Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Midwifery > Health Assessment & Diagnostic Tests > Flashcards

Health Assessment & Diagnostic Tests Flashcards

1
Q

OLDCARTS mnemonic

A

Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating/Associated factors, Relieving factors, Temporal factors and Severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

BMI Catergories

A 
Underweight- <18.5
Normal weight- 18.5-24.9
Overweight- 25-29.9
Obesity- 30-39.9
Extreme obesity- >40
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ABCDEs of malignant melanoma

A

Asymmetry, Borders irregular, Color blue/black/variegated, Diameter >6mm and Elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Head and Neck Lymph Nodes

A

Preauricular, postauricular, occipital, tonsillar, submandibular, submental, superficial cervical, posterior and deep cervical chains, supraclavicular
All should be <1cm in size, non-tender, mobile and soft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Assessment of extraocular movement (EOM) function

A

symmetrical movement through the six cardinal fields of gaze without lag or nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adventitious lung sounds: crackles

A

caused by air flowing by fluid (pneumonia, bronchitis, early heart failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adventitious lung sounds: rhonchi

A

air passing over solid or thick secretions in large airways (bronchitis, pneumonia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Adventitious lung sounds: wheezes

A

air flowing through constricted passageways (asthma, chronic emphysema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Adventitious lung sounds: pleural friction rub

A

inflammation of pleural tissue (pleuritis, pericarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Extra heart sounds: physiologic murmur

A

mid-systole, 2nd-4th left ICS, grades 1-3, disappears/decreases when sitting, normal finding, common in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Skene’s glands

A

posterior to and on each side of urethral meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bartholin’s glands

A

located posteriorly on each side of vaginal orifice, not usually visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cervix characteristics

A

2.5cm in diameter, protrudes 1-3cm into vagina, may have darker red epithelial tissue around os if squamocolumnar junction is on ectocervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Uterus characteristics

A

smooth, rounded, mobile, non tender
5.5-8cm long in nulliparous women
may be 2-3 cm longer in multiparous women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ovary characteristics

A

smooth, firm, mobile, slightly tender

size during reproductive years 3cm x2cm x1cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Prostate gland

A

heart shaped
4x3x2cm
smooth, rubbery, non tender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RBC count

A

measurements per cubic millimeter of blood

adult female: 4.2-5.4 million/mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Low RBC count

A

hemorrhage, hemolysis, dietary deficiencies, hemoglobinopathies, bone marrow failure, chronic illness, medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Elevated RBC count

A

dehydration, diseases causing chronic hypoxia such as congenital heart disease, polycythemia vera, medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hematocrit values (pregnant/non-pregnant)

A

percentage of total blood volume that is made of RBCs
Non pregnant female: 37-47%
Pregnant: >33% 1st/3rd trimester and >32% 2nd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hemoglobin values (pregnant/non-pregnant)

A

measurement of total Hgb with carries oxygen
non pregnant female: 12-16 g/dL
pregnant: >11g/dL in 1st/3rd trimesters, >10.5g/dL in 2nd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of low Hgb/Hct

A

anemia, hemoglobinopathies, cirrhosis, hemorrhage, dietary deficiency, renal disease, chronic illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Causes of elevated hgb/hct

A

erythrocytosis, polycythemia vera, severe dehydration, severe COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MCV values

A

Mean corpuscular volume- average size of single RBC

80-95mm, normocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Microcytic (low MCV and low MCH)
iron-deficiency anemia and thlassemia
26
Macrocytic (high MCV and high MCH)
megaloblastic anemias such as vitamin B deficiency and folic acid deficiency
27
MCH values
mean corpuscular hemoglobin- average amount or weight of hgb within an RBC 27-31pg/cell
28
What is a peripheral blood smear used for?
Examination of smear to examine RBCs, platelets and leukocytes
29
WBC values
5000-10,000/mm
30
Low WBC
bone marrow suppression, autoimmune disorders, immunosuppressive disorders, overwhelming infection, cancer that spreads to bone marrow
31
Elevated WBC
dehydration, infection, inflammatory conditions, may be elevated in late pregnancy/during labor, traumatic injury
32
Elevated neutrophils
acute bacterial infection, inflammation, increased immature forms (band/stabs) sometimes called left shift with ongoing acute bacterial infection
33
Elevated basophils
hypersensitivity reaction, chronic inflammatory disorders, uremia
34
Elevated eosinophils
allergic reaction, parasitic infections, chronic inflammatory disorders
35
Elevated lymphocytes
acute viral infections, chronic bacterial infections, chronic inflammatory disorders
36
Elevated monocytes
chronic infections, recovery phase of infections
37
Platelet Count
Normal finding: 150,000-400,000/mm
38
Low platelet count
thrombocytopenia | autoimmune disorders, cirrhosis, sepsis, hemorrhage, leukemia, cancer chemotherapy, viral infection
39
elevated platelet count
thrombocytosis | malignant disorders, polycythemia vera, rheumatoid arthritis
40
PT/PTT
Measures number of seconds it takes for clot to form in a blood sample with prolonged indicating that blood clotting is taking longer than normal
41
American diabetes association criteria for diagnosis of DM (3 things)
classic symptoms of hyperglycemia plus random glucose >200mg/dL fasting >126mg/dL 2 hour glucose >200 Always repeat testing on subsequent day to confirm
42
HbA1C values
>6.5% is diagnosis for diabetes | 5.7%-6.4% is pre diabetes
43
Total cholesterol value
<200mg/dL | May be elevated in pregnancy
44
Triglyceride value
35-135mg/dL | May be elevated in pregnancy
45
HDL value and what it does
removes cholesterol from peripheral tissues and transports to liver >40mg/dL is normal
46
LDL value and what it does
cholesterol carried by LDL can be deposited into peripheral tissues <130mg/dL is normal
47
BUN value and what it is
Indirect measure of renal/liver function | 10-20mg/dL is normal
48
Increased/Decreased BUN
Increased: dehydration, GI bleeding, sepsis Decreased: liver failure, malnutrition
49
Creatinine value and what it is
Indirect measure of renal function | 0.5-1.1 mg/dL
50
Increased/Decreased Creatinine
Increased: renal disorders, dehydration Decreased: debilitation and decreased muscle mass
51
Urine protein/creatinine (PC) ratio
Helps to evaluate kidney function when significant protein is found on urinalysis May indicate kidney disease/damage, associated with pre e and diabetes
52
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Normal: 0.4-4.12 mU/mL
53
Increased TSH
Seen with primary hypothyroidism and thyroiditis
54
Decreased TSH
Secondary hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, suppressive doses of thyroid medication
55
Free thyroxine (FT4)
Normal: 0.58-1.64 ng/dL
56
Increased FT4
hyperthyroidism and thyroiditis
57
Decreased FT4
hypothyrodism
58
Total/Indirect/Direct Bilirubin Values
Total: 0.3-1.0 mg/dL Indirect: 0.2-0.8 mg/dL Direct: 0.1-0.3 mg/dL
59
Albumin
Normal: 3.5-5.0 g/dL
60
Increased/Decreased Albumin
Increased: dehydration Decreased: liver disease, malabsorption syndromes, malnutrition
61
Presence of Hgb S
Indicates sickle cell disease or trait
62
Definitive test performed after positive Hgb S
Hgb electrophoresis identities Hgb type and quantity
63
What is autoantibodies/antinuclear antibodies (ANA) used for?
Diagnostic workup for SLE and other autoimmune disorders
64
Reproductive hormone studies: reasons for increased/decreased estradiol E2
Increased: adrenal tumor, estrogen-producing tumor, hyperthyroidism Decreased: postmenopause, ovarian failure, primary/secondary hypogonadism, Turner's syndrome
65
Reproductive hormone studies: reasons for increased/decreased progesterone
Increased: pregnancy, ovulation, progesterone secreting ovarian tumor/cyst, hydatiform mole, congenital adrenal hyperplasia Decreased: primary/secondary hypogonadism, threatened abortion, fetal demise, pre e or short luteal phase syndrome
66
Reproductive hormone studies: reasons for increased/decreased follicle stimulated hormone (FSH)
Increased: postmenopause, gonadotropin secreting pituitary tumor, ovarian failure, primary hypogonadism, Turner's syndrome Decreased: pregnancy, pituitary/hypothalamic dysfunction, hyperprolactinemia
67
Reproductive hormone studies: reasons for increased/decreased lutenizing hormone
increased: postmenopause, primary hypogonadism, gonadal failure decreased: pituitary or hypothalamic dysfunction
68
Normal pH for urinalysis
4.6-8.0
69
Normal protein for urinalysis
0-8 mg/dL
70
Normal specific gravity
1.005-1.030
71
Positive urine culture
Single type of bacteria at >100,000 CFU/mL
72
Normal wet prep results
Vaginal pH 3.8-4.5 Negative whiff Epithelial cells/few or no WBCs, lactobacilli
73
Bacterial Vaginosis wet prep
pH >4.5 positive whiff >20% of epithelial cells are clue cells, 0-1 WBCs per epithelial cells, lactobacilli reduced/absent
74
Trichomonas wet prep
pH >4.5 positive/negative whiff motile trichomondas, >1 WBC per epithelial cells, lactobacilli reduced or absent
75
Vulvovaginal candidiasis (VVC)
pH <4.5 Whiff negative hyphae/spores (seen on KOH slide), >1 WBC per epithelial cell, lactobacilli present
76
HIV testing, what is it?
enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
77
What is used to confirm positive EIA when testing for HIV?
Western blot or immunofluorescence assay (IFA) is used to confirm reactive EIA
78
What test is used for to assess titer to rubella?
Hemagglutination inhibition (HAI) or rubella IgM antibody titer
79
What does a rubella titer of 1:10 mean?
Immunity to rubella
80
What does a rubella titer of >1:64 mean?
may indicate current rubella infection
81
When do IgM antibodies appear/disappear after infection with rubella?
1-2 days after onset of rash and then disappear 5-6 weeks after infection
82
What does Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) indicate?
Active HBV infection, this person is infectious
83
What does hepatitis B surface antibody (HbsAb) indicate?
The end of acute infectious phase and signifies immunity. Also indicates immunity after administration of HBV vaccine
84
What does hepatitis B core antibody (HBcAb) indicate?
Past infection and chronic hepatitis
85
What does positive hepatitis c (HCV) antibody assay indicate and what do you do?
Follow a positive antibody test with HCV RNA. If positive, current HCV infection. If negative, infection has resolved.
86
PPD positive guidelines based on risk (high, moderate and general population)
High: >5mm Moderate: >10mm General population: >15mm
87
What can cause a false negative PPD?
incorrect administration, administration after recent live virus vaccine or immunosuppression
88
What can cause false positive PPD?
prior immunization with calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine
89
What do IgG antibodies do?
Positive IgG antibodies indicates protection d/t previous infection
90
What do IgM antibodies do?
Indicates current infection
91
What is somatic mutation and what causes it?
It is acquired and occurs after conception. D/t ionizing radiation, chemicals or viruses during gestation or later in life
92
What is germ cell mutation and when does it occur?
Inherited mutation. Occurs during conception
93
What does it mean if something is autosomal dominant?
Only one mutated copy of gene in each cell. One affected parent.
94
What are examples of autosomal dominant genetic conditions?
huntington disease and BRCA1/BRCA2
95
What does autosomal recessive mean?
Two mutated copies need to be present to have disease. Usually both parents are just carriers
96
What are examples of autosomal recessive genetic conditions and the likelihood if both parents are carriers?
Cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia. | 50% chance of being carrier, 25% chance of having disease and 25% chance of being unaffected
97
What does x-linked dominant mean?
Mutation in genes on x chromosome. Females more often affected. fathers cannot pass to sons.
98
What is an example of a x-linked dominant genetic condition and the chances of having it if the mother is affected?
Fragile x syndrome | If mother is affected, both male and female offspring have 50% of inheriting the disorder
99
What does x-linked recessive mean?
Mutation in genes on x chromosome. Males more frequently affected than females. Fathers cannot pass to sons.
100
What is an example of a x-linked recessive genetic condition and how do they inherit condition?
Hemophilia Females need to inherit affected x from both parents to have condition. Males only need to inherit the affected x from the mother to have the condition
101
What is a normal T score in bone density testing?
> -1
102
What T score indicates osteopenia?
-1 to -2.5
103
What T score indicates osteoporosis?
< -2.5

Midwifery (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions