Helminthology Q-A Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
The snail host of Fasciola gigantica in the Philippines is:
(A). Lymnaea truncatula; (B). Lymnaea bulimoides; (C). Lymnaea auricularia rubiginosa; (D). Lymnaea tormentosa.
A
Lymnaea auricularia rubiginosa
2
Q
The following parasites occur in the liver of their respective hosts EXCEPT: (A). Fimbraria fasciolaris; (B). Eimeria stiedai; (C). Clonorchis sinensis; (D). Thysanosoma actinoides
A
Fimbraria fasciolaris
3
Q
The following helminths require earthworms as intermediate hosts EXCEPT:
(A). Capillaria hepatica; (B). Metastrongylus spp.; (C). Capillaria annulata; (D). Amoebotaenia cuneata
A
Capillaria hepatica
4
Q
This helminth genus is characterized by having a parasitic and free-living generations; the former is parthenogenetic with filariform esophagus and the latter with rhabditiform esophagus:
(A). Strongylus; (B). Strongyloides; (C). Trichostrongylus; (D). Filarioides
A
Strongyloides
5
Q
Transmammary infection occurs in the following EXCEPT: (A). Toxocara cati; (B). Strongyloides ransomi; (C). Ancylostoma caninum; (D). Bunostomum trigonocephalum
A
Bunostomum trigonocephalum
6
Q
In Dirofilaria immitis infection in dogs, diagnosis is by finding its microfilaria during blood examination, but this microfilaria should be differentiated from that of this species which is also present in dogs:
(A). Dirofilaria corynoides; (B). Parafilaria multipapillosa; (C). Dipetalonema reconditum; (D). Dipetalonema perstans
A
Dipetalonema reconditum
7
Q
The following are hookworm species EXCEPT:
(A). Ancylostoma duodenale; (B). Necator americanus; (C). Agriostomum vryburgi; (D). Amidostomum anseris.
A
Amidostomum anseris
8
Q
All of these are parasites of the eyes EXCEPT:
(A). Oxyspirura mansoni; (B). Philopthalmus spp.; (C). Ascarops strongylina; (D). Thelazia rhodesii
A
Ascarops strongylina
9
Q
Pedogenesis also known as polyembryony refers to the production of several individuals from a single larval form and is exhibited by all trematodes. The species of tapeworms below also have this characteristic EXCEPT:
(A). Moniezia spp.; (B). Echinococcus spp.; (C). Mesocestoides lineatus; (D). Multiceps multiceps.
A
Moniezia spp
10
Q
Milk spots in the liver of pigs infected with Ascaris suum are actually: (A). Hepatic cysts; (B). Focal area of calcification; (C). Hepatic abscesses; (D). Localized fibrosis
A
Localized fibrosis
11
Q
This helminth usually occurs in pairs inside cysts in the lung parenchyma: (A). Paragonimus westermani; (B). Cystocaulus nigrescens; (C). Muellerius capillaries; (D). Protostrongylus rufescens
A
Paragonimus westermani
12
Q
Oribatid mites serve as intermediate host of the following EXCEPT: (A). Anoplocephala perfoliata; (B). Moniezia benedeni; (C). Raillietina tetragona; (D). Cittotaenia pectinata
A
Raillietina tetragona
13
Q
Which among the following nematodes has an indirect life cycle?: (A). Strongyloides westeri; (B). Capillaria annulata; (C). Toxascaris leonina; (D). Trichuris suis
A
Capillaria annulata
14
Q
Which pair has the same mode of infection for the definitive vertebrate host?:
(A). Ascaris suum-Trichinella spiralis;
(B). Oxyuris equi-Strongyloides stercoralis;
(C). Taenia saginata-Schistosoma japonicum;
(D). Paranoplocephala mamillana-Choanotaenia infundibulum.
A
Paranoplocephala mamillana-Choanotaenia infundibulum
15
Q
Feeling of shame and inferiority is one of the symptoms observed in man infected with: (A). Diphyllobothrium latum; (B). Capillaria philippinensis; (C). Enterobius vermicularis; (D). Trichinella spiralis larvae
A
Enterobius vermicularis
16
Q
Pseudoscolex is a feature of: (A). Thysaniezia giardi; (B). Fimbraria fasciolaris; (C). Echinococcus multilocularis; (D). Cittotaenia denticulata
A
Fimbraria fasciolaris
17
Q
Flukes with head collar bearing spines are the: (A). Dicrocoeliids; (B). Amphistomes; (C). Echinostomatids; (D). Schistosomatids
A
Echinostomatids
18
Q
The mode of transmission of Capillaria philippinensis is:
(A). Consumption of undercooked Pila luzonica containing infective larvae;
(B). Skin penetration by the third stage larvae;
(C). Ingestion of contaminated drinking water;
(D). Ingestion of raw infected Ambassis commersoni or Hypseliotris bipartita.
A
Ingestion of raw infected Ambassis commersoni or Hypseliotris bipartita
19
Q
Self-cure phenomenon in helminth infection is best exemplified in: (A). Equine gastric habronemiasis; (B). Haemonchosis; (C). Hyostrongylosis; (D). Canine ancylostomosis.
A
Haemonchosis
20
Q
What nematode species in which the fungus Pilobolus is important in the dissemination of its larvae in the pasture? (A). Metastrongylus pudendotectus; (B). Dictyocaulus viviparus; (C). Toxocara vitulorum; (D). Mecistocirrus digitatus.
A
Dictyocaulus viviparus
21
Q
Which species has numerous round or oval thickenings on its cuticle especially on the anterior region?
(A). Thelazia rhodesii;
(B). Echinuria uncinata;
(C). Gongylonema pulchrum;
(D). Setaria equina
A
Gongylonema pulchrum
22
Q
This pair of species utilizes freshwater fish as second intermediate host:
(A). Clonorchis sinensis and Diphyllobothrium latum;
(B). Capillaria hepatica and Gastrodiscus hominis;
(C). Dioctophyme renale and Faciolopsis buski;
(D). Notocotylus naviformis and Echinostoma revolutum.
A
Clonorchis sinensis and Diphyllobothrium latum
23
Q
Which species is not zoonotic?: (A). Trichostrongylus axei; (B). Dicrocoelium dendriticum; (C). Ostertagia ostertagi; (D). Dirofilaria immitis
A
Ostertagia ostertagi
24
Q
The rat lungworm Angiostrongylus cantonensis can cause one of the following conditions in man:
(A). Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis;
(B). Verminous pneumonia;
(C). Swimmer’s itch;
(D). Gid
A
Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
25
The infective larvae of Habronema species can cause which one of the following conditions when they are deposited on existing wounds of animals especially horses;
(A). Filarial dermatitis;
(B). Itch;
(C). Queensland itch;
(D). Bursati
Bursati
26
Which parasite is not transmitted per cutaneously:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Ancylostoma caninum;
(C). Strongyloides spp.;
(D). Skrjabinagia kolchida
Skrjabinagia kolchida
27
Which species does not require two intermediate hosts in its life cycle?
(A). Platynosomum fastosum;
(B). Fasciola gigantica;
(C). Spirometra erinacei;
(D). Echinostoma ilocanum.
Fasciola gigantica
28
Which of the following is not part of the female reproductive organ in flukes?
(A). Ootype;
(B). Receptaculum seminis;
(C). Vitellaria;
(D). Telamon
Telamon
29
All of these are eyeworms EXCEPT:
(A). Oxyspirura mansoni;
(B). Philophthalmus;
(C). Ascarops strongylina;
(D). Thelazia rhodesii
Ascarops strongylina
30
Infection with this parasite results in rat-tail appearance in the infected animal due to extreme irritation:
(A). Enterobius vermicularis;
(B). Toxocara vitulorum;
(C). Oxyuris equi;
(D). Toxascaris leonina
Oxyuris equi
31
It is also called gapeworm:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Cyathostoma bronchialis;
(C). Mammomonogamus laryngeus;
(D). Syngamus trachea
Syngamus trachea
32
These species are also called arrow-headed worms EXCEPT:
(A). Toxascaris leonina;
(B). Toxocara canis;
(C). Toxocara cati;
(D). Parascaris equorum
Parascaris equorum
33
These are hookworms EXCEPT:
(A). Uncinaria stenocephala;
(B). Necator americanus;
(C). Graphidium strigiosum;
(D). Bunostomum trigonocephalum
Graphidium strigiosum
34
Freshwater fish is the intermediate hosts of: (A). Ollulanus tricuspis;
(B). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Spirocerca lupi;
(D). Physaloptera canis.
Gnathostoma spinigerum
35
A form of immunity seen in protozoan and some helminth infections that is
dependent upon the continued presence of the parasite is: (A). Immunological
tolerance; (B). Phagocytosis; (C). Pinocytosis; (D). Premunition.
Premunition
36
Which among these has no alimentary canal but has uterine bell?
(A). Heterakis beramporiae
(B). Dipylidium caninum;
(C). Polymorphus boschadis
(D). Fischoederius elongatus.
Polymorphus boschadis
37
Which of the following has only one spicule?
(A). Ascaris suum;
(B). Haemonchus contortus;
(C). Oesophagotomum radiatum;
(D). None of the above.
None of the above
38
In Elaeophora poeli
those that are fully enclosed inside the nodules are:
(A). Both male and females;
(B). Male only;
(C). Female only;
(D). None of the above.
Male only
39
This species causes haemorrhagic nodules on the skin of cattle and water
buffaloes:
(A). Parafilaria bovicola;
(B). Setaria digitata;
(C). Haematopinus tuberculatus;
(D). Ostertagia ostertag
Parafilaria bovicola
40
Fertilized females exhibit brown cement
-like ring around the vulva in this
species:
(A). Tetrameres americana;
(B). Spirocerca lupi;
(C). Physalotera praeputialis;
(D). None of the above.
Physalotera praeputialis
41
The presence of cordons is a feature seen in the following
EXCEPT:
(A). Dispharynx spiralis;
(B). Heterakis gallinae;
(C). Echinuria uncinata;
(D). Cheilospirura hamulosa.
Heterakis gallinae
42
The following are all stomach worms of their respective hosts
EXCEPT:
(A).
Hyostrongylus rubidus;
(B). Physocephalus sexalatus;
(C). Ascarops strongylina;
(D). Oesophagustomum dentatum.
Oesophagustomum dentatum
43
The cause of eosinophilic granulomata in the intestine of man is:
(A). Brugia malayi;
(B). Angiostrongylus costaricensis;
(C). Enterobius vermicularis;
(D). Angiostrongylus cantonensis.
Angiostrongylus costaricensis
44
Both hyper- and auto infections can occur in infection with this species:
(A). Ascaris suum;
(B). Strongyloides stercoralis;
(C). Capillaria annulata;
(D). None of the above
Strongyloides stercoralis
45
Ascaris suum eggs are not immediately infective after being passed out with
feces but need maturation period of:
(A). 30 days;
(B). 25 days;
(C). 10-12
days;
(D). 5 days.
10-12
days
46
These structures are found in the posterior end of nematodes which function as
chemoreceptors, well supplied with nerve fibers and associated with glandular
structure:
(A). Phasmids;
(B). Dierids;
(C). Amphids;
(D). None of the above.
Phasmids
47
The following members of the family Fasciolidae occur in the liver of their
respective hosts EXCEPT:.
(A). Fasciolopsis buski;
(B). Fascioloides magna;
(C). Fasciola gigantica;
(D). Fasciola nyanzae.
Fasciolopsis buski
48
Fecal examination is not a reliable method of diagnosing infection with this
parasite:
(A). Trichostrongylus spp.;
(B). Trichuris vulpis;
(C). Oxyuris equi;
(D). None of the above
Oxyuris equi
49
What trichostrongylid species whose egg does not hatch until infective larva (L3) has developed in the eggshell:
(A). Mecistocirrus digitatus;
(B). Cooperia
curticei;
(C). Paracooperia nodulosa;
(D). Nematodirus battus.
Nematodirus battus
50
The cause of granular dermatitis in horses is: (A). Gnathostoma doloresi;
(B). Ascarops strongylina;
(C). Physocephalus sexalatus;
(D). Habronema muscae
Habronema muscae
51
These nematodes undergo hypobiosis
EXCEPT:
(A). Ostertagia ostertagi;
(B). Haemonchus contortus;
(C). Uncinaria stenocephala;
(D). Cooperia oncophora
Uncinaria stenocephala
52
A pathological condition with symptoms such as hepatomegaly, pulmonary
infiltration, intermittent fever, loss of weight and appetite and persistent cough
caused by ascaris organisms. This is called:
(A). Cutaneous larva migrans;
(B). Visceral larva migrans;
(C). Urticarial hepatic syndrome;
(D). Localized general peritonitis.
Visceral larva migrans
53
This is an important nodular worm of cattle: (A). Oesophagostomum radiatum;
(B). Oesophagostomum stephanostomum;
(C). Oesophagostomum aculeatum;
(D). Oesophagostomum dentatum
Oesophagostomum radiatum
54
These are all effects of
Trichostrongylus EXCEPT:
(A). Low secretion of cholecystokinin;
(B). Reduced utilization of food;
(C). Decreased uptake of
selenium;
(D). Low plasma phosphorus.
Low secretion of cholecystokinin
55
The cause of gape in poultry is:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Cyathostoma bronchialis;
(C). Mammomonogamus laryngeus;
(D). Syngamus trachea.
Syngamus trachea
56
Which of these stages of Trichostrongy
lus is the least susceptible to extreme
changes in environmental conditions:
(A). Second stage larva;
(B). Embryonated egg;
(C). Unembryonated egg;
(D). Third stage larva.
Third stage larva
57
A complication of the acute illness of this infection is black disease, which
occurs in normal sheep. What parasite causes this illness?
(A). Fasciolopsis buski;
(B). Fascioloides magna;
(C). Fasciola hepatica;
(D). Clonorchis sinensis.
Fasciola hepatica
58
Elongate unisexual trematode, which carries its female in a canal and inhabits the blood vessel of its host:
(A). Schistosoma;
(B). Fasciolopsis buski;
(C). Eurytrema pancreaticum;
(D). Thysanosoma actinoides
Schistosoma
59
It has been proven that prenatal infection occurs in the life cycle of these
nematodes EXCEPT:
(A). Toxocara canis;
(B). Parascaris equorum;
(C). Toxocara vitulorum;
(D). Toxocara cati.
Toxocara cati
60
All of these parasites infect the lungs
EXCEPT:
(A). Cheilospirura hamulosa;
(B). Filarioides osleri;
(C). Dictyocaulus viviparus;
(D). Metastrongylus elongatus.
Cheilospirura hamulosa
61
Which of these stages of Trichostrongylus sp. is most susceptible to extreme environmental condition:
(A). Unembryonated egg;
(B). Second stage larva;
(C). First stage larva;
(D). Embryonated egg.
Second stage larva
62
These are hookworms
EXCEPT:
(A). Uncinaria stenocephala;
(B). Necator americanus;
(C). Graphidium strigiosum;
(D). Bunostomum trigonocephalum.
Graphidium strigiosum
63
Cause of cascado or verminous dermatitis in man is:
(A). Mecistocirrus digitatus;
(B). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Tetrameres americana;
(D).
Stephanofilaria okinawaensis.
Stephanofilaria okinawaensis
64
All of these cause dirofilariosis
EXCEPT:
(A). Brugia timori;
(B). Elaeophora schneideri;
(C). Mastophorus muris;
(D). Wuchereria bancrofti.
Mastophorus muris
65
Pathogenic effect of Strongylus vulgaris in equine is:
(A). Interference with absorption, bowel movement and indigestion;
(B). Severe lesions in arterial system forming thrombi which maybe fatal;
(C). Cirrhosis of the liver resulting to ascites; (D). Nodular formation causing localized inflammation around each larva.
Severe lesions in arterial system forming thrombi which maybe fatal
66
Fatal human hydatidosis is caused by:
(A). Echinococcus granulosus;
(B). Moniezia benedeni;
(C). Oesophagostomum stephanostomum;
(D). Spirometra mansoni.
Echinococcus granulosus
67
Oesophageal worm of dogs is:
(A). Spirocerca lupi;
(B). Echinococcus granulosus;
(C). Physaloptera praeputialis;
(D). Thelazia californensis.
Spirocerca lupi
68
Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by:
(A). Toxocara vitulorum;
(B). Uncinaria stenocephala;
(C). Filariodes osleri;
(D). Toxocara leonina.
Uncinaria stenocephala
69
Trichinosis in man, which is maintained in the cycle of infection between wild carnivores and humans, is called:
(A). Bionomic cycle;
(B). Synantropic zoonotic cycle;
(C). Hypobiotic cycle;
(D). Sylvatic-zoonotic cycle
Sylvatic-zoonotic cycle
70
Liverfluke of elephants:
(A). Paramphistomum cervi;
(B). Clonorchis sinensis;
(C). Fasciolopsis buski;
(D). Fasciola hepatica.
Fasciola hepatica
71
Gid or staggers a brain disease caused by the presence of the metacestode in the
intermediate host of which parasite?:
(A). Hymenolepis nana;
(B). Taenia multiceps;
(C). Taenia serialis;
(D). Echinococcus granulosus.
Taenia multiceps
72
Important lungfluke of carnivores:
(A). Schistosoma japonicum;
(B). Paragonimus westermani;
(C). Opisthorchis tenuicollis;
(D). Limnatis africana
Paragonimus westermani
73
Cause of sparganosis in man is:
(A). Spirocerca lupi;
(B). Oesophagostomum stephanostomum;
(C). Trichinella spiralis;
(D). Spirometra mansoni.
Spirometra mansoni
74
Egg of this parasite is characteristically quadrilateral in shape:
(A). Moniezia benedeni;
(B). Taenia solium;
(C). Raillietina tetragona;
(D). Dipylidium caninum.
Moniezia benedeni
75
The diagnosis of these parasites involves the finding of their eggs in the urine of their respective hosts EXCEPT:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Dioctophyme remale;
(C). Capillaria plica;
(D). Angiostrongylus vasorum.
Angiostrongylus vasorum
76
This parasite causes catarrhal parasitic bronchitis in ruminants:
(A). Onchoceca gibsoni;
(B). Hyostrogylus rubidus;
(C). Dictyocaulus filaria;
(D). Metastrongylus elongatus.
Dictyocaulus filaria
77
Infection in man with this species results from eating uncooked infected fish or frogs:
(A). Tetrameres americana;
(B). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Simondsia paradoxa;
(D). Thelazia rhodesii.
Gnathostoma spinigerum
78
Genetically inherited immunization against infection is possible in:
(A). Trichostrongylus colubriformis in sheep; (B). Ostertatia ostertagi in cattle;
(C). Graphidium strigiosum in rabbit;
(D). Strongylus vulgaris in equine.
Trichostrongylus colubriformis in sheep
79
This parasite is permanently in copula:
(A). Graphidium strigiosum;
(B). Syngamus trachea;
(C). Cyatosthoma bronchialis;
(D). Haemonchus contortus.
Syngamus trachea
80
A technique use in larval recovery is:
(A). Microscopic technique;
(B). Flotation technique;
(C). Baermann‟s technique;
(D). concentration technique.
Baermann‟s technique
81
Most tapeworms have metameric repetition of their reproductive organs termed
as:
(A). Proglottids;
(B). Bothridia;
(C). Body;
(D). Strobila
Proglottids
82
The following nematodes have no intermediate host
EXCEPT:
(A). Habronema;
(B). Ancylostoma;
(C). Bunostomum;
(D). Strongyles
Habronema
83
This is known for the unusual shape of the mature female, which is almost spherical and lies embedded in the proventricular gland of birds:
(A). Tetrameres americana;
(B). Oxyspirura mansoni;
(C). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(D). Thelazia callipaeda.
Tetrameres americana
84
The dog is the definitive host of this parasite, which is transmissible to man:
(A). Echinococcus granulosus;
(B). Sarcocystis hirsuta;
(C). Strongylus vulgaris;
(D). Davainea proglottina.
Echinococcus granulosus
85
This is an important cestode of freshwater carps:
(A). Raillietina echinobothridia;
(B). Diorchis nyrocae;
(C). Schistocephalus solidus;
(D). Caryophyllaeus fimbriceps.
Caryophyllaeus fimbriceps
86
Intensive management in poultry has reduced cestode infections but this species can still remain a problem because its intermediate host is Musca domestica:
(A). Choanotaenia infundibulum;
(B). Amoebotaenia cuneata;
(C). Raillietina echinobothridia;
(D). Davainea proglotinna.
Choanotaenia infundibulum
87
A criteria differentiating eye lesions from others caused by visceral larva migrans is the presence of this:
(A). Anti-C isohaemagglutinin titre of 1200;
(B). Persistent Eosinophilia;
(C). Leucopenia;
(D). Decreased red blood cell counts.
Persistent Eosinophilia
88
A highly pathogenic ascaris of cattle is:
(A). Ascaris columnaris;
(B). Contracaecum spiculigerum;
(C). Toxocara vitulorum;
(D). Toxascaris leonina.
Toxocara vitulorum
89
Osteoporosis due to low plasma phosphorous concentration is associated with:
(A). Capillaria infection in carabaos;
(B). Liverfluke infection in cattle;
(C). Hookworm infection in canines;
(D). Trichostrongylus infection in sheep.
Trichostrongylus infection in sheep
90
Haemonchus contortus increases its rate of survival by undergoing this phenomenon called:
(A). Hypobiosis;
(B). Probiosis;
(C). Symbiosis;
(D). Phoresy.
Hypobiosis
91
Larvae of Ascaris do more damage in this organ during migration:
(A). Intestines;
(B). Lungs;
(C). Pancreas;
(D). Liver.
Lungs
92
Elaeophora schneideri is a common parasite of the:
(A). Aorta of cattle;
(B). Eye of horse;
(C). Common carotid artery of sheep;
(D). Right atrium of carabao
Common carotid artery of sheep
93
This parasite is an important factor in the development of esophageal sarcoma:
(A). Ascarops strongylina;
(B). Spirocerca lupi;
(C). Habronema muscae;
(D). Oxyspirura mansoni.
Spirocerca lupi
94
This parasite is acquired by eating inadequately cooked frogs or fish causing eosinophilic meningitis in man due to its migration:
(A). Gongylonema puchrum;
(B). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Simondsia paradoxa;
(D). Physocephalus sexalatus
Gnathostoma spinigerum
95
It is a pathological entity with symptoms in a child of enlarged liver, with eosinophilic granulomatous lesions, intermittent fever, loss of weight and persistent cough with a 50% circulating eosinophilia.
(A). Toxocara vitulorum infection;
(B). visceral larva migrans;
(C). Paragonimus westermani infection;
(D). cutaneous larva migrans.
visceral larva migrans
96
Claypipe stem fibrosis is associated with this trematode infection:
(A). Coccidiosis;
(B). Hepatozoonosis;
(C). Schistosomiasis;
(D). Ascariasis
Schistosomiasis
97
Largest of all the nematodes (8 meters long, 2 cm thick; in sperm whale)
(A). Elaeophora poeli;
(B). Macrocanthorhynchus hirudinaceus;
(C). Placentonema gigantissima;
(D). Fascioloides magna.
Placentonema gigantissima
98
Members of the family Taeniidae produce all but one of these metacestode:
(A). Cysticercus;
(B). Tetrathyridium;
(C). Coenurus;
(D). Echinococcus or hydatid cyst.
Tetrathyridium
99
What is not true for
Toxocara canis, T. cati and T. vitulorum.:
(A). both prenatal and transmammary infections occur;
(B). All have three lips;
(C). Eggs are thick-shelled and unembryonated when laid;
(D). Males are without copulatory bursa.
both prenatal and transmammary infections occur
100
This species occurs in the intestine of monkeys: (A). Taenia pisiformis;
(B). Anatrichosoma cutaneum;
(C). Habronema microstoma;
(D). Bertiella studeri.
Bertiella studeri
101
It is the smallest yet the most pathogenic poultry tapeworm.
(A). Raillietina cesticillus;
(B). Hymenolepis cartioca;
(C). Davainea proglottina;
(D). Hymenolepis sp.
Davainea proglottina
102
A clinical feature, which differentiates haemonchosis and mecisticirrosis from
trichostrongylosis, is.
(A). Haemoglubinuria;
(B). Anemia;
(C). Jaundice;
(D). None of the above.
Anemia
103
It is a thickened structure located in the buccal capsule of some nematodes, which carries the duct of the dorsal esophageal gland.
(A). Posterior duct;
(B). Salivary duct;
(C). Dorsal gutter;
(D). Oral duct.
Dorsal gutter
104
The cause of „hump sore‟, a chronic dermatitis in cattle.
(A). Parafilaria bovicola;
(B). Stephanofilaria assamensis;
(C). Elaeophora schneideri;
(D). Dipetalonema reconditum.
Stephanofilaria assamensis
105
This refers to the cuticular fringes around the oral openings of some nematodes
like the equine strongyles.
(A). Corona perfoliata;
(B). Buccal fringes;
(C). Corona radiata;
(D). Cervial alae.
Corona radiata
106
It is a condition in man caused by
Angiostrongylus constaricensis.
(A). Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
(B). Tropical bursati;
(C). Eosinophilic granulomata of the intestine; (D). None of the above
Eosinophilic granulomata of the intestine
107
This is a specific condition caused by the larvae of Draschia megastoma and Habronema spp. deposited by flies on existing wounds of domesticated animals specially horses
(A). Delhi boil;
(B). Haemorrhagic filariasi;
(C). Bursati
(D). Pustular mange.
Bursati
108
This species of pig lungworms is characterized by a large cuticular swelling
covering the vulva and anus.
(A). Metastrongylus salmi;
(B). Metastrongylus pudendotectus;
(C). Protostrongylus rufescens;
(D). Mullerius capillaries.
Metastrongylus pudendotectus
109
It is where majority of the lesions of
Strongylus vulgaris occur.
(A). Posterior mesenteric artery & arteries which derive from it;
(B). Aorta & aortic arch;
(C). Cranial mesenteric artery and the arteries, which derive from it
(D). Pulmonary artery
Cranial mesenteric artery and the arteries, which derive from it
110
Species of this genus is characterized by their spicules fused at the tip.
(A). Nematodirus;
(B). Mecistocirrus;
(C). Hemonchus;
(D). Ascaris
Nematodirus
111
This species of hairworm affects man.
(A). Capillaria contorta;
(B). Capillaria plica;
(C). Trichuris vulpis;
(D). Capillaria philippinensis
Capillaria philippinensis
112
This condition is caused in man by the larvae of the rat lungworm, Angiostrongylus cantonensis.
(A). Elephantiasis;
(B). Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis;
(C). Tropical pancytopenia;
(D). Human gnathostomiasis
Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
113
This term is sometimes given to Trichostrongylus species because of the
characteristic appearance of feces produced by animals infected by them.
(A). Black scours worms;
(B). Barber‟s pole worms;
(C). Red feces thread worms;
(D). Suphur-yellow dropping worms.
Black scours worms
114
It is a fungus found common in cattle feces, which helps in the efficient dispersion of Dictyocaulus larvae in the pasture.
(A). Trichophyton;
(B). Pilobolus,
(C). Amanita;
(D). Penicillum
Pilobolus
115
It causes “ring worm lesions” in the stomach of calves. Lesions are raised plaques comprising grayish flat areas with sharply demarcated borders.
(A). Trichostrongylus capricola;
(B). Haemonchus placei;
(C). Trichostrongylus axei;
(D). Mecistocirrus digitatus
Trichostrongylus axei
116
This chemical is correlated with anorexia in
Trichostrongylus colubriformis
infection in sheep. The parasite appears to stimulate secretion of this substance leading to its increase level in the plasma and acts on the appropriate center in the brain to depress appetite.
(A). Cytokine (CK);
(B). Choline;
(C). Colecystokinin;
(D). Arecoline.
Colecystokinin
117
This is the cause of cascado (verminous dermatitis) in the muzzle and teat of cattle and water buffalo
(A). Parafilaria bovicola;
(B). Stephanofilaria okinawaensis;
(C). Brugia malayi;
(D). Onchocerca cebei.
Stephanofilaria okinawaensis
118
It is the cause of parasitic otitis in bovines.
(A). Strongyloides papillosus;
(B). Capillaria bovis;
(C). Rhabditis bovis;
(D). Trichuris bovis.
Rhabditis bovis
119
Between the human Taenia species, the gravid segments of this species spontaneously leave the host.
(A). Taenia solium;
(B). Taenia saginata;
(C). Taenia taeniaformis;
(D). Raillietina madagascariensis.
Taenia saginata
120
Largest nematode in domesticated animals (100 cm.)
(A). Toxacara vitulorum;
(B). Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus;
(C). Dioctophyme renale;
(D). Ascaris suum.
Dioctophyme renale
121
Cause of swimmers‟ itch. (cercarial dermatitis, schistosome dermatitis, clam-diggers‟ itch, hunters‟ itch, rice paddy itch, lakeside disease, badedermatitis, gale de nageurs)
(A). Fasciolides magna;
(B). Stephanurus dentatus;
(C). Horse strongyles;
(D). Avian schistosomes.
Avian schistosomes
122
Cause of rice paddy itch in Malaysia
(A). Schistosoma mansoni;
(B). Schistosoma spindale;
(C). Schistosoma matheei;
(D). Austrobilharzia bayensis.
Schistosoma spindale
123
Infection with this species in fishes is characterized by swollen abdomen caused
by its large plerocercoids displacing the organs. (A). Lytocetus intestinalis;
(B). Ligula intestinalis
(C). Bothriocephalus aelognathi;
(D). Schistocephalus solidus.
Ligula intestinalis
124
Eggs of this parasite are released through the gills of the fish host from adults in
the circulatory system.
(A). Austrobilharzia bayensis;
(B). Philometra sp.;
(C). Sanguinicola inermis;
(D). Bucephalus tentaculatus
Sanguinicola inermis
125
This filariid worm may produce small whitish nodules in the connective tissues of pig, which can be mistaken as young cysticerci.
(A). Stephanofilaria deodesi;
(B). Suifilaria suis;
(C). Bhalfilaria ladami;
(D). Dirofilaria reconditum.
Suifilaria suis
126
This nematode requires termites as intermediate host.
(A). Ascaria galli;
(B). Capillaria annulata;
(C). Hartertia gallinarum;
(D). Heterakis beramporiae.
Hartertia gallinarum
127
This species develops first in the leptomeningeal arteries then migrate to the
carotid arteries of the definitive host and transmitted by tabanids:
(A). Elaeophora schneideri;
(B). Brugia malayi;
(C). Parafilaria bovicola;
(D). Stephanofilaria assamensis.
Elaeophora schneideri;
128
Pyriform apparatus is present in the egg of the following EXCEPT:
(A). Anoplocephala perfoliata;
(B). Raillietina echinobothrida;
(C). Moniezia expansa;
(D). Paranoplocephala mamillana.
Raillietina echinobothrida
129
A roughly cross-shaped telamon is a feature of: (A). Capillaria retusa;
(B). Strongylus edentatus;
(C). Hyostrongylus rubidus;
(D). Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus.
Ornithostrongylus
quadriradiatus.
130
Leaf crowns are present in the following
EXCEPT:
(A). Oesophagostomum;
(B). Stephanurus;
(C). Ascaris;
(D). Strongylus.
Ascaris
131
Nodule formation can be observed in the hosts infected with the following EXCEPT:
(A). Ostertagia spp,;
(B). Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus;
(C). Hyostrongylus rubidus;
(D). Paracooperia nodulosa.
Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus
132
In Trichostrongylus colubriformis, the larva that is very susceptible to desiccation is the. (A). 5th; stage
(B). 2nd stage;
(C). 1st stage;
(D). 4rth stage.
2nd stage
133
The cause of eosinophilic granulomatous lesions in the urinary bladder is:
(A). Setaria digitata;
(B). Parafiliaria bovicola;
(C). Stephanofilaria assamensis;
(D). Elaeophora poeli.
Parafiliaria bovicola
134
Immunizing sheep over six months old produces protective immunity against
Haemonchus contortus by vaccination with irradiated:
(A). Sera;
(B). Adults;
(C). Infective larvae;
(D). Eggs
Infective larvae
135
This parasite is an important factor in the development of esophageal sarcoma:
(A). Ascarops strongylina;
(B). Spirocerca lupi;
(C). Habronema muscae;
(D). Oxyspirura mansoni.
Spirocerca lupi
136
The adult form of the following species of the family Taeniidae occurs in dogs EXCEPT:
(A). Taenia hydatigena;
(B). Taenia saginata;
(C). Echinococcus granulosus;
(D). Taenia pisiformis
Taenia saginata
137
The helminth parasite with the longest prepatent period is:
(A). Ascaris spp.;
(B). Dioctophyme renale;
(C). Stephanurus dentatus;
(D). Fasciola spp.
Stephanurus dentatus
138
The bladder worm of Taenia (Multiceps) multiceps is a:
(A). Coenurus;
(B). Cysticercus;
(C). Cysticercoid;
(D). Tetrathyridium
Coenurus
139
A hairworm found in the subcutaneous tissues of monkeys and man is:
(A). Capillaria philippinensis;
(B). Strogyloides stercoralis;
(C). Anatrichosoma cutaneum;
(D). Brugia malayi.
Anatrichosoma cutaneum
140
Which is not transmitted by land mollusk?
(A). Capillaria obsignata;
(B). Davainea proglotinna;
(C). Aelurustrongylus abstrussus;
(D). Crenosoma vulpis.
Capillaria obsignata
141
Schistosome cercariae are:
(A). Lophocercous;
(B). Furcocercous;
(C). Leptocercous;
(D). Cysticercus.
Furcocercous
142
These nematodes are viviparous EXCEPT:
(A). Thelazia rhodesii;
(B). Dirofilaria immitis;
(C). Trichinella spiralis;
(D). Metastrongylus spp.
Metastrongylus spp.
143
These flukes occur in the ceca and rectum of birds EXCEPT:
(A). Notocotylus attenuatus;
(B). Cyclocoelium mutabile;
(C). Catatropis verrucosa;
(D). Postharmostomum gallinum.
Cyclocoelium mutabile
144
These nematodes occur in the aorta of their respective hosts EXCEPT:
(A). Onchocerca armillata;
(B). Elaeophora poeli;
(C). Spirocerca lupi;
(D). Onchocerca gutturosa
Onchocerca gutturosa
145
How does the function of solenocytes can be categorized?
(A). Secretory;
(B). Excretory;
(C). Circulatory;
(D). Respiratory.
Excretory
146
Hemorrhagic nodules in the skin of buffaloes are caused by:
(A). Setaria labiatopapillosa;
(B). Parafilaria bovicola;
(C). Onchocerca cebei;
(D). Elaeophora poeli
Parafilaria bovicola
147
The ceca of the following flukes are simple EXCEPT:
(A). Fischoederius elongatus;
(B). Paragonimus westermani;
(C). Opisthorchis felineus;
(D). Fasciola gigantica.
Fasciola gigantica
148
The organ location of these helminths is the heart and/or pulmonary artery in their respecitive hosts EXCEPT:
(A). Draschia megastoma;
(B). Dipetalonema spirocauda;
(C). Dirofilaria immitis;
(D). Bhalfilaria ladami.
Draschia megastoma
149
A single egg may give rise to several larvae infective to the final host in:
(A). Tapeworms;
(B). Roundworms;
(C). Flukes;
(D). Acanthocephalans.
Flukes
150
Alimentary canal is absent in:
(A). Mermithids & trematodes;
(B). Cestodes & nematodes;
(C). Trematodes & nematodes;
(D). Acanthocephalans & cestodes
Acanthocephalans & cestodes
151
Members of the family Taeniidae produce the following larvae EXCEPT:
(A). Cysticercus;
(B). Tetrathyridium;
(C). Coenurus;
(D). Echinococcus or hydatid cyst
Tetrathyridium
152
What is not true for Toxocara canis, T. cati and T. vitulorum?
(A). Both prenatal and transmammary infections occur;
(B). All have three lips;
(C). Eggs are thick-shelled and unembryonated when laid;
(D). Males are without copulatory bursa.
Both prenatal and transmammary infections occur
153
In the pig, the presence of milk spots in the liver is suggestive of:
(A). Strongyloides ransomi infection;
(B). Cysticercus tenuicollis;
(C). Visceral larva migrans;
(D). Ascariosis.
Ascariosis
154
Most members of this family utilize oribatid mites as intermediate hosts:
(A). Anoplocephalidae;
(B). Dilepididae;
(C). Davaineidae;
(D). Hymenolepididae
Anoplocephalidae
155
All but one species can be easily identified by examining the appearance of the
pharynx: (A). Physocephalus sexalatus;
(B). Dictyocaulus filaria;
(C). Oxyspirura mansoni;
(D). Ascarops strongylina
Dictyocaulus filaria
156
What set of description is true for strongyle eggs:
(A). Oval, smooth and thick shelled and unsegmented when laid;
(B). Oval, shell is thick and finely mammillated and unsegmented when laid;
(C). Oval, smooth and thin-shelled and segmented when laid;
(D). Round, shell is thick and pitted and
unsegmented when laid.
Oval, smooth and thin-shelled and segmented when laid
157
All of these nematodes occur in the crop of their respective hosts EXCEPT:
(A). Capillaria anatis;
(B). Gongylonema ingluvicola;
(C). Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus;
(D). Amidostomum cygni.
Capillaria anatis
158
Which one occurs in the intestine of monkeys: (A). Taenia pisiformis;
(B). Anatrichosoma cutaneum;
(C). Habronema microstoma;
(D). Bertiella studeri.
Bertiella studeri
159
These occur in the liver of their respective host EXCEPT:
(A). Dicrocoelium dentriticum;
(B). Thyzanosoma actinoides;
(C). Platynosomum fastosum;
(D). Stilesia globipunctata
Stilesia globipunctata
160
The cause of river blindness in man, which utilizes Simulium spp. as intermediate host is: (A). Thelazia lacrymalis;
(B). Brugia malayi;
(C). Onchocerca volvulus;
(D). Setaria equina
Onchocerca volvulus
161
The males of the following have copulatory bursa EXCEPT:
(A). Strongylus edentatus;
(B). Ancylostoma caninum;
(C). Ascaridia galli;
(D). Mecistocirrus digitatus.
Ascaridia galli
162
Which species is dependent on predation or cannibalism or decomposition in the release of its egg in the environment?
(A). Capillaria annulata;
(B). Capillaria hepatica;
(C). Trichuris suis;
(D). Fasciola hepatica.
Capillaria hepatica
163
Transplacental or prenatal transmission occurs in the following EXCEPT:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Strongyloides ransomi;
(C). Protostrongylus rufescens;
(D). Strongyloides westeri.
Strongyloides westeri
164
Female Physaloptera praeputialis, Spirocerca lupi, Ascarops strongylina and Metastrongylus species are appropriately described as:
(A). Larviparous,
(B). Viviparous,
(C). Oviparous;
(D). Ovoviviparous.
Oviparous
165
Heartworm is transmitted directly to the dog through bite of an infected:
(A). Mite;
(B). Mosquito;
(C). Fly;
(D). Fleas
Mosquito
166
Which is important in the transmission of the causative agent of infectious enterohepatitis: (A). Ascaridia galli;
(B). Capillaria anatis;
(C). Heterakis gallinarum;
(D). Dispharynx spiralis.
Heterakis gallinarum
167
Cutaneous larva migrans in man is mainly caused by:
(A). Ancylostoma braziliense;
(B). Oesophagostomum dentatum;
(C). Gaigeria pachyscelis;
(D). Toxacara cati
Ancylostoma braziliense
168
Males of the following nematodes have only one spicule EXCEPT:
(A). Dioctophyme renale;
(B). Trichuris vulpis;
(C). Trichinella spiralis;
(D). Oxyuris equi.
Trichinella spiralis
169
This tapeworm can cause neurocysticercosis in man:
(A). Taenia saginata;
(B). Taenia solium;
(C). Taenia serialis;
(D). Dipylidium caninum.
Taenia solium
170
The following helminths are dioecious EXCEPT: (A). Schistosoma japonicum;
(B). Ascaris suum;
(C). Fasciola gigantica;
(D). Spirocerca lupi.
Fasciola gigantica
171
Which invertebrate serve as intermediate host of the thorny-headed worm of pigs:
(A). Dung beetles;
(B). Red ants;
(C). Earthworms;
(D). Oribatid mites
Dung beetles
172
Whose eggs are spindle-shaped and resemble diatoms thus making them favorable food for crustaceans?
(A). Trematoda;
(B). Cestoda;
(C). Acanthocephala;
(D). Nematoda.
Acanthocephala
173
The following require freeliving oligochaete annelids as intermediate host EXCEPT:
(A). Hystrichis tricolor;
(B). Dioctophyme renale;
(C). Eustrongylides Papillosus;
(D). Filicolis anatis.
Filicolis anatis
174
The male of this species is degenerate and parasitic in the uterus of the female:
(A). Strongylus vulgaris;
(B). Trichosomoides crassicauda;
(C). Stephanurus dentatus;
(D). Trichuris ovis
Trichosomoides crassicauda
175
Elevated level of plasma pepsinogen in cattle is indicative of infection with:
(A). Mecistocirrus digitatus;
(B). Trichostrongylus colubrifomis;
(C). Ostertagia ostertagi;
(D). Bunostomum trigonocephalum
Ostertagia ostertagi
176
What trichostrongylid species whose egg does not hatch until infective larva (L3) has developed in the egg shell?:
(A). Mecistocirrus digitatus;
(B). Cooperia curticei;
(C). Paracooperia nodulosa;
(D). Nematodirus battus
Nematodirus battus
177
Pipe-stem liver is a condition associated with: (A). Fasciolosis hepatica only;
(B). Dicrocoeliosis only;
(C). Schistosomiasis japonica only;
(D). Both A & C
Both A & C
178
Heavy infection with this species can cause hyperplasia of the affected mucosa
giving a characteristic “morocco leather” appearance.
(A). Ostertagia ostertagi;
(B). Haemonchus contortus;
(C). Nematodirus spathiger;
(D). Agriostomm vriburgi.
Ostertagia ostertagi
179
Teeth are wanting in:
(A). Agriostomum vriburgi;
(B). Chabertia ovina;
(C). Ancylostoma caninum;
(D). Strongylus equinus
Chabertia ovina
180
Among the Trichostrngylidae, this genus is distinguishable from the rest because of the large size of its egg:
(A). Trichostronylus;
(B). Ostertagia;
(C). Nematodirus;
(D). Cooperia.
Nematodirus
181
This nematode is unusual in that no period of development is required outside the host because the first stage larva released is immediately infective:
(A). Filarioides osleri;
(B). Thelazia rhodesii;
(C). Dictyocaulus filaria;
(D). Parelaphostrongylus tenuis
Filarioides osleri
182
Which helminth infection in cats can produce spontaneous pulmonary arteriopathy with pulmonary arterial hypertrophy and hyperplasia?:
(A). Platynosomum fastosum;
(B). Aelurostrongylus abstrussus;
(C). Ollulanus tricuspis;
(D). Filaroides hirthi.
Aelurostrongylus abstrussus
183
A flattened amphistome with large ventral papillae and found in the large intestine of cattle is:
(A). Gastrodiscus aegyptiacus;
(B). Velasquezotrema brevisaccus;
(C). Gigantocotyle formosanum;
(D). Homalogaster paloniae.
Homalogaster paloniae
184
All except one has anticestode and antitrematode activity:
(A). Albendazole;
(B). Praziquantel
(C). Niclosamide
(D). Bunamidine
Bunamidine
185
An embryonated egg, which is bilaterally symmetrical, spherical or oval with 3
pairs of hooks is called:
(A). Morula;
(B). Oncosphere
(C). Acanthor
(D). Coracidium.
Oncosphere
186
Which is not a characteristic of a freshly voided taeniid egg?:
(A). Thin-shelled;
(B). Radially striated embryophore;
(C). Larvated;
(D). Spherical.
Thin-shelled
187
All but one is viviparous:
(A). Ollulanus tricuspis;
(B). Probstmayria vivipara;
(C). Dictyocaulus viviparus;
(D). Dracunculus medinensis
Dictyocaulus viviparus
188
In large animals, infection with this species can be diagnosed by rectal palpation:
(A). Parascaris equorum;
(B). Oesophagostomum columbianum;
(C). Strongylus vulgaris;
(D). Oxyuris equi.
Strongylus vulgaris
189
Generally in Trichostrongylids, the order of susceptibility from least to most to
adverse conditions is:
(A). 3rd larval stage, embryonated egg, unembryonated egg, 1st larval stage and 2nd larval stage;
(B). 1st larval stage, 2nd larval stage, 3rd larval stage, embryonate egg and unembryonated egg;
(C). Embryonated egg, 3rd larval stage, 2nd larval stage, 1st larval stage and unembryonated egg;
(D). 2nd larval stage, embryonated egg, 3rd larval stage, unembryoanted egg and 1st larval stage.
3rd larval stage, embryonated egg, unembryonated egg, 1st larval stage and 2nd larval stage
190
Male and female of these helminths are permanently in copula EXCEPT:
(A). Cyathostoma bronchialis;
(B). Schistosoma japonicum;
(C). Mammomonoganus laryngeus;
(D). Syngamus trachea.
Cyathostoma bronchialis
191
This parasite occurs in the circulatory system of cyprinid fishes:
(A). Stephanostomum baccatum;
(B). Crepidostomum spp.;
(C). Sanguinicola inermis;
(D). Diplostomum spp.
Sanguinicola inermis
192
The following are tapeworms affecting fishes EXCEPT:
(A). Avetillina;
(B). Caryophyllaeus;
(C). Trianophorus,
(D). Khawia
Avetillina
193
From the time of infection to the time eggs or larvae appear in the feces/blood of the host is referred to as.
(A). Incubation period;
(B). Patent period;
(C). Log period;
(D). Prepatent period
Prepatent period
194
Lemnisci and uterine bells are present in:
(A). Pentatstomids;
(B). Nematodes;
(C). Acanthocephalans;
(D). Mallophagans
Acanthocephalans
195
An organism with both the male and female reproductive organ in one individual is termed as:
(A). Monoecious;
(B). Parthenogenetic;
(C). Dioecious;
(D). Monogamous.
Monoecious
196
The main cause of creeping eruption is man is: (A). Ancylostoma ceylanicum;
(B). Ancylostoma braziliense;
(C). Necator americanus;
(D). Ancylostoma duodenale.
Ancylostoma braziliense
197
Adult tapeworms can be found the in following EXCEPT:
(A). Pigs;
(B). Cats;
(C). Dogs;
(D). Sheep.
Pigs
198
Auto infection is a characteristic feature of these parasites EXCEPT:
(A). Hymenolepis (Vampirolepis) nana;
(B). Capillaria philippinensis;
(C). Hymenolepis diminuta;
(D). Strongyloides stercoralis
Hymenolepis diminuta
199
The following are transmitted via both the transplacental and transcolostral or
mammary routes EXCEPT:
(A). Ancylostoma caninum;
(B). Toxacara canis;
(C). Toxocara vitulorum;
(D). Toxocara cati.
Toxocara cati
200
Freshwater fish is the intermediate hosts of: (A). Ollulanus tricuspis;
(B).
Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Spirocerca lupi;
(D). Physaloptera canis.
Gnathostoma spinigerum
