Head and neck Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

what is the most common type of brachial clef cysts ?

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where are brachial clef cysts type 2 arise from ?

A

angle of mandible, anterior to sternocleidomastoid.
extending between the internal and external carotid arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what commonly causes enlargement of a brachial clef cyst s?

A

comcominant infection - such as a respiratory infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what type of epithelium are the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses lined with

A

schneiderian epithleium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the inferior meatus is the drainage pathway of which duct

A

the nasolacrimal duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does the osteiomeatal complex drain into

A

the middle meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a concha bullsoa

A

pneumatisation of a middle turbinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the black turbinate sign

A

non enhancement of the nasal turbinates due to acute invasive fungal rhinosinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is Potts puffy tumour

A

acute frontal sinusitis complicated with osteomyelitis and a subgaleal/subperiosteal abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what condition links chronic rhinosinusitis, nasal polyposis

A

cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is samters triad ?

A

NSAID exacerbated respiratory disease

Astama
sensitive to NSAIDS
nasal polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is Gardner sydnrome

A

FAP
multiple osteomas
desmoid tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is mc-cune Albright syndrom

A

polyostoci fibours dysplasia
endocrine hyperfunction
cafe au lait spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is mazabraud syndrome

A

polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and intramuscular myxomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which nerve is most likely to be affected in adenoid cystic carcinoma ?

A

maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is intestinal type adenocarcinoma of the sinuses associated with

A

wood dust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what structures pass through the optic cancal

A

optic nerve
ophthalmic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what structures pass through the superior orbital fissure

A

CN 3,4,6 and V1 (ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve which provides sensory Information to the upper face0
superior ophalmic vein
superior branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the normal finding of carbon monoxide poisoning

A

T2 bright signal in the globes pallidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the order of muscle involvement in the eye associated with graves disease ?

A

IM SLOW

Inferior
middle
superior
lateral
olbiques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which primary tumour can cause enopthalmos ?

A

breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

in children what is the most common source of metasatesse to the orbits ?

A

neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are patients with srogens syndrome at increased risk of developing

A

salavary gland lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is heerfordt syndrome

A

pathognomic presentation of sarcoid with uveitis , parotitis and facial nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
where do first brachial cleft cysts arise ?
between the external auditory canal and the submandibular region
26
where do chordomas occur ?
sacro-coccyeal sphenoid-clivis vertebral body
27
what Is an anterochoanal polyp?
polyps that arise from the maxillary sinus and extend into the nasophranx. They cause expansion of the sinus but don't cause bony erosions
28
what is an inverted papilloma
a vascular tumour, usually arising from the lateral nasal wall, it extends in to the maxillary sinus and causes bony erosions
29
where does iodine - from a iodine 113 scan normally accumulate ?
the stomach and the salivary glands due to normal sodium-iodine transporters the bladder and the liver due to normal excretion pathways
30
if a patient has an optic nerve glioma, what is there likely underlying condition
NF1
31
what type of contrast enhancement is seen with a cavernous haemangioma?
progressive filling in - can be seen as being more filled in with further sequences obtained
32
what causes bilateral symmetrical enlargement of the lacrimal glands ?
srogjesn and sarcoidosis
33
what space is lateral to the head of the malleus and incus on an axial view in the epitympanium
prussaks space
34
what is a cholesteatoma
matrix of stratisfied epithelium cells, releases a matrix that absorbes bone
35
where do cholesteatomas occur
prussaks space,
36
What is a gloms tympanum
benign glomus body tumour at the cochlear promontory (its where the nurse plexus of CN 9/10 )
37
what nuclear medicine tests can you use to investigate gloms tympanicum
Indium 111 OCtreotide 123 MIGB
38
what causes a cholesterol granuloma
bleeding in pneumatised petrous apex - leading to inflammatory mass
39
what is the dark rim seen in a cholesterol granuloma ?
old blood products surrounding the cholesterol crystals which are fat bright
40
what causes petrous apicitis
pseudomonas infection from mastoiditis
41
what is gradenigo syndrome
otorrhea - middle ear mastoid infection headache - intracranial infection or trigeminal neuralgia diplopia - lateral rectus palsy ( due to CN6 courses over the petrous apex)
42
what does the cavernous sinus drain
the inferior and superior ophthalmic veins and the sphenoparietal sinus
43
what drains the cavernous sinus
superior and inferior petrosal sinuses to the sigmoid sinus and then jugular bulb
44
<10mm
45
what is the most common primary cancer to metastasise to the suprasellar region ?
bresat
46
how do patients with a hypothalamic harmatoma present
uncontrollable laughing seizures
47
where do most acquired cholesteatomoas arise
prussaks space
48
where are cholesterol granulomas located
in a pneumatised petrous apex
49
on otoscope what does a cholesterol granuloma look like ?
blue retrotympanic mass
50
where do most nasophrangeal carcinomas raise ?
fossa of rossenmuller
51
with a nasopharyngeal carcinoma which lymph nodes are usually preferred ?
retropharyngeal and high jugular
52
where do thronwaldt cysts arise and what do people complain off ?
in the midline or the nasopharnx, bad breath
53
what automatically upgrades an oropharyngeal cancer to a T3 ?
invasion of the epiglottic fat space
54
where do all ranulas arise from ?
they all arise from the sublingual space
55
what is a rare complication of a thyroiglossal duct cyst ?
thyroid carcinoma
56
what is the most common location for a cystic hygroma?
posterior triangle of the neck
57
what is the most common cause of hypothyroidism ?
hashimotos disease
58
what is the most common cause of a painful thyroid mass ?
de quervain thyroiditis
59
what is a gibbus deformity?
it is where there is anterior wedging of the vertebral body - this results in structural kyphosis
60
what is the most common cause of epidural lipomatosis ?
steroid use
61
what measurement of epidural fat in the thoracic space is thought of as epidural lipomatosis ?
more than 6mm
62
what should the basin dental interval be ?
<12mm
63
what should the Atlanta -dental interval be ?
< 2.5 mm adults < 5mm in children
64