Head And Neck Flashcards

(370 cards)

1
Q

What are the 4 main muscles in the head?

A

o Muscles of facial expression
o Muscle of the cheek (buccinators)
o Occipitofrontalis muscle
o Muscles of mastication

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2
Q

What are the functions of the muscles in the face?

A

The muscles of the face are in the subcutaneous tissue and they move the skin and change facial expressions

They surround the orifices (opening) of the mouth, eyes and nose and act as sphincters and dilators to open and close them.

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3
Q

Do the muscles of the face pull or push?

A

Most muscles, attached to bone or fascia produce their effects by pulling the skin.

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4
Q

What is the function of the buccinators?

A

The buccinators keep the cheeks taut (not slack) and aids in chewing.

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5
Q

What nerve are the muscles of mastication supplied by?

A

mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (branch of CN V).

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6
Q

What is CNVII and what does it supply?

A

Facial nerve
supplies the superficial muscle of the neck and chin (platysma), muscles of facial expression, buccinators, muscles of the ear and the occipitofrontalis muscle.

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7
Q

What is the course of the facial nerve?

A

It exits the cranium and enters the substance of the parotid gland in which it divides into its extra-cranial branches. It exits the facial canal via the stylomastoid foreamen

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of facial paralysis?

A

The most common non-traumatic cause of facial paralysis is inflammation of the facial nerve near its exit from the cranium at the stylomastoid foramen.
The inflammation causes oedema and compression of the nerve (Bell’s palsy) in the intracranial facial canal, resulting in a number of structural and functional disorders.

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9
Q

What happens during Bell’s Palsy?

A

The affected area sags, and facial expression is distorted, making it appear passive or sad.

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10
Q

What happens during facial nerve damage?

A

As the branches of the facial nerve are superficial, they are subject to injury in wounds, cuts and in child-birth. As the nerve and its branches pass through the parotid gland, they are vulnerable to injury during surgery on the gland or in disease of the gland.

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11
Q

What is a consequence of parotid gland disease?

A

Parotid gland disease often causes pain in the auricle of the ear, external acoustic meatus, temporal region and the TMJ.

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12
Q

What is the blood supply to the face?

A

Branches of the external carotid artery.

The facial artery is the major arterial supply to the face.

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13
Q

Where do you feel for the facial artery pulse?

A

The pulse of the facial artery can be palpated as the artery winds around the inferior border of the mandible.

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14
Q

Why do you have to compress both arteries during facial artery laceration?

A

Because the artery has many anastomoses with other arteries of the face, in the event of laceration of the artery on one side of the face, it is necessary to compress both the arteries to stop bleeding.

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15
Q

What is the main venous drainage of the face?

A

facial vein

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16
Q

Where does the facial nerve drain into?

A

Internal jugular vein

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17
Q

Where do Superficial temporal vein and maxillary vein drain into?

A

External jugular vein

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18
Q

Where do internal and external jugular vein drain into?

A

Subclavian vein

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19
Q

What are the structures in the neck surrounded by?

A

Layer of subcutaneous tissue

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20
Q

How are structures in the neck compartmentalised?

A

Layers of deep cervical fascia

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21
Q

Define superficial cervical fascia

A

layer of fatty connective tissue that lies between the dermis of the skin and the investing layer of deep cervical fascia

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22
Q

What does the superficial cervical fascia contain?

A

It contains cutaneous nerves, blood and lymphatic vessels, superficial lymph nodes and variable amounts of fat.
Anterolaterally, it contains the platysma.

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23
Q

What is the platysma?

A

broad, thin sheet of muscle in the subcutaneous tissue of the neck

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24
Q

Which pharyngeal arch does the platysma develop from?

A

2nd Pharyngeal arch

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25
What is the nerve supply to the platysma?
Facial nerve
26
Where do you find the platysma?
The platysma covers the anterolateral aspect of the neck. Inferiorly, the fibres diverge, leaving a gap anterior to the larynx and trachea.
27
What is the function of the platysma?
Acting from its superior attachment, the platysma tenses the skin. Acting from its inferior attachment, the platysma helps depress the mandible and draw the corners of the mouth inferiorly, as in a grimace.
28
What are the 3 layers of the deep cervical fascia?
Investing Pretracheal Prevertebral
29
What does the carotid sheath contain?
common carotid arteries, internal jugular veins and vagus nerves
30
What are the functions of deep cervical fascia?
o Support • Viscera (e.g. thyroid gland) • Muscles, Vessels and deep Lymph Nodes o Limit the spread of abscesses that result from infections o Slipperiness that allows structures in the neck to move and pass over one another without difficulty • Swallowing • Turning the head and neck
31
What is the investing layer?
most superficial, the investing layer surrounds the entire neck deep to the skin
32
What does the investing layer contain?
o Sternocleidomastoid o Trapezius o Submandibular and Parotid Salivary Glands
33
How does the pretracheal layer run in the neck?
A thin layer, limited to the anterior part of the neck. Inferiorly it extends into the thorax, where it blends with the fibrous pericardium. Laterally it blends with the carotid sheath.
34
What does the pretracheal layer enclose?
``` o Muscular layer • Encloses infrahyoid muscles o Visceral layer • Thyroid gland • Trachea • Oesophagus ```
35
How does the prevertebral layer extend in the neck?
The innermost layer of the deep fascia, which forms a sheath for the vertebral column and the muscles associated with it. Extends from the base of the cranium of the 3rd thoracic vertebra and extends laterally as the axillary sheath that surrounds the axillary vessels and the brachial plexus.
36
What is the course of the carotid sheath?
A tubular, fibrous structure that extends from the base of the cranium to the root of the neck.
37
What does the carotid sheath contain?
o The common carotid artery - medially o Internal jugular vein - laterally o The vagus nerve (CN X) - inbetween and posterior
38
How does infection spread in the deep cervical layers?
Determine the direction in which abscesses in the neck may spread. If an infection occurs: o Between the Investing layer and the muscular part of the pretracheal surrounding the infrahyoid muscles, it will not spread beyond the manubrium. o Between the Investing and visceral Pretracheal layers, it can spread into the thoracic cavity anterior to the pericardium. o Pus from an abscess lying behind the Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia may extend laterally in the neck. • May perforate the fascial layer and enter the retropharyngeal space. • This will produce a bulge (retropharyngeal abscess) in the pharynx, resulting in dysphasia (difficulty swallowing) and dysphonia (difficulty speaking)
39
What is retropharyngeal space?
potential space between the Prevertebral layer of fascia and the fascia surrounding the pharynx superficially.
40
What is the importance of retropharyngeal space?
major route of spread of infection from the neck to the thorax. The space runs to the diaphragm.
41
What are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck?
o Anterior – Mid line o Posterior – The anterior border of SCM o Superior – Inferior border of the mandible o Apex – Jugular notch in the manubrium o Roof – Superficial cervical fascia, containing the platysma o Floor – Pharynx, larynx, thyroid gland
42
What are the subdivisions of the anterior triangle of the neck?
Submandibular triangle Submental triangle Carotid triangle Muscular triangle
43
What does the submandibular triangle contain?
* Submandibular gland * Submandibular lymph nodes * Hypoglossal and Mylohyoid nerves * Parts of facial artery and vein
44
What does the submental triangle contain?
* Submental lymph nodes | * Small veins which unite to form anterior jugular vein
45
What does the carotid triangle contain?
``` • Carotid sheath o Common carotid artery o Internal jugular vein o Vagus nerve o Deep Cervical Lymph Nodes • Thyroid gland • Larynx • Pharynx • External carotid artery and some of its branches • Hypoglossal and Spinal accessory nerves • Branches of cervical plexus ```
46
What does the muscular triangle contain?
* Sternothyroid * Sternohyoid * Thryoid * Parathyroid
47
What are the borders of the posterior triangle in the neck?
o Anterior – Posterior border of SCM o Posterior – Anterior border of Trapezius o Inferiorly – Middle third of the clavicle, between Trapezius and SCM o Apex – Where SCM and Trapezius meet on the superior nuchal line of the occipital bone o Roof – Investing layer of deep cervical fascia o Floor – Muscles covered by the Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia
48
What are the subdivisions of the posterior triangle?
Occipital triangle | Omoclavicular (subclavian) triangle
49
What are the contents of the occipital triangle?
* Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI) * Trunks of Brachial Plexus * Part of external jugular vein * Posterior branches of cervical plexus * Cervicodorsal trunk * Cervical lymph node
50
What are the contents of the omoclavicular (subclavian) triangle?
* 3rd part Subclavian Artery * Part of Subclavian Vein * Suprascapular artery * Supraclavicular lymph nodes
51
What are the attachments of the hyoid muscles?
In the anterolateral part of the neck, the hyoid bone provides attachments for the Suprahyoid Muscles superiorly, and the Infrahyoid Muscles inferiorly.
52
What are the functions of the hyoid muscles?
steady or move the hyoid and larynx.
53
Name the suprahyoid muscles
``` o Mylohyoid o Geniohyoid o Stylohyoid o Digastric Muscles • Two bellies (Anterior and Posterior) • Joined by an intermediate tendon • Fibrous sling, from Pretracheal layer of Deep Cervical Fascia allows the tendon to slide anteriorly and posteriorly ```
54
What are the suprahyoid muscles innervated by?
``` o Mylohyoid (inferior alveolar nerve) o Geniohyoid (Cranial nerve I) o Stylohyoid (Facial nerve) o Digastric Muscles • Anterior - Facial nerve • Posterior - Inferior alveolar nerve ```
55
What are the functions of the suprahyoid muscles?
Supporting the hyoid in providing a base from which the tongue functions. They also elevate the hyoid and larynx in relation to swallowing and tone production.
56
What are the innervations to the infrahyoid muscles?
C1 - C3 innervation
57
What are the infrahyoid muscles?
o Superficial Plane • Sternohyoid • Omohyoid • Has two bellies (Superior and Inferior) • Joined by an intermediate tendon • Fascial sling for the tendon connects to the clavicle o Deep Plane • Sternothyroid • Thyrohyoid
58
What are the functions of the Infrahyoid muscles?
Anchor the hyoid, sternum, clavicle and scapula, and depress the hyoid and larynx during swallowing and speaking. They also work with the Suprahyoid muscles to steady the hyoid, providing a firm base for the tongue.
59
What is the blood supply to the head and neck?
Common Carotid Arteries and Vertebral Arteries.
60
What is the blood drainage from the head and neck?
Internal Jugular Vein, with the External Jugular Vein and Anterior Jugular Vein
61
How does the carotid sheath form?
Fusion of: o The Prevertebral layer of cervical fascia • Posteriorly o The Pretracheal layer of cervical fascia • Anteromedially o The Superficial layer of cervical fascia • Anterolaterally
62
Where does the sympathetic trunk lie in relation to the carotid sheath?
Medially and posterior
63
Where does the Right common carotid artery originate from?
bifurcation of the Brachiocephalic Trunk behind the right sternoclavicular joint.
64
Where does the Left common carotid artery originate from?
Arch of the Aorta. Consequently, the left common carotid artery is slightly longer as it courses for about 2cm in the superior mediastinum before entering the neck.
65
Where do the common carotids terminate?
midway between the angle of the mandible and the mastoid process of the temporal bone. A reliable anatomical landmark for this is the upper border of the thyroid cartilages.
66
What do you find at the bifurcation of the common carotids?
Carotid sinus?
67
What is the vertebral level of the bifurcation of the common carotids?
C4
68
What do you find at the carotid sinus?
Baroreceptors, which detect changes in blood pressure.
69
What is the importance of the carotid sinus?
used to Alleviate Supra-Ventricular Tachycardia through gentle rubbing. This is known as a Carotid Massage.
70
What do you find at the carotid body?
Peripheral Chemoreceptors, which detect arterial O2 concentrations
71
What is a common problem at the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries?
common site for atheroma formation. This causes narrowing (stenosis) of the artery. Rupture of the clot can cause an embolus to travel to the brain. This will cause a Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA) or Stroke.
72
How are internal carotid arteries different to external carotid arteries?
Lack branches in the neck
73
How does the internal carotid artery enter the skull?
Through the carotid canal
74
What are the branches of the external carotid artery?
8 branches Stop Superior Thyroid Alcohol Ascending Pharyngeal Late Lingual Friday Facial Or Occipital Puke Posterior Auricular More Maxillary Saturday Superficial Temporal
75
What do you find within the substance of parotid gland?
Maxillary and Superficial Temporal Arteries within the substance of the Parotid Gland. It is accompanied here by the Facial Nerve (CN VII) and the Retromandibular Vein.
76
Where do the vertebral arteries arise from?
Subclavian artery
77
What is the course of the vertebral artery?
ascend through the Transverse Foramen in Cervical Vertebrae 6 → 1
78
Which vertebral transverse foramen does the vertebral artery not go through?
C7
79
What is the function of the vertebral arteries?
Supply brain along with internal carotid arteries
80
Which nerves can be accessed via the carotid triangle?
Vagus and Hypoglossal nerves
81
What are the borders of the carotid triangle?
``` o Superiorly • Posterior Belly of the Digastric o Laterally • Sternocleidomastoid o Medially • Superior belly of Omohyoid ```
82
What are the layers of the scalp?
``` o Skin o Connective tissue (dense) o Aponeurosis o Loose connective tissue • Contains blood vessels o Periosteum ```
83
Which 2 arteries to the scalp are not derived from the external carotid artery?
Supratrochlear and suborbital arteries | Which are branches of opthalmic arteries which arise from internal carotid arteries
84
Why does the scalp bleed profusely?
Numerous anastomoses and the walls of the arteries being closely attached to connective tissue, limiting their constriction.
85
Why do deep lacerations of epicranial aponeurosis bleed profusely?
Opposing pull of occipitofrontalis
86
Why does blood loss to scalp not lead to skull necrosis?
Different blood supply
87
Which artery supplies the skull?
Middle Meningeal artery
88
What is the venous drainage of the scalp?
Superficial veins accompany arteries o Superficial Temporal Veins o Occipital Veins o Posterior Auricular Veins Some deep parts of the scalp in the temporal region have veins that drain into the Pterygoid Venous Plexus.
89
What is the course of drainage of skull?
Supraorbital and Supratrochlear Veins unite at the medial angle of the eye to form the Angular Vein, which drains into the Facial Vein.
90
How are veins of scalp dural venous sinuses connected?
The veins of the scalp connect to the Diploic Veins of the Skull via several valve-less Emissary Veins and therefore connect to the Dural Venous Sinuses. This relationship means that infection from the scalp can spread to the cranial cavity and affect the meninges.
91
What is the blood supply to the dura and skull?
The Anterior and Posterior Branches of the Middle Meningeal Artery supplies the Dura and Skull. It is is a branch of the Maxillary Artery, which in turn is a branch of the External Carotid Artery.
92
What is extradural haemorrhage?
bleeding deep to the cranium but superficial to the Dura.
93
What is craniotomy?
gain access into the cranial cavity. When preformed the bone and skin flap are reflected inferiorly to preserve blood supply.
94
Where do you find dural venous sinuses?
Endothelium-lined spaces between the periosteal and meningeal layers of the Dura.
95
Which veins drain into the dural venous sinuses?
o Superior Sagittal Sinus o Inferior Sagittal Sinus o Cavernous Sinus o Sigmoid Sinus • Continue as the Internal Jugular Veins • Exit the skull through the jugular foramen o Transverse Sinus
96
What are the superficial arteries of the face?
External Carotid Artery, except the Supraorbital and Supratrochlear that are from the Internal Carotid Artery via the Opthalmic Artery.
97
What is the blood supply to the face?
Facial •External Carotid •Muscles of facial expression and face Superior and Inferior Labial •Facial •Upper lip, side and septum of nose Lower lip Maxillary •External Carotid •Deep structures of the face Lateral Nasal •Facial •Skin on ala and dorsum of nose Angular •Facial •Superior cheek and lower eyelid Transverse Facial •Superficial Temporal •Facial muscles and skin of temporal frontal and temporal regions Supratrochlear •Opthalmic (Int. Carotid) •Muscles and skin of forehead and scalp Superior conjuctiva Supraorbital •Opthalmic (Int. Carotid) •Muscles and skin of forehead and scalp Superior conjuctiva
98
What is the venous drainage of the face?
Facial Vein, which in turn drains into the Internal Jugular Vein. ``` Cavernous sinus Supratrochlear vein Supra-orbital vein Angular vein Deep facial vein Facial vein ```
99
What is the cavernous sinus?
plexus of extremely thin-walled veins on the upper surface of the spehnoid bone.
100
What is the content of the cavernous sinus?
``` o Internal Carotid Artery o CN III – Oculomotor o CN IV – Trochlear o CN VI – Abducent o CN V – Trigeminal • CN V 1 – Opthalmic • CN V 2 – Maxillary ```
101
Where do facial vein and superior opthalmic vein communicate?
At the medial angle of the eye the Facial Vein and the Superior Opthalmic Vein communicate and drain into the Cavernous Sinus
102
What are problems of deep facial veins draining into pterygoid plexus?
* Infection can travel from Facial Vein → Dural Venous Sinuses * Thrombophlebitis of Facial Vein – Infected clot can travel to intracranial system
103
What is the venous drainage of the head?
``` superior sagittal sinus Cavernous sinus Transverse sinus sigmoid sinus facial vein jugular vein ```
104
Which muscle does the IJV lie under?
Under sternocleidomastoid
105
Which vein is used to show right atrium pressure?
Internal jugular vein
106
How do you measure JVP?
o Use right IJV o Effectively like a direct connection to right atrium o Patient at 450 angle o Height from sternal angle + 5cm
107
What are the regional lymph nodes?
``` o Occipital o Retroauricular (A.k.a. Mastoid) o Parotid o Buccal (A.k.a. Facial) o Submandibular o Submental o Anterior o Cervical o Superficial Cervical • Along the course of External Jugular Vein o Retropharyngeal o Laryngeal o Tracheal ```
108
What are the terminal lymph nodes + what does drain?
o A.k.a. Deep Cervical Nodes • Receive all the afferent lymph vessels of the head and neck, either directly or indirectly, via one of the regional groups. • Closely related to the Carotid Sheath (Internal Jugular Vein) o Jugulo-Digastric • A.k.a. Tonsillar node • Located just below and behind the angle of the mandible • Lymphatic drainage of tonsil and tongue o Jugulo-Omohyoid • A.k.a. Tongue node • Lymphatic drainage of the tongue, oral cavity, trachea, oesophagus and the thyroid gland oDeep Cervical Nodes in the Posterior Triangle of the neck • Lie along the course of the Accessory Nerve. • Accessory Nerve may have to be removed in malignancy of the neck o Supraclavicular nodes • Root of the neck • Enlarge in late stages of malignancies of the thorax and abdomen • Virchow’s Node associated with Gastric Carcinoma
109
Explain the jugular lymph trunk
On the left side the Jugular Lymph Trunk usually joins the Thoracic Duct, which enters the Left Brachiocephalic Vein at the junction between the Subclavian and Internal Jugular Veins. On the right side the Jugular Lymph Trunk enters the venous system at the junction between the Subclavian and Internal Jugular Veins, but this time via a short Right Lymphatic Duct.
110
What is the thoracic duct?
Thoracic Duct is the body’s main duct for the return of lymph to venous blood.
111
What is the course of the thoracic duct?
o Begins in the abdomen at the cisterna chyli (L2) o 38-45cm long o Extends vertically in the chest and curves posteriorly to the left Common Carotid Artery and left Internal Jugular Vein o Empties into the Left Brachiocephalic Vein at the junction between the Subclavian and Internal Jugular Veins • Left Venous Angle
112
What does the right lymphatic duct drain?
o Drains the upper right side of the body • Right side of head and neck • Right upper limb • Right thorax
113
Where does the right lymphatic duct drain into?
o Drains into the junction of the Subclavian Vein and Internal Jugular Vein • Right Venous Angle
114
What is lymphadenopathy?
Lymphadenopathy is the enlargement of lymph nodes
115
What are the causes of lymphadenopathy?
``` o Infection • Feel tender, smooth • Glandular Fever o Malignancy • Feel non-tender, craggy • Primary or Metastases • Lymphoma, Head and Neck Cancers ```
116
What are the causes of glandular fever?
o Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) | o Viral infiltration produces atypical lymphocytes
117
What are the symptoms of glandular fever?
o Swollen, painful lymph node, sore throat, fatigue, fever
118
What is the treatment for cervical metastases?
block dissection of the cervical nodes. This procedure involves the removal, as a unit (en bloc), of the Internal Jugular Vein, Fascia, Lymph Nodes and the Submandibular Salivary Gland.
119
What are the functions of lymph nodes?
o Phagocytic cells act as filters for particulate matter and micro-organisms o Antigen is present to the immune system
120
What are the structures of lymph nodes?
``` Fibrous capsule o Lymphatic Sinuses o Blood vessels o Parenchyma (Cortex, paracortex, medulla) ```
121
How do B cells enter lymph nodes?
In the cortex of the lymph nodes, B cells enter lymph nodes via post capillary venules that have High endothelial venules, and pass to follicles. Unstimulated B cells pass out rapidly to return to circulation with lymph. If activated by antigenic stimulation, B cells proliferate and stay in lymph nodes
122
What are activated B cells within lymphoid follicles known as?
Follicle centre cells
123
What is a germinal centre?
Pale staining central area of secondary follicle
124
What happens to stimulated B cells in lymph nodes?
Stimulated B cells proliferate and undergo somatic hypermutation and are selected for high affinity antibodies to the antigen displaced by follicular dendritic cells. They then take up the antigen, process and present it to T cells. T cells then further promote the development of B cells by releasing of cytokines (IL-4). B cells then become centrocytes and then centroblasts.
125
What do follicle centre cells contain?
Follicle centre cells either have cleaved nuclei (Centrocytes) or more open/several nuclei (centroblasts).
126
What happens to the centroblasts?
The centroblasts leave the follicle and pass to the paracortex and medullary sinuses, where they become immunoblasts. Immunoblasts give rise to plasma cells or memory B cells.
127
What is the content of the paracortex in the lymph nodes?
The paracortex contains lymphocytes, accessory cells and supporting cells. The Paracortex is the predominant site for T-Lymphocytes in the lymph node.
128
What is the content of the medulla in the lymph nodes?
The medulla is rich in macrophages and comprises: o Large blood vessels o Medullary cords • Rich in plasma cells • Produced Ab’s pass out of the node via the efferent lymphatic o Medullary sinuses
129
What are the bones in the head?
``` Ethmoid Frontal Inferior conchae Lacrimal Mandible Maxilla Nasal Parietal Sphenoid Temporal Vomer Zygomatic ```
130
What are the bones of the face?
``` Inferior nasal concha (2) Lacrimal bones (2) Mandible Maxilla (2) Nasal bones (2) Palatine bones (2) Vomer Zygomatic bones (2) ```
131
Which bones form the pterion?
Parietal Temporal Sphenoid Frontal
132
What are bones forming the cranium?
Cranial Bones: ``` Calvaria • Frontal • Parietal (2) • Occipital • Ethmoid ``` Cranial Base • Sphenoid • Temporal (2)
133
What is the structure of the calvaria?
The bones of the calvaria consist of 2 layers of compact bone separated by a layer of bone marrow, the Diploe.
134
What do the bones of the cranial base articulate with?
1st cervical vertebra Facial skeleton Mandible
135
What are the 3 types of sutures joining the bones?
Coronal Sagittal Lamboidal
136
At which sites are skull fractures more prone?
o Squamous Temporal Bone and Parietal Bone over the temples and sphenoid air sinus o Foramen Magnum and the inner parts of the Sphenoid Wing at the skull base o Anterior Cranial Fossa • Cribriform plate of the Ethmoid Bone, roof of the orbits o Middle Cranial Fossa • The weakest, with thin bones and multiple foramina o Posterior Cranial Fossa • Areas between the mastoid and dural sinuses
137
What are the symptoms of skull fractures?
Bleeding from the wound, ear, nose or around eyes, bruising, draining of CSF from ears or nose, swelling, confusion, convulsions, difficulties with balance, drowsiness, headache, loss of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbance, stuff neck and slurred speech.
138
What are the types of fractures that can occur in the skull?
Depressed Fracture A severe, localised blow may result in a local indentation, in which a fragment of bone may compress or injure the underlying brain. Linear Calvarial Fractures Trauma to the Calvaria often results in radiating linear fractures, the fracture lines radiating away from the point of impact in two or more directions. Comminuted Fractures The bone is broken into several pieces. Contrecoup (Counterblow) fracture No fracture occurs at the point of impact, but one occurs on the opposite side of the cranium. Simple Fracture A break in the bone without damage to the skin Compound Fracture Involves a break in, or loss of, skin and splintering of the bone accompanied by brain injury and bleeding. Basal Skull Fracture Presents with Battle’s Sign
139
What can occur if there is a fracture at the pterion?
Bone fragments from fractures may rupture the Middle Meningeal Artery, leading to an Extradural Haemorrhage
140
What is osteomyelitis?
Bone inflammation due to infection
141
How can you get spread of infection to the skull?
The Emissary Veins (see above) connect the superficial veins of the scalp with the Diploic Veins of the skull bones and with the Intracranial Venous Sinuses, providing a route for infection. Infection of the scalp may spread to the skull bones via these veins,
142
Name the foramen of the calvaria
``` Foramen Magnum Foramen ovale Foramen spinosum Foramen Lacerum Carotid Canal Jugular Foramen ```
143
What are the main features of the facial skeleton?
``` Frontal Zygomatic Orbits Nasal Region Maxillae Mandible ```
144
What does the frontal bone articulate with?
* Nasal bones * Zygomatic bones * Lacrimal bones * Ethmoid bone * Spehnoid bone
145
What does the Zygomatic bone articulate with?
* Frontal bone * Sphenoid bone * Temporal bones * Maxillae
146
What is the name of the joint where the mandible articulates with the cranial base?
Temporomandibular joint
147
How do Maxillofacial fractures occur?
massive facial trauma. A hard blow to the lower jaw often results in a fracture of the neck of the mandible and may be associated with TMJ dislocation.
148
How is a black eye caused?
Skin bruising around the orbit causes tissue fluid and blood to accumulate in the surrounding connective tissue.
149
How is bleeding caused as a result of facial fracture?
A trauma or blow to the Supraciliary Arches may cause laceration of the skin and cause profuse bleeding.
150
What are malar flush?
Redness of the skin covering the Zygomatic bones is associated with Mitral Stenosis.
151
Which is the strongest cervical vertebra bone?
Axis - Cervical vertebra 2
152
How can the cervical spine dislocate?
dislocated in neck injuries with relatively less force than is required to fracture them. Slight dislocations may not damage the spinal cord because of the large vertebral canal, but severe dislocation can cause serious injuries.
153
Explain how fractures of the dens can occur
o May occur due to a fall on the head o Displacement of fractured dens may injure the spinal cord • Quadriplegia - paralysis leading to total loss of limb and torso movement o Displacement of fracture dens may injure the medulla of the brainstem • Death
154
Explain how hyperflexion of cervical region can occur
o Head on collisions (car) o Rupture of lower intervertebral discs (C5/C6 and C6/C7) resulting in compression of spinal roots C6 and C7 o Pain is felt in the neck, shoulder, arm and hand
155
Explain how hyperextension of cervical region can occur
o Whiplash injury (rear-end car collision) o Tearing of anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments, fracture of cervical spinous processes, disc rupture, neck muscle injury, blood vessel injury
156
Explain how osteoarthritis of cervical spine can occur
o Joints of the vertebral arches (zygopophyseal joints) are close to intervertebral foramina through which spinal nerves emerge o When these joints are affected by Osteoarthritis (osteophyte formation), related spinal nerves are compressed, causing pain along dermatomes and muscle spasms along myotomes
157
Explain a broken neck
o Compression of the cervical spine against the shoulder o May involve spinal cord damage • Partial or complete paralysis • Death o Most common at C2, C6 and C7 o The most fatal injuries occur in the upper part of the spine (C1 or C2)
158
Explain a burst fracture
o Head first fall from height | o Diving head first into a pool
159
Explain a hangman's fracture
o Hyperextension of the head on the neck
160
What is the infratemporal fossa?
irregularly shaped space on the lateral aspect of the skull.
161
What is the content of the infratemporal fossa?
o Inferior part of the Temporalis muscle o Inferior parts of the Medial and Lateral Pterygoid muscles o Maxillary Artery • Larger terminal branch of External Carotid Artery o Middle Meningeal Artery • Branch of the Maxillary Artery o Superficial Temporal Artery • Smaller terminal branch of External Carotid Artery o Maxillary Vein o Middle Meningeal Vein(s) o Pterygoid Venous Plexus ``` o Mandibular Nerve • 3rd Branch of the Trigeminal (CN V3) o Branches of the Mandibular Nerve • Auriculotemporal Nerve • Inferior Alveolar Nerve • Lingual Nerve • Buccal Nerve • Chorda Tympani (Branch of Facial Nerve) o Otic Ganglion ```
162
What are the openings of the infratemporal fossa?
``` o Foramen Ovale • Mandibular division of Trigeminal Nerve (CN V3) o Foramen Spinosum • Middle Meningeal Artery o Alveolar Canal o Inferior Orbital Fissure o Pterygomaxillary Fissure ```
163
Explain mandibular nerve block
``` o Anaesthetic is injected near the Mandibular Nerve, where it enters the Infratemporal fossa • Near to Foramen Ovale o Nerves affected: • Inferior Alveolar • Lingual • Buccal • Auriculotemporal ```
164
What is an inferior alveolar nerve block?
o Dental procedures o Anaesthetic is injected around the Mandibular Foramen • Passage for the inferior alveolar nerve and vessels • Medial side of the mandible o All mandibular teeth are anesthetised on the medial side o Skin and mucous membranes of the lower lip, the labial alveolar mucosa, gingivae and skin of the skin are also anesthetised • Mental Branch of the Inferior Alveolar Nerve
165
What type of joint is the TMJ?
modified hinge type synovial joint between the Mandible and the Cranium.
166
What is the articulation of the TMJ?
``` Superiorly o Mandibular Fossa • Posterior and concave o Articular Tubercle • Anterior and convex ``` Inferiorly o Head of the mandible
167
How does the TMJ allow movement?
It is always the mandible that displaces in order for movements to occur. Movements occur by displacements in either the Superior Joint Cavity (gliding) or Inferior Joint Cavity (hinge).
168
What type of movements occur at the TMJ?
Flexion (Elevation) o Closing the mouth o Occurs in the inferior compartment o Temporalis, Masseter, Medial Pterygoid ``` Extension (Depression) o Opening the mouth o Occurs in the inferior compartment o Prime mover is gravity • Lateral Pterygoid, Suprahyoid, Infrahyoid • Active against resistance ``` ``` Gliding (Translation) o Protrusion and Retrusion of the jaw • Protrusion – Lateral Pterygoid, Medial Pterygoid, Masseter • Retrusion – Temporalis, Masseter o Occurs in the superior compartment ``` Rotation (Pivoting) o Occurs in the inferior compartment
169
What happens during opening movements of the TMJ?
``` Condyles are pulled forwards o Protrusion / Gliding • Superior compartment o Lateral Pterygoid Chin moves down and back o Hinge movement • Inferior compartment o Usually by gravity o Suprahyoid and Infrahoid can depress the mandible against resistance ```
170
What happens during closing movement of the TMJ?
``` Retraction of the mandible o Retrusion / Gliding • Superior compartment o Posterior fibres of temporalis muscle Elevation of the mandible o Hinge movement • Inferior compartment o Remainder of temporalis o Masseter o Medial Pterygoid ```
171
How is the TMJ strengthened?
by extra-capsular ligaments.
172
What are the attachments of the TMJ capsule?
Superiorly o Circumference of the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle Inferiorly o Neck of the condyle of the mandible
173
What are the ligaments of the TMJ?
``` Lateral o 1, strong ligament o Temporomandibular ligament • Strongest ligament of the TMJ • Deep fibres blend with joint capcule Medial o 2, accessory ligaments o Sphenomandibular ligament o Stylomandibular ligament ```
174
When is the TMJ most stable?
The TMJ is most stable when the jaw is closed. o Mandibular condyle is in contact with the mandibular fossa o Teeth are in occlussal contact • Perfect occlusion further stabilises the TMJ
175
When is the TMJ least stable?
The TMJ is least stable when the jaw is open.
176
How can the TMJ dislocate?
Yawning or taking a large bite, excessive contraction of the Lateral Pterygoids may cause the heads of the mandible to dislocate anteriorly (pass anterior to the articular tubercles). In this position the mouth remains depressed and the person is unable to close their mouth. Dislocation of the TMJ most commonly results from a side-ways blow to the chin when the mouth is open
177
Define bruxism
o Grinding teeth when asleep
178
What do Temporomandibular pain dysfunction disorder lead to?
o Muscular pain
179
What do Mal-occlusion syndromes lead to
o Muscular pain
180
How many cranial nerves are there?
12 pairs
181
What is the course of the cranial nerves?
emerge through foramina or fissures in the cranium and are covered by tubular sheaths derived from the cranial meninges
182
What are the cranial nerves?
``` No. Nerve I Olfactory II Optic III Oculomotor IV Trochlear V Trigeminal VI Abducent (Abducens) VII Facial VIII Vestibulocochlear IX Glossopharyngeal X Vagus XI Spinal Accessory XII Hypoglossal ```
183
What is the pnemonic for the CN function?
Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Boobs Matter Most
184
What is the function of the cranial nerve 1?
o Special Sensory fibres • Distributed to the uppermost part of the nasal cavity • Smell
185
What is a results of damage to cranial nerve 1?
o Reaches the nose via the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone • Fractures of the cribiform plate involving the dura mater may be associated with leakage of CSF from the nose (rhinorrhea). • Fractures of the cribiform plate may result in Anosmia
186
What is the function of cranial nerve 2?
o Sensory | Innervates the eye
187
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 2?
o Direct trauma to eye or orbit, fracture of optic canal or pressure on optic pathway may result in nerve lesions • Loss of pupillary constriction and visual field defects
188
What is the function of cranial nerve 3?
o Motor • Innervates the Extraocular Muscles • Innervates the Ciliary Muscles • Innervates the Sphincter Pupillae
189
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 3?
o Fractures involving the cavernous sinus or aneurysms may cause lesions o Dilated pupil, ptosis, eye turns down and out, pupillary reflex on side of lesion is lost
190
What is the function of cranial nerve 4?
o Motor | • Innervates the Superior Oblique of the Eye
191
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 4?
o Stretching of the nerve during its course around the brainstem or orbit fractures may lead to nerve lesions • Inability to look down when eye is adducted
192
What is the function of cranial nerve 5?
o Both o Three divisions o Opthalmic • Sensory (Skin, cornea) • Corneal reflex o Maxillary • Sensory • Skin, mucous membrane of nose, palate and upper dental arcade ``` o Mandibular • Sensory o Skin, lower teeth, cheek and anterior 2/3rd of tongue (general sensation) • Motor o Innervates the muscles of mastication ```
193
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 5?
o Nerve lesions lead to paralysis of muscles and sharp, intense facial pain
194
What is the function of cranial nerve 6?
o Motor | • Innervates the Lateral Rectus
195
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 6?
o Fractures involving the cavernous sinus or orbit may lead to nerve lesions • Eye fails to move laterally, diplopia on lateral gaze
196
What is the function of cranial nerve 7?
o Both o Sensory • Special sensory (taste) anterior 2/3rds of tongue • General sensory fibres supply part of the external acoustic meatus and auricle o Motor • Muscles of facial expression • Parasympathetic secretomotor to submandibular and sublingual salivary glands via the chorda tympani • Parasymathetic secretomotor to glands of nasal mucosa, paranasal sinuses, palate and the lacrimal gland
197
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 7?
o Lacteration or contusion in Parotid Region • Paralysis of facial muscles, eye remains open, angle of mouth droops, forehead does not wrinkle • Bell’s Palsy o Fracture of Temporal Bone • Bell’s Palsy • Involvement of cochlear nerve and chorda tympani; dry cornea; loss of taste in anterior 2/3rds tongue o Intracranial Haematoma • Forehead wrinkles because of bilateral innervation of frontalis muscle • Paralysis of contralateral facial muscles
198
What is the function of cranial nerve 8?
o Sensory o Special Sensory – Balance and hearing • Vestibular Branch – Controls balance • Cochlear Branch – Hearing
199
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 8?
o Skull fractures, ear infections, tumour of the nerve (acoustic neuroma) may all cause nerve lesions • Progressive, unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), vertigo (sensation that environment is moving or spinning) • Acoustic neuroma frequently impairs Facial Nerve (CN VII) too
200
What is the function of cranial nerve 9?
o Both o Sensory • General and Special sensory (taste) to posterior 1/3rd of tongue • General sensory widely distributed to the pharynx, oropharyngeal isthmus, dorsum of palate, the auditory tube and related structures, the mastoid antrum and mastoid air cells • Sensory to Carotid Body and Sinus o Motor • Innervates the Stylopharyngeus • Parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to Parotid salivary gland
201
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 9?
o Deep lacerations of the neck may cause nerve lesions | • Loss of taste to posterior 1/3rd of tongue
202
What is the function of cranial nerve 10?
o Both o Sensory • eGeneral Sensory lower pharynx and larynx, external auditory meatus and back of auricle • Special Sensory (taste) to epiglottis o Motor • Innervates all muscles of the pharynx, except Stylopharyngeus • Innervates muscles of airways, larynx, heart and GI tract • Innervates all of the palate muscles, except tensor veli palatine
203
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 10?
o Nerve lesions in the neck affecting Recurrent Laryngeal branch of Vagus • Hoarseness of voice due to paralysis of vocal fold o Left recurrent laryngeal nerve is lower than the right o Bronchial or oesophageal carcinoma o Enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes o Stretched over an aneurysm of the aortic arch o Mitral stenosis → Enlarged LA → Pushed up left pulmonary artery, compressing the left recurrent laryngeal nerve against the aortic arch o Thyroidectomy causing damage to Superior Laryngeal Nerve • External branch lies close to superior thyroid artery and may be damaged when ligating the blood vessel
204
What is the function of cranial nerve 11?
o Motor o Cranial Component • Innervates the Pharynx, Larynx and soft palate o Spinal Component (contains fibres from C2, C3, C4) • Innervates the Trapezius and Sternocleidomastoid muscle
205
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 11?
o Surgery or lacerations to the neck can cause lesions to the nerve • Paralysis of sternocleidomastoid and superior fibers of trapezius • Shoulder droop
206
What is the function of cranial nerve 12?
o Motor | • Innervation of all Extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue, with the exception of Palatoglossus
207
What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 12?
o Neck laceration and basal skull fractures may cause nerve lesions • Protruded tongue deviates towards the affected side due to the arrangement of the muscles
208
Where is the location of the sympathetic trunk?
o Anterolateral to the vertebral column o Lying on the prevertebral fascia and muscles o Deep to the carotid sheath.
209
What is the course of the sympathetic trunk?
Preganglionic fibres arise mainly in the first thoracic neural segment and synapse in one of the three Cervical Sympathetic Ganglia, the Superior, Middle or Inferior. After synapsing, the postganglionic fibres travel as the Internal and External Carotid Nerves
210
How does the superior cervical ganglion run and what does it branch into?
pass with the Internal and External Carotid Arteries and its branches to: o The Pharyngeal Plexus o The Upper 4 Cervical Nerves o Cardiac Branch to the Cardiac Plexus
211
How does the middle cervical ganglion run and what does it branch into?
pass with the Inferior Thyroid Artery to: o The 5th and 6th Cervical Nerves o Cardiac Branch to the Cardiac Plexus
212
How does the inferior cervical ganglion run and what does it branch into?
pass with the Vertebral Artery to: o The 7th and 8th Cervical Nerves o Cardiac Branch to the Cardiac Plexus
213
What is the stellate gangloin?
The inferior ganglion is a small ganglion, which in 80% of people combines with the 1st Thoracic Ganglion to form the Stellate Ganglion.
214
What are the 4 pairs of parasympathetic ganglia in the head?
ciliary ganglion Pterygopalatine ganglion Submandibular ganglion Otic ganglion
215
What are the 4 cranial nerves that have brainstem nuclei?
* Oculomotor (CN III) * Facial (CN VII) * Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) * Vagus (CN X)
216
Which 3 cranial nerves have branches that reach the parasympathetic ganglia?
* Oculomotor → Ciliary Ganglion * Facial → Pterygopalatine / Submandibular Ganglion * Glossopharyngeal → Otic Ganglion * Vagus nerve does not have a discrete ganglion associated with it
217
Explain the ciliary ganglion
o Lies in the Orbital Cavity, lateral to the optic nerve o Parasympathetic fibres derived from Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) • Sphincter Papillae • Ciliary Muscles o Sympathetic Fibres come from the Superior Cervical Ganglion • Via the plexus on the Opthalmic Artery (First branch of the Internal Carotid Artery) • Distributed to the eyeball o Sensory fibres from the eyeball pass to the nasociliary nerve
218
Explain the pterygopalatine ganglion
o Lies in the Pterygopalatine Fossa o Connected to the Maxillary Nerve (CN V2) by small branches o Parasympathetic fibres derived from Facial Nerve (CN VII) via the Greater Pterosal Nerve • Lacrimal glands • Glands of the nose, palate and nasopharynx o Sympathetic fibres come from the Superior Cervical Ganglion • Via the plexus on the Internal Carotid Artery • Distributed to the nose, palate and nasopharynx o Sensory fibres from the nose, palate and nasopharynx pass in the branches of the ganglion to the Maxillary Nerve (CN V2)
219
Explain the submandibular ganglion
o Suspended from the Lingual Nerve by small branches o Parasympathetic fibres derived from the Facial Nerve (CN VII) via the Chorda Tympani, then the Lingual Nerve • Submandibular Gland • Sublingual Gland • Other glands on the floor of the oral cavity o Sympathetic fibres come from the Superior Cervical Ganglion • Along the Facial Artery • Pass to the glands in the floor of the oral cavity o Taste fibres may pass through the ganglion
220
Explain the otic ganglion
o Parasympathetic fibres derived from the Glossopharyngeal Nerve via the Auriculotemporal Nerve • Parotid Gland o Sympathetic fibres come from the Superior Cervical Ganglion • Along the Middle Meningeal Artery • Pass into the Parotid Gland o Motor branches from the Mandibular Nerve (CN V3) pass through the ganglion without synapsing
221
Explain what horner's syndrome is
Interruption of a cervical sympathetic trunk results in Horner’s Syndrome. It is manifested by the Absence of Sympathetically Stimulated functions on the Ipsilateral side of the head. o Miosis • Constriction of the pupil • Parasympathetically stimulated Sphincter Papillae of the pupil is unopposed o Ptosis • Drooping of superior eyelid • Paralysis of smooth muscle fibres interdigitated with the aponeurosis of the Levator Palpebrae Superioris that collectively constitute the Superior Tarsal muscle (innervated by Sympathetic fibres) o Vasodilation • Redness and increased temperature of the skin • Loss of sympathetic tone o Anhydrosis • Absence of sweating
222
What are the borders of the orbit?
``` o Roof • Frontal and Sphenoid o Floor • Maxilla, Zygomatic (and palatine) o Medial • Ethmoid, Maxilla, Lacrimal o Lateral • Zyogmatic, Sphenoid ```
223
What are the fractures that can occur at the orbit?
o Usually at bony sutures o Medial and Inferior walls are thin • Medial wall Fractures – Can involve Ethmoidal and Sphenoidal Sinus • Inferior wall Fractures – Can involve Maxillary Sinus ``` o ‘Blow Out’ Fracture • A fracture that displaces the orbital walls and contents • Muscle entrapment • Diplopia (double vision) • Infection ``` o Enopthalmos • Depression of eye • Opposite of exophthalmos (bulging of the eye) • Infraorbital bleeding may push the eyeball back out (Pulsatile)
224
What is the content of the optic canal?
• Optic Nerve
225
What is the content of the orbital fissure?
* Lateral → Medial * Lacrimal Nerve * Frontal Nerve * Trochlear Nerve (CN IV) * Superior branch of Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) * Nasociliary Nerve * Inferior Branch of the Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) * Abducens Nerve (CN VI) * Opthalmic Veins * Sympathetic Nerves • Large French Teenagers Sit Numb In Anticipation Of Sweets
226
What is the course of the optic nerve?
o Exits the orbit via the Optic Canal
227
What are the extraocular muscles of the orbit?
``` 4 Recti o Superior • Look up • Muscle loops through the Trochlear o Inferior • Look down o Medial • Look medial (Adduct Pupil) o Lateral • Look lateral (Abduct Pupil) ``` ``` 2 Obliques o Superior • Look down o Inferior • Look up ``` Levator Palpebrae Superioris • Lifts upper Eyelid
228
What is the innervation of the Extraocular muscles?
``` LR6SO4R3 o Lateral Rectus • Cranial Nerve 6 • Abducens o Superior Oblique • Cranial Nerve 4 • Trochlear o All the Rest • Cranial Nerve 3 • Oculomotor ```
229
What happens during abducent nerve palsy?
o Loss of innervation to the Lateral Rectus • Unable to move eye laterally (abduct pupil) • Pupil is fully adducted due to unopposed pull of medial rectus o Caused by fractures involving orbit or cavernous sinus
230
What happens during trochlear nerve palsy?
o Loss of innervation to the Superior Oblique • Unable to look eye down when eye is adducted o Caused by orbital fractures or stretching of the nerve during its course around the brainstem
231
What happens during oculomotor nerve palsy?
o Loss of innervation to ‘All the Rest’ • Superior eyelid droops o Ptosis (drooping of eyelid) o Loss of innervation to Levator Palpebrae Superioris o Unopposed activity of Orbicularis Oculi (Facial nerve) • Pupil is fully dilated and non reactive o Loss of innervation to Sphincter Pupillae o Unopposed action of Dilator Pupillae • Eye has moved ‘Down and Out’ • Unopposed action of Lateral Rectus and Superior Oblique o Caused by fractures involving the cavernous sinus or aneurysms
232
What is the blood supply of the eye?
Opthalmic Artery o Branch of the Internal Carotid Artery Central Artery of the Retina o Branch of the Opthalmic Artery o End arteries o Obstruction (e.g. by embolus) results in instant and total blindness
233
What is the blood drainage of the eye?
Superior and Inferior Opthalmic Veins o Exit via the Superior Orbital Fissure and drain into the Cavernous Sinus Central Vein of the Retina o Drains into the Cavernous Sinus, either directly or via Opthalmic Veins o Occlusion results in slow, painless loss of vision o Infections may also spread by this route from the eye to the brain
234
What are the functions of the eyelids?
The eyelids protect the cornea and the eyeball from injury and keep the cornea moist by covering it with lacrimal fluid. Conjuctiva line the inner surface of the eyelids. The eye blinks when the cornea becomes dry and the eyelids carry a film of fluid over the cornea. Dust and other foreign material is also swept across to the medial angle of the eye and removed. The eyelids are strengthened by Tarsal Plates, dense bands of connective tissue that contain Tarsal Glands, which produce secretions that lubricate the edges of the eyelids and prevents them from sticking together when they close.
235
What is the function of the lacrimal gland?
o Secretes Lacrimal Fluid (Tears) • Watery physiological saline • Contains the bacteriocidal lysozyme enzyme • Moistens and lubricates the surfaces of the conjuctiva and cornea • Provides some nutrients and dissolved oxygen to the cornea o Lies in a fossa on the superolateral part of the orbit
236
What is the function of the lacrimal duct?
Conducts lacrimal fluid from the gland to the conjuctival sac
237
What is the course of the lacrimal canaliculi?
o Commence at the medial angle of the eye where lacrimal fluid is drained from the lacrimal lake → lacrimal sac
238
What does the nasolacrimal duct do?
o Conveys lacrimal fluid to the inferior nasal meatus | • Inferior to the inferior nasal concha
239
Which muscles open the eyelids? What is their innervation?
o Levator Palpebrae Superioris • Innervated by Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) o Assisted by Superior Tarsal Muscles • Sympathetic innervation
240
Which muscles close the eyelids? What is their innervation?
o Orbicularis oculi | • Innervated by Facial Nerve (CN VII)
241
What happens if you cannot blink?
If the eyelids are prevented from closing properly the protective effect of blinking is lost. The cornea becomes dry and is left unprotected from dust and other particulate material. Irritation of the eyeball results in excessive tear formation
242
What are the layers of the eyeball?
``` 1. Outer Protective layer o Sclera • Fibrous and provides attachment for the Extraocular muscles • White, relatively avascular o Cornea • Transparent, avascular • Nourishment from lacrimal glands and vascular beds • Sensitive – CN V1 ``` ``` 2. Middle Vascular layer o Choroid • Red of eye, continues anteriorly as the Ciliary Body o Ciliary Body • Anterior muscle thickening • Attaches and focuses the lens • Ciliary process secretes aqueous humor into the Anterior Chamber o Iris • Thin diaphragm, aperture is pupil • PSNS contracts the Sphincter Pupillae • SNS contracts the Dilator Pupillae o Rich network of blood vessels ``` ``` 3. Inner Retina layer o Optic part • Photosensitive • Neural and Pigmented layer o Non-visual part • Anterior ```
243
What is the structure of the retina?
``` o Fundus • Posterior of eye • Seen with a fundoscope / opthalmoscope o Macula (a.k.a. macula lutea) • Fovea centralis o Optic Disc • Blind spot • Convergence of sensory fibres ```
244
What are the structures that light passes through?
Cornea Aqueous Humor Lens Vitreous Humor
245
What is the structure of the cornea?
``` o The cornea is the primary refractive medium o Myopia • Short or near-sight • Image focussed in front of retina o Hyeropia or Hypermetropia • Long or far-sight • Imaged focussed behind the retina o Presbyopia • Far sight due to age-related changes of lens ```
246
What is the structure of the Aqueous Humor?
o Produced by the Ciliary process o Drains into scleral venous sinus via trabecular meshwork o Responsible for intraocular pressure • Glaucoma is caused by raised intraocular pressure (outflow of aqueous humor is blocked)
247
What is the structure of the lens?
o Near vision • Accomodation • Parasympathetic activity in CN III → Sphincter like contraction of Ciliary muscle → Lens more globe like/fatter o Far vision • No parasympathetic activity to Ciliary muscles → Lens stretched → Flatter • Becomes thicker with age • Cataracts – Clouding of the lens
248
What is the structure of the vitreous humor?
o Holds retina in place o Retina • Rods – Low light, black and white • Cones – Bright light, colour vision
249
What is the corneal reflex?
o Afferent fibres • Opthalmic Branch of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V1) o Efferent Fibres • Temporal and Zygomatic Branches of the Facial Nerve (CN VII) • Contraction of the Orbicularis Oculi, causing the eye to blink o Dirt and other extraneous particles cause corneal abrasions that result in sudden pain and excessive tears o Injury to the nerve removes this reflex, rendering the cornea vulnerable to foreign particles as they will not be felt o Loss of reflex may lead to Corneal Ulceration
250
What is a corneal transplant?
People with scarred or opaque corneas may receive corneal transplants from donors (usually deceased). Corneal implants of non-reactive plastic material are also used.
251
What is mydriasis?
Mydriasis is dilation of the pupil, sometimes referred to as a ‘Blown pupil’. o Under-activity of PSNS → Lack of innervation to Sphincter Pupillae o Over-activity of SNS → Increased innervation to Dilator Pupillae Raised intracranial pressure is a possible cause of mydriasis.
252
What is glaucoma?
Outflow of aqueous humor through the scleral venous sinus into the blood circulation must occur at the same rate at which it is produced. If the outflow is decreased significantly because the pathway is blocked, pressure builds up in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye. This is known as Glaucoma. Blindness can result from compression of the inner layer of the eyeball (retina) and the Central Artery of the Retina.
253
What is presbyopia?
As people age, their lenses become harder and more flattened. These changes gradually reduce the focusing power of the lenses,
254
What are cataracts?
Some people also experience a loss of transparency (cloudiness) of the lens from areas of opaqueness (Cataracts). Cataract extraction combined with an intra-ocular lens implant has become a common operation.
255
What is retinal detachment?
The Intraretinal Space separates the layers of the retina in the developing embryo. During the early foetal period, the layers fuse, obliterating this space. However, although the Pigment Cell Layer becomes firmly fixed to the choroid, its attachment to the Neural Layer is not firm. Consequently, a blow to the eye may cause detachment of the retina, perhaps days or even weeks after trauma to the eye. Persons with retinal detachment may complain of flashes of light or specks floating in front of the eye.
256
What is coloboma?
Coloboma is the absence of a section of the iris. It may result from a birth defect, penetrating or non-penetrating injuries to the eyeball or a surgical iridectomy.
257
What is hyphema?
Haemorrhage within the anterior chamber of the eyeball (Hyphema or Hyphemia) usually results from blunt force trauma to the eyeball. Initially, the anterior chamber is tinged red, but blood soon accumulates. The initial haemorrhage usually stops in a few days and recovery is good.
258
What is exopthalmos?
``` Protrusion of the eye, causing the eyelids to part more than normal so that the whites of the sclera are visible all around the cornea and iris. o Bilateral • Grave’s Disease (Hyperthyroidism) o Unilateral • Aneurysm • Haematoma ```
259
What is the consequence of raised ICP?
o Optic nerve is surrounded by meninges with CSF in the subarcachnoid space o Increase in CSF pressure may compress the optic nerve → compress blood vessels supplying retina → blindness o Vein is occluded before the artery, leading to oedema of the retina (Papillodema)
260
What happens in a red eye?
The eye may appear bloodshot. This may result from trauma, infection, allergy or increased pressure in the eye. Severe coughing spells or recurrent vomiting may cause a patient to have a conjuctival haemorrhage.
261
What is a meibomian cyst?
Blocked Tarsal Gland, which lies behind the eyelash within the eyelid.
262
What is a stye?
Infection of the Sebaceous Gland at the base of the eyelash.
263
What are the components of the ear?
External, Middle and Internal Ear
264
What seperates the external from the middle ear?
tympanic membrane
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What does the eustachian tube join together?
Middle ear to nasopharynx
266
What is the anatomy of the external ear?
The Auricle (Pinna) o Irregularly shaped plate of Elastic Cartilage covered by thick skin o Several depression and elevations, including the Helix (outer rim) and Tragus (small flap guarding the external acoustic meatus) o Non-cartilaginous Lobule (lobe) consists of fibrous tissue, fat and blood vessels. The External Acoustic Meatus (Canal) o Cartilaginous tube lateral 1/3rd, bony canal medial 2/3rds o Lies in the Temporal Bone o Lined by skin secreting Cerumen (modified sebum), which offers protection. The discarded cells of the skin together with cerumen form Wax
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What is the blood supply to the auricle?
o Blood supply is from the Posterior Auricular and Superficial Temporal Arteries, which are both branches of the External Carotid Artery
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What is the innervation to the auricle?
o Sensory innervation Anterior to the External Acoustic Meatus is the Auriculotemporal Nerve, a branch of the Mandibular Nerve (CN V3) o Sensory innervation for the rest of the auricle is from the Great Auricular Nerve
269
How do you examine the ear?
o Sigmoid shaped, therefore Auricle is pulled upwards and backwards during ear examination to achieve a good internal view o In children, the canal should be straightened by pulling the canal downwards and back
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Explain the structure of the tympanic membrane
o Shallow cone with its apex pointing medially o ~1cm diameter o Thin, oval, semi-transparent, pearly grey membrane • Allows for visualisation of some structures within the middle ear, most notably the malleus o Blood vessels visible around the periphery o Partition between external and middle ear
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What is the innervation to the tympanic membrane?
o External surface supplied by: • Auriculotemporal Nerve Branch of CN V3 • Auricular Branch of the Vagus Nerve (CN X) o Internal surface supplied by the Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)
272
What is Arnold's cough reflex?
o Stimulation of the Auricular Branch of the Vagus Nerve (CN X) • E.g. insertion of cotton bud o Cough reflex (some event vomit)
273
What can happen to the tympanic membrane in disease?
``` o Dull and become red or yellow o Blood vessels may be dilated • Injection of the drum o Dense, white plaques • Tympanosclerosis o Bulging of the membrane • Pus or fluid in middle ear o Retracted membrane • Infratympanic cavity pressures reduced • Obstruction of Eustachian tube o Perforation of the membrane • Trauma • Infection ```
274
What is the middle ear?
The Cavity of the Middle Ear, or Tympanic Cavity is the narrow air-filled chamber in the Petrous part of the Temporal Bone.
275
What are the 2 parts of the middle ear?
o Tympanic Cavity Proper • The space directly internal to the tympanic membrane • Connected Anteromedially with the Nasopharynx by the Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian) Tube • Connected Posterolaterally with the Mastoid Air Cells through the Mastoid Antrum o Epitympanic Recess • Space superior to the membrane
276
What is the content of the middle ear?
``` o Auditory Ossicles • Malleus • Incus • Stapes o Stapedius and Tensor Tympani muscles o Chorda Tympani Nerve (Branch of the Facial Nerve (CN VII)) o Tympanic Plexus of Nerves ```
277
What is the function of the ossicles?
The ossicles serve to relay the vibrations encountered by the tympanic membrane to the internal ear, amplifying and concentrating sound energy to the oval window.
278
What are the ossicles made up of?
o Malleus • Handle is attached to the tympanic membrane • Body articulates with the body of the Incus o Incus • Articulates with the Stapes o Stapes • Articulates with the Bony Labyrinth of the inner ear at the Oval Window
279
What are the muscles associated with the auditory ossicles?
Tensor Tympani o Inserts into the handle of the malleus • Pulls handle medially • Tenses the tympanic membrane, reducing the amplitude of its oscillations o Prevents damage to the inner ear when exposed to loud sounds Stapedius o Pulls the stages posteriorly and tilts its base in the oval window • Tightens the anular ligament and reduces the oscillatory range o Prevents excessive movement of the stapes o Nerve to Stapedius arises from the Facial Nerve (CN VII)
280
What is the importance of the facial nerve in relation to the middle ear?
The nerve lies in the Facial Canal, separated from the tympanic cavity by a very thin bony partition. Because of this proximity, a middle ear infection may cause a lesion of the facial nerve.
281
What is the content of the inner ear?
o Vestibule • Small bony chamber, containing the Utricle and Saccule, which are sensitive to rotational acceleration and the static pull of gravity o Semi-circular Ducts and canals • Communicate with the vestibule • Contain receptors that respond to Rotational Acceleration in three different planes o Cochlea • Shell shaped portion of the bony labyrinth containing the Cochlear Duct o Cochlear Duct • Accommodates the spiral Organ of Corti o Organ of Corti • Contains the receptors of the auditory apparatus
282
What is auricular haemotoma?
A localised collection of blood forms between the Perichondrium and the Auricular Cartilage, causing distortion of the contours of the auricle. If the blood is not aspirated, fibrosis develops in the overlying skin, forming a deformed auricle (Cauliflower or Boxer’s ear).
283
Name some congenital pinna deformities
o Antihelix deformity o Pinna malformation o Pre-auricular pit o Pre-auricular skin tag
284
What is acute otitis externa?
o Infection / Inflammation of the external acoustic meatus o Often develops in swimmers who do not dry their meatus after swimming o Itching and pain in the external ear • Pulling the auricle or applying pressure on the tragus increases pain
285
What is otitis media?
o Infection of the middle ear o Often secondary to upper respiratory infections • Via the Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian Tube) • More common in children as their Eustachian tube is shorter and more horizontal, making it easier for organisms to travel up it and harder for fluid to drain away from the middle ear o Earache and bulging red tympanic membrane • Pus or fluid in the middle ear o Inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the tympanic cavity may cause partial or complete blockage of the Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian) tube.
286
What is the cause for perforation of the tympanic membrane?
o May result from otitis media, the insertion of foreign bodies, trauma, excessive pressure (e.g. from scuba diving) o One of several causes of middle ear deafness o Minor ruptures of the membrane often heal spontaneously o Large ruptures require surgical repair
287
What is mastoiditis?
o Infections of the mastoid antrum and mastoid air cells o Results from Otitis Media o Causes inflammation of the mastoid process • Swelling behind the ear o Infection may spread superiorly into the middle cranial fossa through the petrosquamous fissure in children • Osteomyelitis
288
How can the eustachian tube become blocked?
o Easily blocked by swelling of mucus membrane • Even from mild infections, e.g. a cold as walls of its cartilaginous part are normally already in apposition o When tube is occluded, residual air in the tympanic cavity is absorbed into mucosal blood vessels • Lower pressure in the tympanic cavity • Retraction of the Tympanic Membrane o Interference with the free movement of the tympanic membrane (its retraction) affects hearing o Adenoidal hypertrophy can block the opening to the tube in the Nasopharynx • Children 3-8 • Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
289
How does the stapedius become paralysed?
o E.g. from lesion of the facial nerve o Loss of protective action against loud noises o Hyperacusis or Hyperacusia
290
What leads to motion sickness?
o Discordance between vestibular and visual stimulation
291
What are the symptoms caused by injury to peripheral auditory system?
``` Injuries of the peripheral auditory system cause three major symptoms: 1. Hearing loss • Usually conductive 2. Vertigo • (Dizziness) • When the injury involves the semicircular ducts 3. Tinnitus • Buzzing or ringing ```
292
What leads to conductive hearing loss?
o Results from anything in the external or middle ear that interferes with the conduction of sound or movement of the oval or round windows. o People with this type of hearing loss often speak with a soft voice • To them, their own voices sound louder than background sounds o May be improved surgically or by use of a hearing device
293
What leads to sensorineural hearing loss?
o Results from defects in the pathway from cochlea to brain • Defects of cochlea • Defects of cochlea nerve • Defects of brainstem o Cochlear implants can restore hearing • External microphone transmitting to an implanted receiver that sends electrical impulses to the cochlea, stimulating the cochlear nerve
294
What is Ménière Syndrome?
o Blockage of the cochlear aqueduct o Recurrent attacks of tinnitus, hearing loss and vertigo o Accompanied by a sense of pressure in the ear, distortion of sounds and sensitivity to noise
295
What is Colesteatoma?
o Blockage of the Eustachian tube leads to negative middle ear pressure o Negative pressure leads to retraction pockets o Dead skin cells accumulate in the pockets o Necrotic mass of dead skin • Colesteatoma o Erosion of middle ear structures and bone via lytic enzymes
296
What is otalgia?
o Ear pain o Infection / inflammation around the ear o Pain from teeth, pharynx or cervical spine commonly referred to the ear
297
What is Pruritus?
o Itching | o May result from primary disorder of the external ear, or middle ear discharge
298
What is Otorrhea?
o Discharge from the ear o Indicates acute or chronic infection o Blood / CSF discharge associated with skull fracture
299
What is the external nose?
The external nose is the visible portion that projects from the face. It has both bony and (predominantly) cartilaginous components and provides the opening into the nasal cavity. The nostrils are bounded laterally by alae and the skin covering the nose extends upwards into the vestibule.
300
What is the skeleton of the external nose?
``` The supporting skeleton of the nose is composed of bone and hyaline cartilage. o Bony part of the nose • Nasal Bones • Maxillae frontal processes • Frontal Bone (nasal part and nasal spine) o Cartilaginous part of the nose • 2 Lateral cartilages • 2 Alar cartilages • 1 Septal cartilage ```
301
What is the anatomy of the nasal septum?
``` o Anterior Portion • Cartilaginous o Middle Portion • Perpendicular plate of the Ethmoid Bone o Posterior Portion • Vomer ``` Inferiorly, the hard palate, made up of the palatine and maxillary bones, separates the nasal and oral cavities.
302
What sort of fractures can be caused at the nose?
Nasal fractures are the most common facial fracture, as the nose is an exposed organ. o History of force to the face o Deformity o Complications include septal haematoma
303
What is found in the nasal cavity?
``` o Nostrils o Chonchae (terbinates) • Lateral wall • Create 5 passages within the cavity o Mucosal lining • Except for vestibule (skin) • Continuous with areas draining into the cavity ```
304
What are concha?
The superior, middle and inferior Nasal Conchae (or terbinates) curve inferiormedially, hanging like short curtains from the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. The conchae are scroll-like structures that offer a vast surface area for heat exchange. The inferior concha is the longest and broadest and is formed by an independent bone (the Inferior Concha). The middle and superior conchae are the medial processes of the Ethmoid Bone. A recess or nasal meatus underlies each of the terbinates, diving the nasal cavity into five passages. The Sphenoethmoidal Recess, lying superoposterior to the superior conca, receives the opening of the sphenoidal sinus.
305
What allows olfaction?
o Spehnoethmoidal Recess o Lining epithlium of mucus membrane is modified for the purpose of olfaction o Axonal processes of the olfactory cell pass through the cribriform plate and penetrate the meninges before entering the olfactory bulb
306
What are the openings to the nose?
o Cribiform plate • Olfactory Nerve (CN I) runs here • Fractures may result in CSF leakage and anosmia o Sphenopalatine foramen o Incisive foramen o Foramen cecum • Nasal veins to superior saggital sinus in some individuals
307
What is the blood supply to the nasal cavity?
o Branches of the Opthalmic Artery • Branch of the Internal Carotid Artery o Branches of the Maxillary and Facial Arteries • Branches of the External Carotid Artery The blood supply to the medial and lateral wall of the nasal cavity is very rich. The anterior part of the nasal septum has an area (Kiesselbach or Little’s area) that is rich in capillaries where all the arteries supplying the septum anastomose. It is this area where profuse bleeding occurs in ‘nose bleeds’.
308
What is epistaxis?
Epistaxis is bleeding from the nose. It is very common and can have a local or systemic cause. Anterior bleeds account for 90% of epistaxis. The Sphenopalatine Artery causes posterior bleeds
309
What is the venous drainage of the nose?
A rich submucosal venous plexus, deep to the nasal mucosa, drains into the: o Cavernous Sinus o Facial Vein o Pterygoid Plexus
310
What is the innervation of the nose?
o Special Sensory (Smell) • Olfactory Nerve (CN I) o General Sensory – Posteroinferior Nasal Mucosa • Maxillary Division of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V2) • Nasopalatine Nerve o General Sensory – Anterosuperior Nasal Mucosa • Opthalmic Division of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V1) • Anterior and Posterior Ethmoidal Nerves o General Sensory – External Nose • External Nasal Nose (CN V1) • Infraorbital Nerve (CN V2)
311
What is the epithelium of the nasal cavity?
``` o Respiratory Region • Pseudostratified columnar ciliated • With goblet cells o Olfactory Region • Olfactory cells with olfactory receptors ```
312
What are paranasal sinuses?
The paranasal sinuses are air-filled extensions of the respiratory part of the nasal cavity into cranial bones (Frontal, Ethmoid, Sphenoid and Maxilla). The sinuses are named according to the bones in which they are located.
313
Explain the frontal sinus?
The Right and Left Frontal Sinuses are between the outer and inner tables of the frontal bone, posterior to the superciliary arches and the root of the nose. They are usually detectable in children by 7 years of age (not present at birth). They each drain through a Frontonasal Duct into the ethmoidal infundibulum, which opens into the semilunar hiatus of the Middle Nasal Recess.
314
Explain the ethmoid sinus
The Ethmoidal cells (Sinuses) are small invaginations of the mucous membrane of the middle and superior nasal recesses into the Ethmoid bone. The Ethmoidal cells usually are not visible in plain radiographs before 2 years of age. The Anterior Ethmoidal Cells drain directly or indirectly into the middle nasal recess through the ethmoidal infundibulum. The Middle Ethmoidal Cells open directly into the middle nasal recess. The Posterior Ethmoidal Cells open directly into the superior nasal recess.
315
Explain the maxillary sinus
The Maxillary Sinuses are the largest of the paranasal sinuses. They occupy the bodies of the Maxillae. They drain by one or more openings, the Maxillary Ostium (ostia), into the middle nasal recess by way of the semilunar hiatus.
316
Explain the sphenoid sinus
The Sphenoidal Sinuses are located in the body of the sphenoid and may extend into the wings of the bone. The body of the sphenoid is fragile, and only thin plates of bone separate the sinuses from several important structures (Optic nerves and chiasm, the pituitary gland, internal carotid arteries). They are small at birth, enlarging after puberty. They drain directly into the Sphenoethmoidal Recess.
317
How can infection of the nasal cavity spread?
o The Anterior Cranial Fossa • Via the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone o The Paranasal Sinuses • Via their openings into the nasal cavity o The Lacrimal Apparatus and Conjuctiva • Via the opening of the Nasolacrimal duct o The Middle Ear • Via the Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian) tube
318
What is Rhinitis?
``` Inflammation of the nasal mucosa, leading to swelling and increased volume of secretion. Causes include: o Infective (Viral) • Adenovirus • Rhinovirus • Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) o Allergic o Nasal Polyps ```
319
What are nasal polyps?
``` o Grow close to the ostiomeatal complex of the Nasopharynx o Linked to chronic rhinosinusitis o Prevalence of ~2-4% o Nasal obstruction • Snoring / Obstructive sleep apnoea ```
320
What are sinusitis?
``` o Inflammation of the mucosal lining of the sinuses o Acute – 7 to 30 days o Sub-acute – 4 to 12 weeks o Chronic – >90 days o Infection • Viral with secondary bacterial infection • Streptococcus Pneumoniae • Haemophillus Influenzae ```
321
What are the problems with Ethmoidal Sinus Air Cell Infection?
o May break through the medial wall of the orbit • Proximity to the optic canal, transmitting the Optic Nerve (CN II) and Opthalmic Artery • Visual disorders
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What are maxillary sinus infections?
o Most commonly infected • Ostia are small and located high on the supero-medial walls o When the mucus membrane of the sinus is congested, the maxillary ostia are often obstructed o Impossible for sinuses to drain when the head is erect until they are full o When lying on your side, the upper sinus drains
323
How can maxillary teeth lead to infection?
o The three maxillary molar teeth are close to the floor of the maxillary sinus o During removal a fracture of the root may occur • Piece of root may be driven superiorly into the maxillary sinus o Communication made between oral cavity and maxillary sinus o Infection may occur Because the superior alveolar nerves (Branches of the Maxillary Nerve (CN V2)) supply both the maxillary teeth and the mucous membrane of the maxillary sinuses, inflammation of the mucosa of the sinus is frequently accompanied by a sensation of toothache in the molar teeth.
324
How can deviation of the nasal septum occur?
The nasal septum is usually deviated to one side or the other. This could be the result of a birth injury, but more often the deviation occurs during adolescence and adulthood from trauma (e.g. fist fight). Sometimes the deviation is so severe that the nasal septum is in contact with the lateral wall of the nasal cavity and often obstructs breathing or exacerbates snoring. This deviation can be corrected surgically.
325
Describe the Trigeminal nerve
``` o Fifth Cranial Nerve o Largest Cranial Nerve o Mixed nerve • Sensation – Principal General Sensory nerve for the head • Motor o Transit for some Autonomic Nerves o Three main branches • Opthalmic (CN V1) • Maxillary (CN V2) • Mandibular (CN V3) ```
326
Describe the course of trigeminal nerve
The Trigeminal Nerve arises from the Lateral Aspect of the Pons by a large sensory root and small motor root. The crescent shaped Trigeminal Ganglion sits within a Dural recess, the Trigeminal Cave, which sits laterally to the cavernous sinus.
327
Describe the opthalmic nerve
``` o Exits skull through the Superior Orbital Fissure o Sensory Only • Cornea • Upper conjuctiva • Nasal Cavity (Anterosuperior) • Frontal Sinus • Ethmoid Sinus • External Nose • Upper Eyelids • Forehead and scalp o Tested via the Corneal Reflex o Three branches • Frontal • Nasocillary • Lacrimal • Lacrimal Gland • Conjuctiva • Post Ganglionic Parasympathetic Fibres to Lacrimal Gland ```
328
Describe the maxillary nerve
``` o Exits the skull through the Foramen Rotundum o Sensory Only • Conjunctiva • Nasal Cavity (Posteroinferior) • Lateral External Nose • Maxillary Sinus • Superior palate • Inferior eye lid • Upper lip o 14 Terminal Branches o Associated with a parasympathetic ganglion • Pterygopalatine • Innervation of lacrimal, nasal and palate glands ```
329
Describe the mandibular nerve
``` o Exits the skull through the Foramen Ovale o Sensory o Mucous membranes o Lower Lip o Chin o External Ear (Front of auricle) o Anterior two thirds of tongue (General Sensation, not taste!) o Motor • Masseter • Temporalis • Medial and Lateral Pterygoids • Mylohyoid • Digastric • Tensor Tympani • Tensor Vele Palatini o Associated with two parasympathetic ganglia • Submandibular Ganglion • Submandibular Salivary Gland • Sublingual Salivary Gland • Otic Ganglion • Parotid Salivary Gland ```
330
Describe the facial nerve
``` o Exits the skull through the Stylomastoid Foramen o Mixed Nerve o Motor • Muscles of facial expression • Digastric (posterior belly) • Stylohyoid • Stapedius o Sensory • General Sensory • Small area of skin close to external acoustic meatus • Special Sensory (Taste) • Corda Tympani from the Lingual Nerve • Taste Anterior 2/3rds of the tongue o Parasympathetic • Pterygopalatine Parasympathetic Ganglion • Lacrimal Gland • Submandibular Gland • Sublingual Gland ```
331
Course of facial nerve
1. Motor Cortex 2. Pons • Facial Motor Nucleus 3. Internal Acoustic Meatus • Within Petrous Temporal Bone 4. Facial Canal • Within Temporal Bone • Gives rise to: • Greater Petrosal Nerve • Nerve to the Stapedius • Chorda Tympani Nerve 5. Stylomastoid Foramen • Exits Temporal Bone • Gives rise to Posterior Auricular Branch 6. Branches to face and neck • 5 Branches • Through Parotid Gland
332
What are the branches of the facial nerve?
``` o Temporal • Occipitofrontalis • Orbicularis Oculi (Superior) o Zygomatic • Orbicularis Oculi (Inferior) o Buccal • Orbicularis Oris • Buccinator • Zygomaticus o Marginal Mandicular • Mentalis o Cervical • Platysma ```
333
Describe facial nerve palsy
``` Non-Traumatic Causes o Inflammation o Infection • Viral (Herpes) • Parotitis (S. Aureus) o Compression • Parotid Tumour ``` ``` Traumatic Causes o Fractures • Temporal Bone o Stabbing o Gunshots o Childbirth ``` ``` Iatrogenic o Surgery (Parotidectomy) ```
334
What happens during Bell's palsy?
All muscles of facial expression paralysed
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What happens during stroke?
* Frontal Sparing * Occipitofrontalis and Orbicularis Oculi not paralysed * Due to their Bilateral Innervation
336
What is the pharynx?
The Pharynx is the superior, expanded part of the Alimentary System, posterior to the nasal and oral cavities and extending inferiorly past the larynx. The Pharynx extends from the Cranial Base to the Inferior Border of the Cricoid Cartilage Anteriorly and the Inferior Border of C6 Vertebra Posteriorly. It is widest (Approximately 5cm) opposite the hyoid and narrowest (approximately 1.5cm) at its inferior end, where it is continuous with the oesophagus.
337
What are the 3 parts of pharynx
The Pharynx is divided into Three Parts: o Nasopharynx • Posterior to the nose and superior to the soft palate • Respiratory Function as it is the posterior extension of the nasal cavities • Pseudostratified Ciliated Epithelium with Goblet Cells • Lymphoid tissue forms a Tonsillar ring around the superior part of the pharynx, which aggregates to form the Adenoids. The adenoids may become swollen during infection in children, blocking the Eustachian tube and leading to otitis media. o Oropharynx • Posterior to the mouth • Extends from the soft plate to the superior border of the epiglottis • Digestive Function • Stratified Squamous Epithelium non-Keratinised o Laryngopharynx • Posterior to the Larynx • Ends from the superior border of the epiglottis to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage, where it becomes continuous with the oesophagus. • Stratified Squamous Epithelium non-keratinised
338
What are the pharyngeal muscles?
The wall of the Pharynx consists of an incomplete outer circular muscle layer and an inner longitudinal muscle layer. The muscle layer is covered internally by the Pharyngobasilar Fascia, which is in turn covered by the Mucous Membrane.
339
What are the outer circular pharyngeal muscles?
o Superior Constrictor o Middle Constrictor o Inferior Constrictor • Lower horizontal fibres known as Cricopharyngeus The outer muscle layer attaches posteriorly at the midline raphe. The muscles overlap each other and are incomplete anteriorly. During swallowing the muscle constrict to propel the bolus of food downwards (involuntarily during the swallowing reflex).
340
What are the inner longitudinal pharyngeal muscles?
o Stylopharyngeus o Palatopharyngeus o Salpingopharyngeus During swallowing these muscles act to shorten and widen the pharynx.
341
What is the innervation of the pharynx?
Innervation of the Pharynx is by the Pharyngeal Plexus of nerves. This is formed by branches of the Vagus (CN X) and Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) nerves along with sympathetic fibres from the Superior Cervical Ganglion. Sensory Innervation o Glossopharyngeal Nerve o Nasopharynx is via the Opthalmic and Maxillary divisions of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V1+2) Motor Innervation o Vagus Nerve (CN X) o Exception to this is the Stylopharyngeus Muscle • Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)
342
What are the 3 phases of swallowing?
1. Voluntary Phase o Tongue moves the bolus back onto the pharynx 2. Pharyngeal Phase o Afferent information from pressure receptors in the palate and anterior pharynx reaches the swallowing centre in the brain stem. o A set of movements is triggered • Inhibition of breathing • Raising of the larynx – Suprahyoid and Longitudinal Muscles • Closure of the glottis • Opening of the upper oesophageal ‘sphincter’ 3. Oesophageal Phase o The muscle in the upper third of the oesophagus is voluntary striated muscle under somatic control o The muscle of the lower two thirds is smooth muscle under control of the parasympathetic nervous system. o A wave of peristalsis sweeps down the oesophagus, propelling the bolus to the stomach in ~9 seconds. o Coordinated by extrinsic nerves from the swallowing centre of the brain o Lower oesophageal ‘sphincter’ opens
343
What is the blood supply of the pharynx?
``` The blood supply of the Pharynx is via branches of the External Carotid Artery o Ascending Pharyngeal Artery o Lingual Artery o Facial Artery o Maxillary Artery ```
344
What is the venous drainage of the pharynx?
Venous drainage of the Pharynx is via the Pharyngeal Venous Plexus → Internal Jugular Vein.
345
What is the gag reflex?
``` The gag reflex tests pharyngeal innervation and musculature. It is conducted by touching the back of the oropharynx, which result in a reflex contraction of the pharyngeal muscles (makes the person gag). o Afferent Pathway • Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX) o Efferent Pathway • Vagus Nerve (CN X) ```
346
What are adenoids?
o Sub-epithelial collection of lymphoid tissue o Junction of roof and poster wall of Nasopharynx o Maximal size between 3 – 8 years then regress o Enlarge with viral / bacterial infections o Recurrent infections may lead to chronically enlarge adenoids
347
What are clinical features of adenoids?
o Nasal obstruction o Mouth breathing, nasal speech o Feeding difficulty (especially infants) o Snoring / Obstructive Sleep Apnoea o Block the opening of the Eustachian Tube
348
Describe palatine tonsils
o Lie in the Tonsillar fossa between two arches • Anterior – Palatoglossal Arch • Boundary between mouth and oropharynx • Posterior – Palatopharyngeal Arch • Contains the Palatopharyngeus Muscle that blends with walls of the pharynx o Lymphoid tissue covered by squamous epithelium o Enlarge with bacterial or viral infection o Lymphatic drainage is the Jugulo-Digastric (Tonsillar) node • Angle of the mandible
349
What is tonsillectomy?
* Potential for bleeding as the palatine tonsils are very vascular * Bleeding often from the large External Palatine Vein * Internal Carotid Artery and Glossopharyngeal Nerve lie just lateral to Tonsillar fossa
350
What is Quinsy?
* Peritonsillar Abscess * Infection spread to peritonsillar tissue and abscess formation * Uvula pushed to the other side * Requires abscess drainage
351
What are common sites for food to get stuck?
``` Oropharynx o Vallecula • Mucosal Pouch between the base of the tongue and epiglottis o Base of tongue o Region of palatine tonsil Laryngopharynx o Piriform Fossa • Mucosal Recess between the central part of the larynx and lateral lamina of the thyroid cartilage o Cricopharyngeus ```
352
What is the larynx?
The Larynx connects the inferior Oropharynx to the Trachea. It also contains the voice box. The Larynx extends from the Laryngeal Inlet, through which it communicates with the Laryngopharynx to the level of the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage. Here the laryngeal cavity is continuous with the Trachea
353
What is the function of the larynx?
The Larynx’s most vital function is to guard the air passages, especially during swallowing when it serves as the sphincter/valve of the lower respiratory tract, thus maintaining the airway.
354
What is the laryngeal skeleton made up of?
``` Made up of the Hyoid Bone and 9 Cartilages: o 3 Unpaired Cartilages • Epiglottis • Thyroid Cartilage • Cricoid Cartilage o 1 important set of Paired Cartilages • Arytenoid Cartilage(s) o 2 other sets of Paired Cartilages • Corniculate Cartilage(s) • Cuneiform Cartilage(s) ```
355
What is the epiglottis?
o Leaf shaped fibro cartilage | o Attached by ligaments to the back of the hyoid bone and thyroid cartilage
356
What is the thyroid cartilage?
``` o Laryngeal Prominence (‘Adam’s Apple’) o Upper surface used to Mark C4 Level • Bifurcation of common carotid artery • Level of carotid body o 2 lamina o 2 horns • Superior Thyroid Horns → Ligament → Hyoid Bone • Inferior Thyroid Horn → Synovial Joint with Cricoid ```
357
What is the cricoid cartilage?
``` o Signet Ring Shaped o 2 Articular facets on each side • Inferior horn of thyroid cartilage • Arytenoid Cartilage o Surface marking for C6 Level ```
358
What is the arytenoid cartilage?
``` o Pyramid shaped o Crucial in vocal cord movement o Concave base articulating with cricoid o Anterior – Vocal process o Lateral – Muscular process ```
359
What are cricovocal ligaments?
o A.k.a. Conus Elasticus / Lateral Cricothyroid ligament o Consists mainly of elastic fibres o Lower border attached to cricoid cartilage o Upper, Free Border = Vocal Ligament • Attached to the deep surface of the angle of the thyroid cartilage • Vocal process of arytenoid cartilage
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What are the divisions of the internal larynx?
``` internal cavity of the larynx is divided into three spaces: o Supraglottic space • Laryngeal Inlet → Vestibular folds (false vocal cords) o Glottis • Vocal Cords and Rima Glottis (space between vocal cords) o Subglottic Space • Below vocal cords → Lower border of Cricoid Cartilage ```
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What are the laryngeal muscles?
``` Extrinsic Muscles, which move the entire larynx o Infrahyoid muscles • Depress larynx o Suprahyoid muscles • Elevate larynx ``` ``` Intrinsic Muscles, which act on the: o Vocal folds • Open and close glottis o Aryepiglottic folds • Help to close the laryngeal inlet ```
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What innervates the laryngeal muscles?
The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve supplies the intrinsic muscles. The exception is the Cricothyroid Muscle, which is supplied by the External Laryngeal Nerve.
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What are the layers of the vocal cords?
o Stratified Squamous Epithelium o Vocal Ligament o Vocalis Muscle The mucosa is firmly adherent to the vocal ligament, with no submucosa. This lack of a submucosa means that: o Vocal cords look pearly white on laryngoscopy o No oedema during infections o Delayed spread of carcinoma of vocal cords
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What are the movements of the vocal cords?
Intrinsic Muscles of the Larynx move the vocal cords o Abduction – Posterior Cricoarytenoid • ONLY muscle which opens the true vocal cords o Adduction – Lateral Cricoarytenoid o Cricothyroid • Only intrinsic muscle on the outside • Increases vocal cord tension • Only intrinsic muscle not supplied by Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve • Supplied by External Laryngeal Nerve
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What is the innervation of the larynx?
The Larynx is innervated by Branches of the Vagus Nerve (CN X). Superior Laryngeal Nerve o Internal Laryngeal Nerve – Sensory to Larynx above true vocal cord o External Laryngeal Nerve – Motor to Cricothyroid Muscle Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve o Sensory below the true vocal cord o Motor to all intrinsic laryngeal muscles (except Cricothyroid)
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What is the course of the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
``` The recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the Vagus Nerve (CN X). o Right Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve • Descends to T2 • Curves around the Subclavian Artery o Left Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve • Descends to T4 • Curves around the Arch of the Aorta ``` The nerves then course back up the neck to the larynx, lying between the trachea and oesophagus.
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What are the causes of hoarseness of the voice?
Pathology in the neck and chest can cause Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve palsy, leading to intrinsic laryngeal muscle weakness. This presents as hoarseness of voice. Hoarseness for longer than three weeks is a red flag symptom and needs evaluation to exclude malignancy. Some causes of Hoarseness of Voice: o Infection • Laryngitis – Viral, Streptococcal o Overuse of the voice o GORD – Gastro Oesophageal Reflux o Benign nodules on vocal cords (Singers) o Apical Lung Tumour • Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Palsy (Both sides) o Bronchial Carcinoma • Left Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Palsy (right doesn’t go low enough)
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What is the blood supply to the larynx?
The Larynx is supplied by the Superior and Inferior Laryngeal Arteries, which are branches of the Superior and Inferior Thyroid Arteries respectively. External Carotid Artery → Superior Thyroid Artery → Superior Laryngeal Artery Subclavian Artery → Inferior Thyroid Artery → Inferior Laryngeal Artery
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What is the venous drainage to the larynx?
The larynx is drained by the Superior and Inferior Laryngeal Veins, which accompany the corresponding arteries. The Superior Laryngeal Vein joins the Superior Thyroid Vein before draining into the Internal Jugular Vein. The Inferior Laryngeal Vein joins the Inferior Thyroid Vein, which empties into the Left Brachiocephalic Vein.
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What are the causes of laryngeal obstruction?
Upper airway / laryngeal obstruction may be caused by: o Laryngeal Oedema • Infection – Acute epiglottitis, croup, anaphylaxis o Inhalation of foreign body o Tumours In an emergency situation an aiway is opening through the Cricothyroid Membrane (Cricothyroidotomy). If less urgent, a Tracheostomy is performed (opening into the trachea).