion hazards. C) a four-digit UN/NA ID number index list in numerical order. D) an index of dangerous goods in alphabetical order by material name.
D. an index of dangerous goods in alphabetical order by material name.
120
Green highlighting in the yellow-bordered and blue-bordered pages of the ERG indicates that the substance: A) is fissile. B) polymerizes. C) is extremely flammable. D) releases gases that are a toxic inhalation hazard (TIH)
D. releases gases that are a toxic inhalation hazard (TIH)
121
``` ERG Initial Action Guides are provided in the: A) green pages. B) blue-bordered pages. C) yellow-bordered pages. D) orange-bordered pages. ```
D) orange-bordered pages.
122
Where would you find information on protective clothing and respiratory protection recommendations? A) The ID Guide in the yellow-bordered pages B) The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages C) The green highlighted sections of the blue-bordered pages D) The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances
B) The Public Safety Section in the orange-bordered pages
123
``` Where is the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances found in the ERG? A) Green pages B) Blue-bordered pages C) Yellow-bordered pages D) Orange-bordered pages ```
A) Green pages
124
. The ERG defines a large spill as: A) less than 55 gallons. B) more than 55 gallons. C) a spill that happens in a warmer, more active atmosphere. D) a spill that happens in cooler, calmer atmospheric conditions.
B. more than 55 gallons
125
``` The minimum initial isolation distance given by Table 1 in the ERG will always be at least: A) 50 feet (15 m). B) 100 feet (30 m). C) 200 feet (60 m). D) 500 feet (150 m) ```
B. 100 feet (30 m)
126
. Table 3 of the ERG provides initial isolation and protective action distances for large spills involving different container types, times of day, and different: A) altitudes. B) latitudes. C) wind speeds. D) types of precipitation
C. wind speeds
127
Why is it important to stop potentially contaminated individuals or animals from leaving the scene of a hazmat incident? A) To preserve evidence B) To avoid the threat of misinformation C) To stop the spread of hazardous materials D) To prevent victims from taking legal actions
C. To stop the spread of hazardous materials
128
``` The boundary established to prevent unauthorized access to and egress from the scene is called the: A) half life. B) isolation perimeter. C) biohazard distance. D) toxic inhalation hazard diameter ```
B. isolation perimeter
129
``` In some outdoor incidents, a traffic cordon may be established: A) within the outer cordon. B) to and from the incident. C) beyond the outer cordon. D) inside the isolation perimeter ```
C) beyond the outer cordon.
130
Once the scene is secure, Awareness level responders are likely not trained to necessary levels to continue mitigation of the incident; the exception may be: A) biohazards. B) terrorist incidents. C) incidental releases. D) incendiary devices.
C. incidental releases.
131
If terrorist or criminal activity is suspected, the first responder should: A) document their observations. B) immediately begin decon procedures. C) disarm booby traps and secondary devices. D) question witnesses and observers at the scene.
D. question witnesses and observers at the scene
132
When does it become important to protect evidence? A) At a railway incident B) At a pipeline explosion C) At a suspected crime scene or terrorist event D) At transportation incidents involving a foreign carrier
C. At a suspected crime scene or terrorist event
133
Which of the following statements about a hazardous materials state of matter is MOST accurate? A) In general, liquids have the greatest mobility. B) A gas may change to a liquid if the temperature increases. C) The ERG provides isolation distances only for materials in gaseous form. D) The behavior of different states of matter can determine what exposures are affected
D. The behavior of different states of matter can determine what exposures are affected
134
``` . Incidents involving _____ are potentially the most dangerous for emergency responders. A) solids B) gases C) liquids D) frozen substances ```
B. gases
135
Which of the following statements about gases is MOST accurate? A) Gases do not present a breathing/inhalation hazard. B) It is quite easy to contain gases for mitigation purposes. C) It is easiest and safest to detect gases by sense of smell. D) Gases have an undefined shape and keep expanding if uncontained.
D. Gases have an undefined shape and keep expanding if uncontained.
136
.What BEST describes compressed gas? A) Gas that has expanded upon release and escaped mitigation B) Confined gas that at normal temperatures exists in both liquid and gaseous states C) Any gas that is kept at pressures and/or temperatures higher than ambient conditions D) Gas that, at normal temperature, exists solely as a gas when pressurized in a container
D. Gas that, at normal temperature, exists solely as a gas when pressurized in a container
137
``` The conversion of a liquid to vapor: A) makes it easier to detect. B) makes it easier to contain. C) increases the material's mobility. D) decreases the material's mobility ```
C. increases the material's mobility
138
Which of the following statements about solids is MOST accurate? A) The process of sublimation is rapid and violent. B) The particle size of solids may influence their behavior. C) Solids tend to be very mobile unless acted upon by exterior forces. D) Unlike liquids and vaporous liquids, solids do not have inhalation hazards.
B. The particle size of solids may influence their behavior.
139
``` What is the unit most typically used to express particle size? A) Bar B) Inch C) Micron D) Centimeter ```
C. Micron
140
``` Sublimation occurs when a material transitions directly from a: A) solid to a gas. B) gas to a solid. C) gas to a liquid. D) solid to a liquid. ```
A. solid to a gas.
141
``` What is the pressure exerted by a saturated vapor above its own liquid in a closed container? A) Vapor density B) Specific gravity C) Vapor pressure D) Solubility/miscibility ```
C . Vapor pressure
142
``` Materials with a vapor pressure over _____ mmHg will be gases under normal conditions. A) 7 B) 76 C) 760 D) 7600 ```
С. 760
143
``` Liquid changes to a gas at the _____ point. A) flash B) boiling C) freezing D) sublimation ```
B. boiling
144
``` A boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion (BLEVE) is caused by: A) sublimation of a boiling liquid. B) application of a pressure stream. C) a heated liquid or gas expanding. D) inadequate internal vessel pressure ```
C. a heated liquid or gas expanding.
145
``` Gases with a vapor density of _____ will rise quickly and spread to a wide geographical area. A) one B) less than one C) more than one D) one through five ```
B. less than one
146
``` .Where are you MOST likely to find gases or vapors with vapor density greater than one? A) Attics B) Trenches C) Near the ceiling D) Flat open spaces ```
B. Trenches
147
.Partially water-soluble chemicals will penetrate into the lower respiratory system and cause: A) sudden gastrointestinal distress. B) itching, scratching, and bloody skin lesions. C) immediate symptoms such as coughing and throat irritations. D) delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.
D. delayed symptoms that include pulmonary edema and coughing up blood.
148
``` Most flammable liquids will float on water because they have: A) high solubility. B) high miscibility. C) specific gravities less than one. D) specific gravities greater than one. ```
C. specific gravities less than one.
149
``` .Viscosity determines the ease with which a product will flow and is greatly affected by: A) sublimation. B) temperature. C) specific gravity. D) appearance and odor. ```
B. temperature.
150
Gas piplines are identified by?
pipeline markers
151
What are the responsiblities of awareness level personnel?
What are the responsiblities of awareness level personnel?
152
What information must be listed on a pipeline marker?
1. What is in the pipeline. 2. Who owns the pipeline. 3. A 24 hours contact phone number.
153
What does PIH stand for?
Polymerization Inhalation Hazard
154
What are the basic packaging types for radioactive materials?
1. Excepted-- Shipments that involve very small amounts of radioactivity. 2. Strong Tight-- For the transport of Low Specific Activity materials 3. Type A-- designed to contain greater amounts of radioactivity than excepted for normal transport 4. Type B-- For highly radioactive shipments, designed to hold contents under extreme conditions.
155
Placards must be attached when the material is greater than how many cubic feet?
640 cubic feet
156
What are the four catagories on the NFPA 704?
Red (top of diamond) Flammability Yellow (right side of diamond) Reactivity White (bottom of diamond) Special Hazards Blue (left side of diamond) Health Hazards
157
On the NFPA 704, what two symbols are recognized in the Special Hazard section?
(-W-) Water Reactive and (OX) Oxidizers
158
What are the three type of exposures?
1. Acute-- short duration, may be a one time event. 2. Sub-Acute-- series of exposures with an interval of time between exposures. 3. Chronic-- long duration or repeated exposures
159
What are the routes of exposure?
Inhalation, Ingestion, Absorption/Contact, Injection
160
What are the four levels of Chemical Protective Equipment?
Level A--> Vapor Protection, limited thermal protection, no mechanical protection Level B--> Splash Protection, the minimum response to an unknown substance Level C--> Limited body and respiratory protection Level D--> Structural firefighting gear, street clothes, lab clothing
161
What are the four types of radiation?
Alpha, Beta, Gamma and Neutron
162
When must the pipeline be marked?
When they cross water, go under highways and when they go through residential neighborhoods.
163
What are the four types of information available from a placard?
1. Color-->Flammable vs non-flammable gas 2. Symbol--> Flammable, poison, explosive 3. UN Hazard Class--> #1- #9 4. UN/NA Identifaction number--> 1075
164
What is an ERP?
Emergency Response Plan
165
What does APIE stand for?
Analyze, Plan a response, Implement a planned response and evaulate the response.
166
On the pH scale what is neutral, basic/alkaline, acidic?
7 is Neutral, 1-6 is Acidic, 8-14 is Basic/Alkaline
167
What is the difference between a simple asphyxiant and a chemical asphyxiant?
Simple asphyxiants are inert gases that displace oxygen. Chemical asphyxiants render the body incapable of uptaking oxygen.
168
What does IDLH stand for?
Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health. An OSHA term based on 30 minutes exposures
169
What are the three levels of Toxicity?
Danger/Poison--> Highest level Warning --> Moderate level Caution --> Low level What are the three levels of Toxicity?
170
Absorption versus Adsorption
Absorption is physical process while Adsorption is a chemical process
171
The low air warning bell rings on a SCBA when how much air remains?
1/4th of the tank.
172
Define LEL and UEL.
LEL--> Lower explosive limit (too lean mixture) | UEL--> Upper explosive limit (too rich mixture)
173
What are initiators and catalysts?
Initiators start a chemical reaction and catalysts assist in increasing the speed of a reaction.