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Health And Wellness > Health And Wellness Midterm > Flashcards

Health And Wellness Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are activities of daily living?

A

Self-care activities are people perform daily to remain independent, and to function in society

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2
Q

How can support workers assist nurses or other healthcare team members?

A

Report changes in the clients behaviour or health

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3
Q

Resident is a term used to describe a person Who is receiving care at

A

A long-term care facility

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4
Q

The main focus of the healthcare team is to

A

Provide quality care for the client

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5
Q

Support workers are

A

Unregulated care providers

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6
Q

Scope of practice means

A

The limits of your role to prevent client harm

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7
Q

What is professionalism?

A

An approach to work that demonstrates respect for others, commitment, competence, and appropriate behaviour

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8
Q

True or false: you must follow your employers dress code policies

A

True

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9
Q

In a long-term care facility the clients information should be shared among

A

Healthcare team members involved in the clients care

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10
Q

What does critical thinking mean?

A

The ability to think clearly, and logically using reflection and reason

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11
Q

What does the acronym DIPPS stand for?

A

dignity, independence (individualizations) preferences, privacy, safety

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12
Q

Should you always involve the client in their care?

A

Yes

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13
Q

What is client centred care, compassionate care, and caring?

A

Having concern about client client and family DIPPS

Clients care is individualized for them

Treating clients with kindness, respect, honesty, sensitivity, comfort, discretion, understanding

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14
Q

True or false ethics apply only to life and death situation’s

A

False

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15
Q

True or false the codes of ethics, provide rules and answers to ethical dilemmas

A

Falls

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16
Q

True or false ethics are a guide when deciding between right and wrong, good and bad

A

 True

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17
Q

True or false keeping a residence information confidential is ethical behaviour

A

True

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18
Q

True or false any decision regarding a clients care is ethical if it does not harm the person

A

 False

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19
Q

What is providing a safe environment An example of

A

Non-maleficence

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20
Q

Showing respect and protecting a clients dignity is an example of

A

Beneficience

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21
Q

Treating all clients with equal care and attention regardless of their condition or temperament is an example of

A

Justice

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22
Q

Respecting personal preferences is an example of

A

Autonomy

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23
Q

When deciding what is the least helpful on an ethical solution to a problem what is the least helpful thing to ask

A

Does the solution benefit you?

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24
Q

Mr. well, a client in a long-term care facility refuses to be lifted into his chair for meals because it makes him uncomfortable as a result. He is developing pressure sores on his buttocks. You know it’s important to change positions frequently any a supervisor has advised that he before side of bed, what should you do?

A

Discuss your concerns with the other team members, Mr. Wheeler and his family to see if a compromise can be reached

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25
Q

What is the code of ethics for support workers?

A
  1. provide high-quality personal care and work within the scope of practice
  2. to be aware of the policies and procedures
  3. provide compassionate care to all clients.
  4. Support workers value the dignity, and worth of all clients.
  5. Support workers respect their clients choices about how they receive or participate in their care.
  6. Support workers respect their clients right to privacy and confidentiality.
  7. Support workers do not miss use their position of trust.
  8. Support workers are reliable.
  9. Support workers promote and maintain their client safety.
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26
Q

What are the four basic principle of healthcare ethics?

A

Autonomy justice beneficience, nonmaleficience

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27
Q

What does autonomy mean?

A

Respecting the clients right to make choices for themselves

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28
Q

What does justice mean?

A

Being fair

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29
Q

What does beneficience mean?

A

Doing good

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30
Q

What does nonmaleficience mean

A

Doing no harm

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31
Q

What are morals?

A

The fundamental principles of behavior, each person believes to be right or wrong for themselves without concern for legalities or customs

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32
Q

What are values?

A

Qualities that an individual considers to be worthwhile or desirable in a person

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33
Q

What is a belief

A

A conviction that something is true

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34
Q

What does the support worker need to be aware of when working with clients?

A

Culture and personal circumstances may influence, ethical, beliefs, morals, and values, which all influence one’s actions

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35
Q

What are the questions to ask yourself when resolving a dilemma?

A
  1. Does the option respect the clients wishes and preferences?
  2. Does the option trade the client justly and fairly
  3. Does the option provides a client with the short term benefit or a long-term benefit?
  4. Because the option cause harm or increase of clients risk of harm.
  5. What are all the possible consequences to the client family or others with this option?
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36
Q

What does conduct mean

A

Personal behaviour

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37
Q

Define compassion

A

Awareness of the misfortune and suffering of another person, and a desire to take action to reduce or eliminate their distress

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38
Q

What does competence

A

The ability to do a good job

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39
Q

What does interdependence mean

A

Relying on one another

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40
Q

What is professional boundaries?

A

Appropriate limitations on behaviour meant to protect a vulnerable client from the caregiver who has access to private knowledge about them

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41
Q

What is respect

A

Is showing acceptance and regard for another person

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42
Q

What is empathy?

A

Empathy is the ability to recognize and understand another’s emotions

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43
Q

What is the support workers role in assisting the family?

A
  • supporting their relationships
  • Providing basic care and support services
  • assisting the primary caregiver
  • adapt your work to fit the family needs 
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44
Q

When working with families, what do you need to be aware of?

A
  • Family relationships
  • Conflict within the family
  • Stressful situations
  • Communication difficulties
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45
Q

What is a Family?

A

Her biological legal or social network of people who provide support for each other families can take many forms

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46
Q

True or false every client is a unique individual

A

True

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47
Q

A professional, supportive relationship is established for the benefit of the

A

Client

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48
Q

What is common courtesy a sign of

A

Respect

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49
Q

What is independence

A

Not depending on others for control or authority

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50
Q

When supporting clients from families in conflict, your supervisor expects you to

A

Observe, and report on family interactions

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51
Q

True or false conflict and families may be hidden

A

True

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52
Q

True or false part of your role is to help families deal with their interpersonal problems

A

False

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53
Q

True or false you should always take your client side and a disagreement

A

False

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54
Q

What is marginalization?

A

The active excluding people who are not part of the majority culture

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55
Q

How to comfort the family

A
  • let your supervisor know if the family wants a spiritual advisor or Chaplin
  • Be respectful, empathetic and supportive
  • Listen
  • Use touch if appropriate
  • Helping out around the house
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56
Q

What are the three main goals of hospice or palliative care?

A
  1. To assist in controlling the pain and symptoms of illness.
  2. To ensure that death is a natural process.
  3. To provide compassionate care.
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57
Q

What are the general responsibilities of the support worker for palliative or hospice clients in the home

A
  • Assist the dying client with a Personal Care and household tasks
  • Monitor clients situation and report significant observations
  • Provide emotional support to dying client and caregivers
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58
Q

What do people who can’t chew or swallow often require?

A

Enteral nutrition

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59
Q

What is enteral nutrition

A

Formula delivered into the gastrointestinal tract through a feeding tube

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60
Q

What is a nasogastric tube? (NG)

A

Inserted through the nose into the stomach

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61
Q

What is a nasalintestinal tube?

A

A tube inserted through the nose into the small intestine

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62
Q

What is a gastrostomy tube?

A

Inserted into the stomach a surgically created opening in the stomach

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63
Q

Where is the jejunostomy tube inserted

A

Into the intestines, a surgically created, opening in the middle part of the small intestine

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64
Q

What does the acronym soap stand for?

A

Subjective
Objective
Analysis
Plan

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65
Q

What does the acronym adpie stand

A

Analysis
Diagnosis
Problem
Intervention
Evaluation

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66
Q

What is focus Charting?

A

Data analysis and action response

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67
Q

What needs to be done when transporting documents

A

Concentrate on what you’re doing. Remind yourself of the importance of the task. Be very careful. 

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68
Q

What does nutrition refer to?

A

The process involved in the indigestion digestion, absorption, and use of foods influenced by the body

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69
Q

What is ingestion?

A

The process of taking food and fluids into the body

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70
Q

What is digestion?

A

The process of physically and chemically breaking down nutrients so that they can be absorbed

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71
Q

What is absorption

A

The process by which substances pass through the intestinal wall into the blood

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72
Q

What is good nutrition needed for

A

Growth healing and maintenance of body function

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73
Q

What are nutrients grouped into?

A

Proteins, carbohydrates fats, vitamins, minerals, and water

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74
Q

What do proteins fats and carbohydrates give the body

A

Fuel for energy

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75
Q

What is a calorie?

A

Is a unit of measure of the energy produced as a body burns food

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76
Q

How many calories is 1 g of carbohydrates

A

4

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77
Q

How many calories is 1 g of protein

A

4

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78
Q

How many calories is 1 g of fat

A

9

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79
Q

What is protein needed for?

A

Tissue growth and repair

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80
Q

Examples of proteins

A

Fish, poultry and eggs, milk, milk, products, beans, and nuts

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81
Q

What do carbohydrates do for the body?

A

Provide energy and fibre for bowel elimination and maintenance of bowel regularity

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82
Q

What are the three main kinds of carbohydrates and where are they found?

A
  1. Simple sugars - found in table sugar, fruit, and fruit juice
  2. Starches. - found in bread, pasta rice, potatoes.
  3. Fibre - found in bran nuts, seeds, raw fruits with skins.
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83
Q

What do fats do for the body?

A

Provide energy, help the body use certain vitamins, add flavour to food

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84
Q

What are the three main types of dietary fibre and where are they found?

A
  1. Saturated fat - found an animal and dairy products
  2. trans fat - found in margarine shortening, store-bought cookies, cakes, pies, donuts, fried foods
  3. Unsaturated fat - found in fish and vegetables (best kind of fat)
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85
Q

What are vitamins needed for?

A

Normal function in Growth

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86
Q

What are minerals?

A

Chemical substances found in both plant and animal foods. Each mineral is needed for a specific body function.

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87
Q

What is the most important nutrient and what does it do?

A

Water because the body needs water for maintaining cell function, regulating body temperature, delivering nutrients removing waste and performing other body processes

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88
Q

What is the function of vitamin a

A

Growth, vision, healthy hair, skin, mucous membrane, and resistance to infection

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89
Q

What is the function of vitamin B one

A

Muscle tone, nerve function, digestion, appetite, normal elimination, carbohydrate, metabolism

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90
Q

What is the major function of vitamin B two

A

Growth, vision, protein, and carbohydrate, metabolism, healthy skin, and mucous membranes

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91
Q

What is the function of vitamin B three

A

Protein, fat and carbohydrate, metabolism, nervous system function, appetite and digestive system function

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92
Q

What is the function of vitamin B 12?

A

Formation of red blood cells, protein metabolism, nervous system function

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93
Q

What is the function of folic acid?

A

Formation of red blood cells, intestinal function, protein metabolism

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94
Q

What is the function of vitamin C?

A

Formation of substances, a whole tissue together, healthy, blood vessels, skin gums, bones and teeth, wound healing, prevent bleeding resist infection

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95
Q

What is the function of vitamin D?

A

Absorption and metabolism of calcium and phosphorus, healthy bones

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96
Q

What is the function of vitamin E?

A

Normal reproduction formation of red blood cells in muscle function

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97
Q

What is the function of vitamin K?

A

Blood clotting

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98
Q

What is the recommended days make up of food consumption?

A
  • Half the plate of vegetables and fruit
  • half the play is equally divided up between protein and whole-grain foods
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99
Q

What is the function of calcium?

A

Formation of teeth and bones, blood clotting, muscle contraction, heart function, nerve function

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100
Q

What is the function of phosphorous?

A

Formation of bones and teeth, use of proteins fats and carbohydrates, nerve and muscle function

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101
Q

What is a major function of iron?

A

Enabling of red blood cells carry oxygen

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102
Q

Function of iodine

A

Thyroid gland function, growth, and metabolism 

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103
Q

Function of sodium

A

Fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle function

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104
Q

Function of potassium

A

Nerve function, muscle contraction, heart function

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105
Q

Function of zinc

A

Growth process, healing, immune system

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106
Q

What does a Canada dietary guidelines? Focus on other than nutritional intake?

A
  • being mindful of eating
  • Cooking more often
  • Enjoy your food
  • Eating meals with others
  • Being aware of food marketing
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107
Q

What is healthy eating needed for

A
  • To ensure daily diet of the essential nutrients
  • To promote health, and, overall sense of physical and mental well-being
  • To reduce the risk for health issues related to nutritional deficiencies
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108
Q

What are the nutritional challenges?

A
  1. Limited income.
  2. Geographic isolation.
  3. Inclement weather.
  4. Lack of availability of local foods.
  5. lack of education on Nutrition
  6. Mental illness or addictions.
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109
Q

What are the nutritional requirements during infancy and childhood?

A
  • Breastmilk or formula
  • 4 to 6 months: iron fortified cereals are introduced in puréed foods
  • 10 months to 1 year: finger foods
110
Q

What are the nutritional requirements for adolescence?

A
  • During puberty increase nutrients are needed for this rapid growth
111
Q

Nutritional requirements for young and middle adulthood

A
  • Depend on age, gender, body size in activity levels
  • Adults have lower energy needs and adolescence and continue to decline into the 40s and 50s
  • If calorie intake, exceeds energy needs adults gain weight
112
Q

Nutritional requirements during pregnancy

A
  • need an additional 500 cal per day
  • Do not smoke drink or do drugs
  • Insure getting adequate nutrition and protein
  • Increase folic acid, iron and calcium intake
113
Q

What are the factors that affect eating and Nutrition?

A
  1. Personal choice
  2. Allergies
  3. Food intolerance.
  4. Culture.
  5. Religion
  6. Finances.
  7. Appetite.
  8. Illness.
  9. Aging.
114
Q

What do you need to consider when preparing meals for clients?

A
  • dietary requirements
  • Food preferences
  • Eating and swallowing challenges
  • Eating habits
115
Q

What is the low salt diet or no added salt diet

A
  • 2000 to 3000 mg sodium diet
  • Sodium restriction is mild, but all high sodium foods are omitted
116
Q

Sodium control diet: for the moderate sodium restriction

A

1000 mg sodium diet
- Food cooked without salt
- Foods, high in salt or omitted
- Salt free products are used

117
Q

What is the 500 mg sodium diet?

A
  • severe sodium restriction
  • Restriction for the mild and moderate sodium diets are followed
  • vegetables high in sodium are emitted
  • Other restrictions in place such as one cup of milk per day, one egg per day or 4 ounces per day of meat
118
Q

What is diabetic meal planning?

A
  • done for clients with diabetes
  • The same amount of carbs, protein and fat are eating at the same time of day
119
Q

What is a clear liquid diet?

A
  • Foods that are liquid a body temperature and that leaves small amounts of residue
120
Q

What is a full liquid diet?

A

Foods that are liquid at room, temperature, or that multi body temperature

121
Q

What is a mechanical soft diet?

A

Semi solid foods that are easily digested

122
Q

What is a fibre and residue restricted diet

A

Food that leaves a small amount of residue in the colon

123
Q

What is a high fibre diet?

A

Food that increases the amount of residue in fiber, in the colon to stimulate peristalsis

124
Q

What is a bland diet?

A
  • Foods that are mechanically and chemically non-irritating and low in roughage
  • food served on moderate temperature
  • no strong, spices or condimentr
125
Q

What is a high calorie diet

A
  • calorie intake is increased to 3000 to 4000
  • Includes three full meals in between meal snacks
126
Q

What is a calorie control diet?

A

Provide adequate nutrients well control in calories to promote weight loss, and reduce body fat

127
Q

What is a high iron diet?

A

Eating foods high in iron

128
Q

What is a fat controlled/low cholesterol diet

A

Foods low in fat and foods prepared without adding fat

129
Q

What is a high-protein diet?

A

Aids and promotes tissue healing

130
Q

What is a cardiac diet?

A

Foods, healthy for the heart, such as fruits and vegetables (7-10 servings daily), grain daily fish, at least two times a week. Low sodium limits, saturated fats, and cholesterol.

131
Q

What causes eating challenges?

A

Aging, illness, disabilities, chewing and swallowing difficulties, weakness, vision impairment

132
Q

What types of food are serve to clients with chewing difficulties?

A
  • soft bull/mechanical diet
  • Foods are puréed with the food blender
133
Q

What to do to help clients over come chewing issues

A
  • Offer plenty of fluids
  • Offer small mouthfuls
  • Give the client time to chew
134
Q

What is dysphasia?

A

Difficulty swallowing

135
Q

What are the warning signs of swallowing difficulty?

A
  • frequent clearing of the throat
  • Gurgling voice
  • Delayed or reluctant to swallow
  • Hiding food in cheeks
  • Requiring multiple swallows for one bite
  • Trouble controlling food and saliva in the mouth
  • Wet, cough, while eating or episodes of choking
136
Q

What are the three common consistencies of thickened liquids?

A
  1. Nectar thickened or easily pourable.
  2. Honey thickened or slightly thicker
  3. Pudding thickened
137
Q

What consistency is nectar thickened?

A
  • similar to thicker cream soup or milkshake
138
Q

What consistency is honey thickened?

A

Similar to honey; pours slowly

139
Q

What consistency is pudding thickened?

A

Holds shape when scooped, eating with a spoon, similar to pudding

140
Q

What is aspiration?

A

The inhalation of fluid, or an object into the lungs

141
Q

What is social dining?

A

Clients eat in the dining room with 4 to 6 other people
- Restaurant style

142
Q

What is family dining?

A
  • food places in bowls and on platters
  • client SERVe themselves
143
Q

What is assistive dining?

A
  • Horseshoe shaped tables
  • For clients with difficulty eating They are seated around the tables.
  • The support worker sits at the centre of the table and can feed up to four clients
144
Q

What is 30 mL equal to

A

1 ounce

145
Q

Nutrition is

A

The many processes involved in the ingestion digestion absorption and use of foods influenced by the body

146
Q

Protein is needed for

A

Tissue growth and repair

147
Q

Canadas dietary guidelines encourage

A

Low fat diet

148
Q

How many daily servings of grain products is a food guide recommend for women over 50 years of age?

A

6

149
Q

Which food groups contain the most fat

A

Milk, products and proteins

150
Q

The daily value is an amount that indicates

A

A percentage of the recommended daily amount of nutrient in a serving of food

151
Q

Older persons should eat:

A

Should eat foods high in protein and calcium

152
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable food safety practice?

A

Washing your hands immediately after handling raw chicken

153
Q

People with diabetes must

A

Eat the same amount of carbs, protein, and fat each day

154
Q

Which of the following is suggested for clients are weak and fatigued

A

Foods that are high in calories

155
Q

Adult fluid requirements for normal fluid balance are about

A

2000 to 2500 mL daily

156
Q

If a person is NPO, you should

A

Remove the water, pitcher and glass

157
Q

What is the support workers role for meal planning and preparation?

A

Depends on the care plan and the clients needs

158
Q

If you’re shopping for client groceries, what should you do?

A
  • use the shopping list
  • Read food labels carefully
159
Q

When shopping for client groceries. Check expiration dates and…

A

Sell by date: last recommended date of sale

Best before date: last date the manufacturer gaursntees freshness

Expiration dates: last day it can be safely consumed

160
Q

When preparing meals, what do you need to use?

A
  • A recipe
161
Q

If the client doesn’t have an ingredient that is on the recipe, what should you do?

A
  • Substitute it for another ingredient but get the clients permission and check the care plan
162
Q

How many millilitres is one cup

A

250

163
Q

How many millilitres is 1 pint

A

473 ml

164
Q

What does 1 quart equal to

A

1 litre

165
Q

How many millilitres is in 1 teaspoon?

A

5

166
Q

How many millilitres is in 1 tablespoon

A

15

167
Q

How many grams is in 1 ounce

A

28

168
Q

How many grams is in 1 pound

A

454

169
Q

What is a foodborne illness?

A

An illness caused by improperly cooked or stored food

170
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of foodborne illness?

A

Vomiting, nausea, diarrhoea

171
Q

What are pathogens

A

Disease causing microbes

172
Q

Who is at risk for severe symptoms of foodborne illness

A

Infants, children, older people, people with chronic illness, people with weakened immune system

173
Q

What is contaminated food?

A

When pathogens are present in or on food

174
Q

What is cross contamination?

A

When raw food is spread to other ready to eat foods

175
Q

What temperatures do pathogens usually die at?

A

4 degrees C and above 60 degrees C

176
Q

What are the responsibilities of the support worker

A
  1. Personal care.
  2. Support for nurses and other healthcare providers.
  3. Family support.
  4. Social support
  5. Housekeeping or home management
  6. Documenting and reporting any basic assessments, observations, and care provided in the clients record chart.
177
Q

What does the term body mechanics refer to?

A

The movement of the body

178
Q

What does proper body mechanics include?

A

Moving in an efficient and careful way, and have a good posture and balance, as well as using the strongest and largest muscles for work

179
Q

What do good body mechanics reduce?

A

The risk of injury, fatigue, muscle strain

180
Q

What is body alignment?

A

The way the body parts are position in relation to one another

181
Q

What does good body alignment enable?

A

The body to move in function with strength and efficiency, reduces strain on the muscles and joints, prevents injury

182
Q

What is the line of gravity?

A

The centre

183
Q

When is body balance achieved?

A

When a relatively low centre of gravity is balanced over a wide stable base

184
Q

Traits of good posture

A

The head and neck are erect straight
- Shoulders and hips are parallel to each other
-Shoulders are back
-Chest is out
-Spine maintains natural lumbar curve
-Optimus tucked in and the pelvis tilted in
-Slightly flex knees
-Arms are hanging comfortably at the sides
-feet are shoulder width apart
-Toes are pointed forward 1 foot is slightly forward

185
Q

What are the guidelines for a good body mechanics?

A

-assess the situation before you begin to move the client and get help if you need to
-Face your work area to prevent twisting
-Stand with a wide base of support
-Find out your knees and hips and squat, when lifting are sitting down objects
-Tighten stomach muscles and tuking pelvis as you lift
-Keep back straight
-Use leg and thigh, muscles to lift
-All objects close to your body
-Avoid unnecessary, bending and reaching
-Turn your whole body as one unit when changing the direction of movement
-Push slide or pull heavy objects whenever you can rather than lifting them in

186
Q

What is logrolling?

A

Moving the client as one unit to prevent twisting of the spinal column

187
Q

What is rolling?

A

Turning the client in bed by bending the knee, opposite to the direction of the term or cross in the legs

188
Q

What does turning the client prevent?

A

Complications from bedrest

189
Q

When to move a client to stretcher

A

If they can’t sit up, need to stay lying down, or seriously ill, waiting to return from surgery

190
Q

What is a Client need to do when they’ve been held by sitting on the bed while dangling their legs

A
  • need one to five minutes
    -Cough and deep breathe
    -move legs back-and-forth in a circular motion?
191
Q

What do regular position changes and good body alignment promote

A

Comfort, well-being, easier, breathing, promote circulation, health, prevents complications

192
Q

What is the Fowlers position?

A

Semi sitting to upright sitting position in bed, used to relax, abdominal muscles and improve breathing in clients

193
Q

How to place a client in the low Fowler position

A

Raise the head of the bed to an angle of 15 to 30°

194
Q

How to place a Client in semi fowlers position

A

Raise the head of the bed to an angle of 30 to 45° and reposition the clients shoulders and head on the pillow

195
Q

How to place a Client in the high Fowlers position

A

Raise the head of the bed at 45 to 90° and reposition the clients shoulders and head on the pillow not above 60°. This position is best for clients who use a bedpan or eat and drink in bed.

196
Q

What is a supine position

A

Laying down position used for sleeping and resting

197
Q

What is a lateral position?

A

Sidelying position

198
Q

What is the Sims position?

A

Left side lying position in which the right leg is sharply flexed so that is not resting on the left leg. The left arm is position along the clients back mostly used for . administering enemas and other procedures and resting if Client is comfortable.

199
Q

What is the prone position?

A

The front lying position on the stomach, with the head turned to one side used mainly to prevent contractures or define muscle

200
Q

What is range of motion?

A

Moving a joint to the extent possible without causing pain

201
Q

What a range of motion exercises prevent

A

Joint contractures in muscle atrophy

202
Q

What do range of motion exercises involve?

A

Exercise in the joints through there a complete ROM, usually done twice a day

203
Q

Who does active ROM exercises

A

Client independently

204
Q

Who does passive ROM exercises

A

Involves a staff member moving the joints of the client through the ROM client does not participate

205
Q

Who performs active assistive ROM exercises

A

The client as much as possible with the support worker assisting a client is not able to perform

206
Q

What is abduction?

A

Moving a body part away from

207
Q

What is adduction?

A

Moving a body part toward the midline of the body

208
Q

What is extension?

A

Straightening a body part

209
Q

What is flexion?

A

Bending a body part

210
Q

What is hyper extension?

A

Excessively straining a body part

211
Q

What is dorsiflexion?

A

Bending the toes and foot up at the ankle

212
Q

What is rotation?

A

Turning the joint

213
Q

What is internal rotation?

A

Turning the joint inward

214
Q

What is external rotation?

A

Turn on the joint out word

215
Q

What is plantar flexion?

A

Bending the foot down at the ankle

216
Q

What is pronation?

A

Turning down word

217
Q

What is supination?

A

Turning up word

218
Q

When do ROM exercises occur naturally

A

During ADLs, such as bathing, hair care, eating her, reaching and walking

219
Q

When is a lift used?

A

It’s a device used when the client cannot help by weight bearing or if the client is too unsteady to safely transfer

220
Q

When is a transfer used?

A

Is the method used to move a client who is able to weight bear to any degree.

221
Q

What is a lift designed to do?

A

To mov a client from one place to another without the clients weight bearing or assistance

222
Q

What lift is used in most cases and why

A

A mechanical lift because oh weight, size, restlessness, or back injury to workers.

223
Q

What are the transferring and lifting safety precautions?

A
  • view the care plan
  • independence with no assistance
  • standby or observe and supervise
  • transfer board required
    -one person transfer
    -two person transfer
    -one person lift
    -two or more people to lift
    -ceiling lift
    -mechanical lift
    -standing lift
224
Q

What are Manual lifts

A

Physically picking up a client who cannot bear weight done with the help of a family member

225
Q

When manually lifting what should you do

A
  • take off jewelry
    -shoelaces tied
    -back stretching
226
Q

When using mechanical lifts what should you do

A
  • follow manufacturers instructions
  • receive special training
  • make sure the lift works
  • ensure the clients weight doesn’t exceed the lift
    -ensure there’s 2 people
227
Q

What is the sit stand lift for

A

Allows for client transfers from one seat to another

228
Q

What is the sit stand lift mostly used for

A

Perineal care, toileting, incontinence briefs

229
Q

When using a sit stand loft the client must:

A
  • follow instruction
  • have some muscle tone
  • have some upper body muscle
230
Q

What is the base of support

A

The area which an object rests

231
Q

What are support workers at great risk for?

A

Back injuries

232
Q

What is friction

A

When the clients skin rubs against the sheet

233
Q

What is a skin tear

A

Break or rip in the skin

234
Q

What are the causes of skin tears

A

-Bumping a body part on a hard surface
-holding a client too tightly
-absence of transfer sheet and no friction surface during transfers
-bathing, dressing, other tasks
-pulling buttons or zippers across fragile skin

235
Q

Who is at risk for skin tears

A

-require moderate and complete help in moving
-poor nutrition/thin
-those poorly hydrated
-altered mental awareness
-older

236
Q

What is a pressure injury

A

An injury caused my unrelieved pressure over a bony prominence/pressure points

237
Q

What is the cause of pressure injuries

A

Pressure, friction, shearing; breaks in skin, poor circulation, moisture, dry, flakey, skin, irritation

238
Q

Common pressure injury points

A

Heels, sacrum, elbows, shoulder blades, badk of head, ankle, leg, knees, thigh, hip, shoulder, ear, side of head, cheek, toes, genitalia, ribs, elbows, breasts,

239
Q

Where at the high risk areas for
Pressure ulcers

A
  • skin folds such as breasts, between abdominal folds, legs, buttocks, between toes
240
Q

Whose at risk for pressure injuries

A

-bed/chair ridden
-moderate or complete help in moving
-loss of bowel or bladder control
-poor nutrition
-altered mental awareness
-problems sensing pain or pressure
-circulatory problems
-older
-obese/thin

241
Q

Signs of pressure injuries

A

Pals, greyed skin, or warm, red area , pain, burning, itching, tingling, or nothing so observe

242
Q

How to prevent pressure injuries

A
  • request repositioning, proper nutrition and fluids
243
Q

Stages of pressure ulcer

A
  1. Skin is redder and doesn’t return to natural colour when relieved of pressure
  2. Skin cracks, blisters, peels/shallow crater
  3. Skin is gone, tissue are exposed and damaged
  4. Muscle and bone are exposed and damaged
244
Q

What is a laceration on right leg?

A

Contaminated wound

245
Q

What kind of wound is one from rectal surgery?

A

A clean contaminated wound

246
Q

The piercing of skin and underlying tissue is called

A

Penetrating wound

247
Q

What can cause skin tears?

A

Hurrying when lifting and transferring clients

248
Q

Which of the following can prevent pressure injuries

A

Repositioning the client every 2 hours

249
Q

How to treat and prevent pressure injuries

A

Waterbeds and flotation pads

250
Q

How to help prevent stasis ulcers

A

Avoiding injury to the legs and feet when giving care

251
Q

Where are arterial ulcers usually found

A

Outside of ankle

252
Q

A wound appears red and swollen the area is warm these signs occur during

A

The inflammatory phase of wound healing

253
Q

A wound is healing by primary intention. You noticed the wound is seperstint, what is this called

A

Dehiscence

254
Q

What is clear watery draining from a wound called?

A

Serous drainage

255
Q

What is the purpose of a dressing

A

Protects wound from injury

256
Q

Where is tape applied when securing a wound

A

Top middle bottom of dressing

257
Q

When can falling occur

A

Weakness, light headed, dizzy, slipping, sliding, soillle, waxed floors, throw rugs

258
Q

If a client falls what should you do

A

Ease them to the ground

259
Q

What to check for after client falls

A

Pain, tenderness, swelling, bruising, unable to move limb, bleeding, client report hearing a bone pop or snap

260
Q

How many older people fall each year

A

1 of 3, it’s the 6th leading death in Canada

261
Q

When do most falls occur?

A

When client is going to the bathroom

262
Q

What is the definition of a fall

A

An event that results in a person coming to rest inadvertently on the ground or floor or other lower level

263
Q

Why do older people fall?

A

Fear of falling, decreased activity, loss of strength and mobility

264
Q

What are the consequences of falls

A

Mortality, morbidity, fractures, soft tissue injuries, head trauma, joint distortions and dislocations, loss of confidence max decreased level of functioning

265
Q

Environmental risk factors of falls

A

Lighting, floor surfaces, furniture, no phone, poor fitting cloths

266
Q

Physical risk factors of falls

A

Age, history of falls, illnesses neurological disease; mobility or balance

267
Q

What is a restraint

A

A device, garment, barrier, furniture or medicarion that limits or restricts freedom of movement access to one’s body

268
Q

Info on restraints:

A
  • cause emotion harm/physical injury
    -require DR order
    -do not apply unless part of the care plan
269
Q

What to document after you’ve used a restraint

A
  • type of restraint
  • reason for restraint
  • safety measures taken
  • time of application and removal
  • care given
  • clients physical condition
270
Q

When to use restraints

A

Imminent harm to self or others after you’ve tried deescalaring techniques

Health And Wellness (1 decks)

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