Hem/Onc Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

Normal pediatrics CBC levels vary based on ____ and _____

A

Age
Gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hgb starts ___ at birth, and _____ ending at about _____ by 18 years.

A

High (16.5)
Downtrends
14-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Reticulocytosis can elevate and MCV. If you have an elevated MCV without a high retic - could indicate a primary bone marrow disorder.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

thalassemias have a ____ RDW which means the RBCs are standard size.

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

IDA will have a _____ RDW. Why?

A

High.
Much variation in the sizes of the cells, because there’s not a dependable source of iron for their creation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are reticulocytes?

A

Youngest RBCs in circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If you have anemia with HIGH reticulocyte count, then the bone marrow response is ______
Anemia with low retic - ____ bone marrow response/

A

Good
Poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What could cause a poor bone marrow response (low reticulocyte count)?

A

Marrow aphasia
Infiltration with malignant cells
Depression from infection
Nutritional deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most reliable morphology indicator of the classification of anemia?
Most reliable physiologic indicator?

A

MCV (big, small or normal)
Reticulocyte count - what is the source of the anemia?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Decreased RBC production would have a ____ retic
Increased blood loss (hemorrhage) or increased destruction (hemolytic anemia) would have a ____ retic

A

Low
High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

4 labs to draw in a basic anemia workup (and 1 secondary test)

A

CBC w/ Diff with smear
Reticulocyte count
Total/direct bili (asses for hemolysis)
DAT (assess for autoimmune hemolysis)

Secondary: iron panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If you have a negative DAT, it could indicate a physiologic process (SCD, G6PD). If you have a positive DAT, it could indicate ______

A

Hemolysis related to autoimmune/immune mediated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Differentials for macrocytic anemia

A

Folic acid or B12 deficiency
Malabsorption
Surgical resection (of bowel)
Primary bone marrow disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Differential for normocytic anemia

A

Aplastic anemia (anemia secondary to bone marrow infiltration)
Anemia secondary to Hypothyroidism, renal disease or chronic illness
Transient erythroblastopenia of childhood (TEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Differential microcytic anemia

A

IDA, thalassemias, sideroblastic anemia (mitochondrial disorder or lead/isoniazid Tox)
Anemia of chronic disease
Hgb E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how will the CBC differ between IDA and thalassemia?

A

IDA has an increased RDW and a low reticulocyte count
Thalassemia has a low RDW and normal reticulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why might you not want to measure ferritin during an acute illness?

A

It’s an acute phase reactor, so it will be falsely high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the overall best screen for total body iron on the iron panel?

A

Ferritin - fluctuates the least over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MVC in kids should be _____ + age.

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you prescribe iron?
Dose?

A

With vit C - either OJ or gummies.
NOT with milk - this will prevent absorption.
4-6mg/kg
You absorb about 3mg/kg so if you’re on the upper end of 6, split BID doseing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Thalassemia is a ______ hbg disorder and SCD is a ______ Hgb disorder.

A

Quantitative
Qualitative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Beta thalassemia is most prevalent in ______ and alpha is most in _____

A

Mediterranean
Southeast Asian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When do children with major thalassemias start to show s/s?

A

6-12mo when cross over in Hgb happens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

High reticulocyte count in G6PD

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Class III is the most common class of G6PD
26
Meds than can trigger hemolysis in G6PD
Aspirin in high doses, Macrobid, Antimalarial, primaquine, nitrate, sulfonamides, quinine.
27
ITP most often happens ______
After a viral infection
28
If patient with ITP has platelet count <10, need treatment. Treatment?
IVIG, Oral prednisone, IV anti-D (WinRho)
29
Abnormal aPTT
Factor VIII (vWD) IX, XI, heparin
30
Abnormal PT
Factor VII Coumadin Occ liver disease Occ DIC rVIIa effect
31
Abnormal PT and aPTT
Common pathway factors (II, V, X) Fibrinogen Liver disease vit K deficient Coumadin DIC
32
Doing a mixing study. if an inhibitor is present (such as lupus anticoagulant), then the result after the mix will be the same (long) as it was before the mix. If a factor deficiency is present, then the result will be normal after the mix.
33
How are Ehler-Danilo’s and clotting related?
ED is a lack of collagen. Exposed collagen is what starts the clotting cascade. If it’s not there, then there might not be a clot.
34
Hemophilia A is factor ____ deficiency Hemophilia B is _____ deficiency
VIII eight (Ay -> Ayte) IX nine
35
VWD has a ______ bleeding pattern whereas hemophilias tend to have a _____ bleeding pattern.
Mucosal (nose, oral, gums, easy bruising) Soft tissue (welts large hematomas))
36
Most common type of vWD - type 1 - a quantitative deficiency of vWF.
37
SCD - clinically presents with anemia (normochromic, normocytic), high retic, high neutrophilia, high throbocytosis.
38
Children with SCD get prophylactic _____ until age ____ and only after they’ve had all vaccines and have not had any significant infections.
Penicillin 5
39
Other meds for SCD?
Folic acid supplementation Hydroxyurea (start at 9mo)
40
What should the PCM do with a SCD (newborn screen)?
Start penicillin therapy (VK 125mg bid) and refer to heme.
41
SCDpateints get a CXR every other year, a EKG/Echo every 1-2 years, PFTs every 1-2 years, eye exams every 1-2 years and an MRI/MRA and RUQUS prn
42
Patients with sickle cell trait are more at risk for: 30 fold increase in risk of sudden death in black army recruits with SCT.
Heat stroke, heat exhaustion and rhabdo. VTE Renal medullary carcinoma ESRD Hematuria Impaired urinary concentration.
43
Parents of a child with SCD or sickle cell trait are concerned that their child is going to the bathroom more than their peers. This is?
Normal. They don’t have as much ability to concentrate urine so they go more frequently.
44
Most common cancer in children <15 is leukemia (ALL)
45
Compared with adults, child cancer treatment often lacks _____
Radiation. Chemo alone is more common.
46
Neutropenic precautions are initiated for ANC <1000. <500 is an automatic ______
Admission with broad spectrum IV abx (Ceftriaxone).
47
What are the most common infectious pathogens in neutropenic cancer patients?
Those that come from elsewhere on the child’s body: Staph epideritis and aureus (MRSA), E. coli, enterococcus, Psuedomonas , fungus (aspergillosis, candida)
48
Varicella, PJP, HSV can be serious in immunocompromised kids.
49
Administration of neurogenic or neulasta for neutropenia _______ duration but does not _____
Shortens duration Eliminate it.
50
At what point with weight loss would you get a nutritionist involved? How about appetite stimulant? TPN is last resort.
>5% = nutritionist, increase calories, PO supplements, antiemetics >10% = appetite stimulants, supplemental feeds (NG or Gtube).
51
Enlarged ______ and ______ are always abnormal.
Epitrochlear and supraclavicular
52
Warning signs with enlarged lymph nodes:
Firm,/hard,rubbery, non mobile ,non tender.
53
Mediastinal masses could present with the following s/s:
Cough, dyspnea, orthopnea, strior, SVC syndrome (SOB on lying down)
54
Concerning symptoms in pediatric headaches:
AM headache wakes them from sleep Incapacitating, vomiting, changing pattern of HA Abnormal Neuro exam Vision loss/change Head tilt Ataxia (gait/coordination abnormality) <3yo. Think brain tumor.
55
At what point is the WBC high enough that it’s almost always leukemia?
>100,000
56
What is the pathophys of tumor lysis syndrome and what 3 electrolyte abnormalities will result?
When the malignant cells of the tumor are lysed with chemo/radiation, their intracellular contents spill out: Hyperuricemia -> renal failure Hyperkalemia -> arrhythmias Hyperphosphatemia -> hypocalcemia
57
Tx for ALL leukemia AML leukemia
Chemo Chemo and stem cell transplant
58
If ALL is diagnosed between age 1 and 10 with WBC < 50,000, then prognosis is better.
59
Back pain in a child - never normal! Do not miss. Could be a sign of cancer. Get MRI.
60
How does a Wilms tumor usually present?
Asymptomatic abdominal mass in flank in well appearing child.
61
Biggest difference in presentation between wilms tumor and Neuroblastoma tumor?
Wilms - asymptomatic, healthy happy kid Nueroblastoma? Sick kid.
62
Most common presentation of rhabdomyosarcoma?
(Soft tissue malignancy that can involve ANY skeletal muscle including eye muscles) Painless, enlarging mass, symptoms related to mass, head, neck, orbit, extremities, GU, trunk.
63
Osteosarcoma is resistant to radiation. Distal has better prognosis as well as stage.