Hematology Flashcards by snow riego

Which of the following poikilocyte demonstrates mouth-like appearance?

a. Codocytes
b. Elliptocytes
c. Blister cells
d. Stomatocytes

d. Stomatocytes

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The description of poikilocytosis is:

a. Variation in erythrocyte size
b. Larger than normal
c. Smaller than normal
d. Variation in erythrocyte shape

d. Variation in erythrocyte shape

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Bite cells:

a. PK deficiency
b. G6PD deficiency
c. PK and G6PD deficiency
d. None of the above

b. G6PD deficiency

RBC Inclusion: Heinz Bodies

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How long does S phase take to complete its cycle?

a. 10
b. 8
c. 4
d. 1
e. Indefinite

b. 8

G1 ➡ 10hrs
S ➡ 8hrs
G2 ➡ 4hrs
Mitosis ➡ 1hr

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Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria exhibits sensitivity of one population of red blood cells to:

a. Warm antibodies
b. Cold antibodies
c. Complement
d. Either A or

c. Complement

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Popular test to detect PNH

a. immunoassay
b. ELISA
c. Photometry
d. Flow cytometry

d. Flow cytometry

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Contains DNA or nuclear fragments:

a. Basophilic stippling
b. Howell-Jolly body
c. Heinz body
d. Pappenheimer bodies

b. Howell-Jolly body

Precipitated RNA [Lead Poisoning] ➡ Basophilic stippling
Fuelgen reaction (+) ➡ Howell-Jolly body
Denatured Hgb ➡ Heinz body
Contains iron ➡ Pappenheimer bodies

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Human hematopoietic stem cells express:

a. CD3
b. CD10
c. CD34
d. CD56

c. CD34

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The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is _____ µm

a. 5.2
b. 6.4
c. 7.2
d. 8.4

c. 7.2

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In VCS technology for hematology analyzers, what does C stand for?

a. Conductivity
b. Current
c. Connectivity
d. Coulter

A. Conductivity

V ➡ Volume
C ➡ Conductivity
S ➡ Scatter technology

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Increased amounts of 2,3-BPG ____ the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin molecule.

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not alter
d. None of the above

b. Decreases

By: Rapoport-Leubering Pathway

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The stages of neutrophilic granulocyte development are

a. promyelocyte, myeloblast, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils
b. myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils
c. myelocyte, myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils
d. myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, myelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils

b. myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and band and segmented neutrophils

Pro ➡ before
3rd stage ➡ MYELOCYTE
Meta ➡ after

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The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML?

a. At least 30%
b. At least 20%
c. At least 10%
d. Any percentage

b. At least 20%

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The FAB classification requires what percentage for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML?

a. At least 30%
b. At least 20%
c. At least 10%
d. Any percentage

a. At least 30%

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Which of the following demonstrates the
SMALLEST platelet seen?

a. May Hegglin
b. Bernard Soulier
c. Alport syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich

d. Wiskott-Aldrich

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What influence does the Philadelphia (Ph1) chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with CML?

a. It is not predictive
b The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present
c. The prognosis is worse if Ph1 is present
d. The disease usually transforms into AML when Ph1 is present

b The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present

Ph1 = translocation of: 9, 22 = CML

CML
(+) Ph1 = Good prognosis
(-) Ph1 = Poor prognosis

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Which of the following demonstrates the LARGEST platelets seen and is also referred to as giant platelet syndrome?

a. May Hegglin
b. Bernard Soulier
c. Alport syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich

b. Bernard Soulier

B = Bigger

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Promyelocytes predominate in the bone marrow:

a. M1
b. M2
c. M3
d. M4

c. M3

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Fletcher factor:

a. Prekallikrein
b. HMWK
c. Factor XI
d. Factor XII

a. Prekallikrein

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Fitzgerald factor:

a. Prekallikrein
b. HMWK
c. Factor XI
d. Factor XII

b. HMWK

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Cells have distinctive nuclear lobulation and have been termed “flower cells”

a. Acute myelogenous leukemia
b. Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma
c. Hairy cell leukemia
d. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

b. Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma

Caused by: HTLV-1 virus

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Using white blood cell as the reference, what is the effect of leukocytosis in the ESR?

a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Variable
d. None of the above

b. Decreased

↑ Leukemia
↓ Leukocytosis

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Anticoagulant to avoid platelet satellitism:

a. EDTA
b. Oxalate
c. Citrate
d. Heparin

c. Citrate

Platelet satellitism: “EDTA-induced thrombocytopenia”

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Increased ESR:

a. Acanthocytosis
b. Anemia
c. Microcytosis
d. Polycythemia

b. Anemia

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Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets? a. Liver b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Bone marrow

c. Spleen 1/3 of PLT = Spleen 2/3 of PLT = Circulation

What are the INITIAL laboratory tests that are performed for the diagnosis of anemia? a. CBC, iron studies, and reticulocyte count b. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood film examination c. Reticulocyte count and serum iron, vitamin B12, and folate assays d. Bone marrow study, iron studies, and peripheral blood film examination

b. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood film examination

Single factor deficiency with normal PT, PTT, and TCT: a. I b. XI c. XIII d. II

c. XIII Because Factor XIII cannot be detected need to do: 1. DUCKERT'S TEST 2. UREA SOLUBILITY TEST

The deficient factor is factor VIII. What would be the result for PT, PTT, and TCT, respectively, using clot-based screening assays? a. Normal, prolonged, normal b. Prolonged, prolonged, prolonged c. Prolonged, normal, normal d. Prolonged, normal, prolonged

a. Normal, prolonged, normal

Fibrinogen level in patients with hemophilia A, B and C? a. Decreased, normal, decreased b. Normal, normal, normal c. Decreased, decreased, decreased d. Normal, decreased, decreased

b. Normal, normal, normal

If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic examination of Wright stained preparation, possible causes include that: a. The staining time was too long b. The stain was too basic c. The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short d. The buffer was too basic and the exposure time was too long

c. The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short

The abbreviation LASER stands for: a. light-associated simulated emission of radiation b. largely amplified by simulated emission of radiation c. light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation d. liquid amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

c. light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the _____ of the normal distribution curve. a. Right b. Left c. In the middle d. Bimodal

a. Right Left = small RBC (L = Liit)

The abnormal protein frequently found in the urine of persons with multiple myeloma is: a. Albumin b. Globulin c. IgG d. Bence Jones

d. Bence Jones

In Gaucher disease, as the result of β-glucocerebrosidase deficiency, what accumulates in (macrophages) histiocytes? a. Glucocerebroside and sphingomyelin b. Glucocerebroside c. Sphingomyelin d. None of the above

b. Glucocerebroside

Cells that produces antibodies and lymphokines: a. Erythrocytes b. Granulocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes

c. Lymphocytes

The anticoagulant in capillary tubes for hematocrit measurement is: a. EDTA b. Heparin c. Citrate d. Potassium oxalate

b. Heparin

In the hematocrit determination procedure, one should seal the capillary tubes at the: a. End of the tube without the colored ring b. End of the tube with the colored ring c. Either a or b d. Neither a nor b

b. End of the tube with the colored ring

The microhematocrit tube can hold: a. 0.05 L of blood b. 0.05 mL of blood c. 5.0 L of blood d. 0.5 mL of blood

b. 0.05 mL of blood

The approximate length of the microhematocrit tube is: a. 75 mm. b. 75 cm. c. 75 meters d. 7.5 meters

a. 75 mm.

What is the advantage of using sodium lauryl sulfate in hemoglobinometry? a. The method does not produce toxic wastes. b. This method avoids interference from turbidity. c. This method can be performed using counting chambers. d. One can perform RBC counts simultaneously with this method.

a. The method does not produce toxic wastes.

All of the following are true of the cyanmethemoglobin method, except: a. It is the most widely used method for hemoglobin measurement. b. Turbidity in the sample will produce erroneous results. c. Cyanmethemoglobin is measured at 340 nm. d. The reagent in this method is called the Drabkin’s reagent.

c. Cyanmethemoglobin is measured at 340 nm. It should be at 540nm.

A very high thrombocyte count can have what effect in the hemoglobin determination? a. Falsely low result b. Falsely high result c. No effect

b. Falsely high result

The sample used for hemoglobin determination is: a. Whole blood without any additive b. Citrate-anticoagulated whole blood c. EDTA-anticoagulated whole blood d. Plasma

c. EDTA-anticoagulated whole blood

Which of the following is a component of the reagent used in the cyanmethemoglobin method? a. Potassium cyanide b. Potassium ferricyanide c. Both A and B d. None of these

c. Both A and B

Which of the following will cause falsely increased values of hemoglobin? a. A heavy, fatty meal b. Patients with Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia c. Patients whose RBCs contain Hb S d. All of these

d. All of these

The reference range for the hematocrit of adult males is: a. 53 to 65% b. 40 to 54% c. 35 to 49% d. Any of these

b. 40 to 54% 0.40 - 0.54 L/L

In a properly stained blood smear, what WBC has a cytoplasm with a Robin egg blue color? a. Lymphocytes b. Monocytes c. Neutrophils d. Basophil

a. Lymphocytes

If a patient’s mean cell volume result is elevated, the expected size of the erythrocytes in his blood is: a. Smaller than normal b. Larger than normal c. Normal

b. Larger than normal

Using the following data, compute for the MCV of the patient. Hb = 6 g/dL Hct = 25% RBC count = 3.5 X 10 (raised to the twelfth power)/L a. 71.43 pg b. 17.14 pg c. 71.43 fL d. 7.143 fL

c. 71.43 fL

Statement 1: Cyanmethemoglobin reagent is sensitive to light. Statement 2: Newborn children have normally higher hematocrit values than adult males. a. Both statements are true. b. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. c. Both statements are false. d. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.

a. Both statements are true.

Which of the following laboratory tests is not done using the EDTA anticoagulant? 1. ESR 2. Mean platelet volume 3. Mean cell volume 4. Prothrombin time a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 4 c. 1 and 3 d. 4 only

d. 4 only

After placing the blood specimen in a lavender top tube, the tube: a. Should be inverted for 8 times b. Should not be inverted at all c. Should be inverted for 5 times d. Should be inverted for 18 times

a. Should be inverted for 8 times

Too much EDTA in a blood specimen may cause: 1. Falsely elevated MCHC 2. Falsely elevated hematocrit 3. Degenerative changes in the leukocytes 4. Falsely elevated ESR a. 1,2,3 b. 1,3 c. 2,4 d. 4 only

b. 1,3

Compute for the MCV given the following data: RBC count = 4.53 X 10(raised to the twelfth power)/ L Hct = 32% Hb = 8.7 g/dL a. 706.40 fL b. 70.64 pg c. 19.21 fL d. 70.64 fL

d. 70.64 fL

Statement 1: A normal, mature erythrocyte is eosinophilic in color after staining with the Wright’s stain. Statement 2: Metarubricytes are nucleated cells. a. Both statements are correct. b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

a. Both statements are correct.

The phlebotomist overfilled the blood collection tube. This error will result in: a. Clot formation in the specimen b. A decrease in the hematocrit value c. A decrease in the ESR value d. No effect at all

a. Clot formation in the specimen

Statement 1: It takes about 35 to 42 days for the BFU-E to mature to a red blood cell. Statement 2: The primary cell source of EPO is found in the bone marrow. a. Both statements are correct. b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

c. Both statements are incorrect.

Statement 1: The last erythroid precursor is the mature red blood cell. Statement 2: EPO is a thermostable, glycoprotein hormone. a. Both statements are correct. b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1: The pronormoblast is otherwise called as early normoblast. Statement 2: The polychromatophilic normoblast is otherwise called as polychromatophilic erythrocyte. a. Both statements are correct. b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

c. Both statements are incorrect.

The earliest marker of erythroid differentiation is: a. CD 71 b. CD 56 c. CD8 d. CD34

a. CD 71 CD56 = Natural Killer Cell CD8 = Cytotoxic T cell CD34 = Hematopoietic Stem Cells

Lead poisoning may otherwise be called as: a. Angular cheilosis b. Plumbism c. Bronze diabetes d. Cooley’s anemia

b. Plumbism

All of the following are true for EPO, except: a. It is the chief stimulatory cytokine for RBCs. b. Normally, it is released from the kidney into the blood in response to hypoxia. c. It is a thermostable, nondialyzable, glycoprotein hormone. d. None of these

d. None of these

The enveloped extruded nucleus from the pyknotic erythroblast is called: a. Pyrenocyte b. Heinz body c. Hb H body d. Basophilic stippling

a. Pyrenocyte

From the choices below, identify which one has no nucleus. a. Basophilic normoblast b. Orthochromatic normoblast c. Polychromatophilic normoblast d. None of these

d. None of these

The polychromatic normoblast has this N:C ratio: a. 1:1 b. 2:1 c. 4:1 d. 10:1

a. 1:1

The pronormoblast has this N:C ratio: a. 1:2 b. 8:1 c. 4:1 d. 6:1

c. 4:1

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a normal RDW? a. Anemia of chronic inflammation b. Liver disease c. G6PD deficiency d. All of these

d. All of these

The natural death of the red cells can result in shape change. Which of the following is the expected shape of a dying erythrocyte? a. Ball-shaped b. Cigar-shaped c. Pear-shaped d. Sickle-shaped

a. Ball-shaped

Statement 1: The normal size of a mature RBC is 6 to 8 µm. Statement 2: The normal thickness of a mature RBC is 3.5 to 5.5 μm. a. Both statements are correct. b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

In which of the following cases will one possibly observe dacryocytes? a. Megaloblastic anemia b. Tuberculosis c. Thalassemia d. All of these

d. All of these

The two parameters that are calculated from the RBC histogram are the: a. RDW and MCH b. RDW and MCV c. HCT and MCV d. HCT and MCH

b. RDW and MCV

The name given to a reticulocyte if it is seen in a Wright-stained smear is: a. Polychromatic normoblast b. Diffusely basophilic erythrocyte c. Polychromatic erythroblast d. Pronormoblast

b. Diffusely basophilic erythrocyte

The reference range for the mean cell volume is: a. 80 to 100 fL b. 26 to 32 pg c. 31 to 37 g/dL d. 35 to 38 g/dL

a. 80 to 100 fL

The RBC histogram demonstrates a shift to the left. The patient’s blood film will most likely show: a. Normocytic RBCs b. Microcytic RBCs c. Macrocytic RBCs d. None of these

b. Microcytic RBCs

One can evaluate the size of the red cells in a peripheral blood film by comparing their size to: a. A whole lymphocyte b. The nucleus of a small lymphocyte c. A whole neutrophil d. A clump of platelets

b. The nucleus of a small lymphocyte

Which of the following hemoglobin is made of a pair of alpha globin chains and a pair of gamma globin chains? a. Hb F b. Hb A2 c. Hb A1 d. None of these

a. Hb F

The expected MCH value in Hereditary Spherocytosis is: a. Normal to low b. Normal c. Slightly increased d. Slightly decreased

b. Normal

Cabot rings are made of: a. Nuclear chromatin remnants b. Iron c. Denatured hemoglobin d. Mitotic spindle remnants

d. Mitotic spindle remnants

The total population of erythrocytes in the circulation is called: a. Erythrokinetics b. Erythron c. RBC mass d. RBC precursors

c. RBC mass

Hemoglobin H disease is an example of: a. Alpha thalassemia b. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia c. Beta thalassemia d. None of these

a. Alpha thalassemia

Identify from the list below the examples of unstable hemoglobin variants. 1.) Hb Genova 3.) Hb Bristol 2.) Hb Gun Hill 4.) Hb A2 a. 1,2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 3 and 4 d. 1,2,3, and 4

a. 1,2, and 3

In their red cells, patients with pyrimidine-5’-nucleotidase deficiency are expected to demonstrate: a. Siderotic granules b. Heinz bodies c. Punctate basophilia d. None of these

c. Punctate basophilia

All of the following are causes of falsely high leukocyte count, except: a. Smudge cells b. Nucleated RBCs c. Platelet clumps d. Cryoglobulins

a. Smudge cells

All of the following are causes of falsely high platelet count, except: a. Microorganisms b. Fragmented RBCs c. Platelet clumps d. Cryoglobulins

c. Platelet clumps

The critical value for the prothrombin time is: a. Greater than 100 seconds b. Greater than 40 seconds c. Greater than 90 seconds d. Greater than 60 seconds

b. Greater than 40 seconds

Compute for the MCH given the following data: *RBC count = 5.7 X 1012/L *Hct = 0. 52 L/L *Hb = 17.5 g/dL a. 30.70 fL b. 30.71 pg c. 30.70 pg d. 307.02 pg

c. 30.70 pg

Compute for the MCHC given the following data: *RBC count = 5.7 X 1012/L *Hct = 0. 52 L/L *Hb = 17.5 g/dL a. 30.70 g/dL b. 3,365.38 g/dL c. 29.71 g/dL d. 33.65 %

d. 33.65 %

Compute for the MCV given the following data: *RBC count = 5.7 X 1012/L *Hct = 0. 52 L/L *Hb = 17.5 g/dL a. 91.23 fL b. 91.23 pg c. 10.96 fL d. 92.23 fL

a. 91.23 fL

The nucleus of this cell is described to have a “tortoise shell” appearance: a. Plasma cell b. Monocyte c. Macrophage d. Faggot cell

a. Plasma cell

Statement 1: The secretory granules, present in some leukocytes, are also called tertiary granules. Statement 2: The nucleus of the stab cell is described as sausage-shaped. a. Both statements are correct. b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1: The lymphocyte is considered as a mononuclear. Statement 2: The basophil is considered as a polymorphonuclear. a. Both statements are correct. b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

a. Both statements are correct.

Calculate the percentage difference between these two numbers: 208 and 200. a. 39.2% b. 4.21% c. 3.92% d. 8.2%

c. 3.92%

While doing a 100-cell leukocyte differential count, the medical technologist was able to encounter 12 nucleated red cells. The patient’s blood sample showed that the WBC count is 21,167/uL. What is this patient’s final WBC count? a. 18,899/uL b. 19,000/uL c. 18,900/uL d. 19,100/uL

c. 18,900/uL

While doing a 100-cell leukocyte differential count, the medical technologist was able to encounter 4 nucleated red cells. The patient’s blood sample showed that the WBC count is 12,761/uL. What is this patient’s final WBC count? a. 12,270/uL b. 12,300/uL c. 12,800/uL d. 12,761/uL

d. 12,761/uL

While doing a 100-cell leukocyte differential count, the medical technologist was able to encounter 18 nucleated red cells. The patient’s blood sample showed that the WBC count is 23,001/uL. What is this patient’s final WBC count? a. 19,500.37/uL b. 19,492.37/uL c. 19,500/uL d. 20,000/uL

c. 19,500/uL

The predominant type of lymphocyte in the circulation of a normal adult is the lymphocyte that measures: a. 6 to 9 um b. 11 to 25 um c. 40 to 50 um d. 4 to 6 um

a. 6 to 9 um

The usual number of nuclear lobes of a fully mature neutrophil: a. 6-10 b. 3-5 c. 15-20 d. 0-1

b. 3-5

In a properly stained blood smear, what WBC has a cytoplasm with a Robin egg blue color? a. Lymphocytes b. Monocytes c. Neutrophils d. Basophil

a. Lymphocytes

The first stage of nuclear indentation among the granulocytic precursors is: a. Juvenile cell b. Band cell c. Myeloblast d. Promyelocyte

a. Juvenile cell

The most abundant cell type in the body is: a. RBCs b. Skin cells c. Macrophage d. Megakaryocyte

c. Macrophage

Which of the following is considered as a function of a macrophage? a. Production of transcobalamin I b. Phagocytosis c. Production of NETs d. All of these

b. Phagocytosis

From the choices below, identify which one is a macrophage. a. Type A cells b. Russell bodies c. Downey cell d. Thesaurocyte

a. Type A cells Macrophage of the Synovial Fluid/ Linings

Nitric oxide, produced by macrophages, is cytotoxic against: 1. Tumor cells 3. Fungi 5. Helminths 2. Bacteria 4. Protozoa 6. Viruses a. 1 and 4 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 4, 5, and 6 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

All of the following statements refer to the characteristics of a plasma cell, except: a. It has a deep blue and nongranular cytoplasm b. The nucleus contains blocks of chromatin in a cartwheel configuration c. It has an eccentric nucleus d. The voluminous cytoplasm contains vacuoles

d. The voluminous cytoplasm contains vacuoles

Statement 1: The basophil is considered as a phagocyte. Statement 2: The eosinophil is considered as a phagocyte. a. Both statements are correct. b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

a. Both statements are correct.

Statement 1: The cytoplasm of the myeloblast is filled with primary granules. Statement 2: The “hof” is usually seen in normal promyelocytes. a. Both statements are correct. b. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. c. Both statements are incorrect. d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following cells will normally be found in a blood film of a healthy adult individual? 1. Mature neutrophils 2. Stab cells 3. Promyelocytes 4. Myeloblast a. 1 and 2 b. 3 and 4 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1 only

a. 1 and 2

In cases of agranulocytosis, the expected neutrophil count is: a. Less than 0.5 x 109/L b. Less than 1.5 x x 109/L c. More than 15 x x 109/L d. More than 45 x x 109/L

a. Less than 0.5 x 109/L

The color of the cytoplasm of the plasma cell may be described as: a. Sea blue b. Dark red c. Pale pink d. Dark green

a. Sea blue

The appearance of the nucleus of a stab cell is described as: a. Sausage-shaped with pointed ends b. Butterfly-like c. Sausage-shaped with rounded ends d. Peanut-shaped

c. Sausage-shaped with rounded ends

The azurophilic granules may also be called as: a. Specific granules b. Tertiary granules c. Gelatinase granules d. Nonspecific granules

d. Nonspecific granules

From the list below, choose the one that has the largest possible size. a. Plasma cell b. Neutrophil c. Lymphocyte d. Macrophage

d. Macrophage

What do Russell bodies contain? 1. Auer rods 2. Azurophilic granules 3. Antibodies 4. Gelatinase granules 5. Myeloperoxidase stain a. 3 only b. 1,3, and 5 c. 2 and 4 d. 1 and 3

a. 3 only

A 40-year-old man submitted a blood specimen for analysis. Which of the possible results below would indicate an abnormality in this patient? a. A result showing more lymphocytes than neutrophils. b. A result showing that he has red blood cells in his blood specimen. c. A result showing more neutrophils than lymphocytes. d. A result showing that he has monocytes in his blood specimen.

a. A result showing more lymphocytes than neutrophils.

Which of the following leukocyte precursors can still undergo mitosis? a. Myeloblast b. Promyelocyte c. Myelocyte d. All of these

d. All of these

Which of the following types of myeloblasts is rare in normal marrows, but can be seen in certain types of acute myeloid leukemias? a. Type I myeloblast b. Type II myeloblast c. Type III myeloblasts d. None of these

c. Type III myeloblasts

The predominant leukocyte in children four years old and below is the: a. Lymphocyte b. Neutrophil c. Monocyte d. Eosinophil

a. Lymphocyte

Which of these cells has a nucleus that looks like a peanut? a. Promyelocyte b. Myelocyte c. Metamyelocyte d. Band cell

c. Metamyelocyte

The tertiary granules of the neutrophils are also called as: a. Gelatinase granules b. Azurophilic granules c. Secretory vesicles d. Specific granules

a. Gelatinase granules

The following are examples of conditions demonstrating ineffective erythropoiesis, except: a. Folate deficiency b. Thalassemia c. Renal disease d. Sideroblastic anemia

c. Renal disease

Select from the choices below the one that does not appropriately describe aplastic anemia. a. It is a potentially lethal bone marrow failure syndrome. b. The bone marrow of aplastic anemia patients demonstrates hypercellularity. c. Patients with aplastic anemia exhibit decreased reticulocyte count. d. Some of the cases of aplastic anemia have no known cause.

b. The bone marrow of aplastic anemia patients demonstrates hypercellularity.

In the Solubility Test for detecting Hb S, the one that causes the lysis of erythrocytes in the sample is: a. Sodium dithionite b. Sodium metabisulfite c. Potassium cyanide d. Saponin

d. Saponin

Which one of the following choices arranged the granulocytic precursors correctly from the youngest to the most mature? a.Myeloblast..Promyelocyte..Myelocyte..Metamyelocyte..Band cell b.Myeloblast..Promyelocyte..Metamyelocyte..Myelocyte..Band cell c.Promyelocyte..Myeloblast..Myelocyte..Metamyelocyte..Band cell d.Myeloblast..Myelocyte..Metamyelocyte..Band cell..Promyelocyte

a.Myeloblast..Promyelocyte..Myelocyte..Metamyelocyte..Band cell

In normally oxygenated states, red blood cells with the Hemoglobin S disorder resemble: a. Crescent-shaped moon b. A perfectly round ball c. Washington monument d. A donut without a hole in the middle

d. A donut without a hole in the middle

The youngest granulocytic precursor to normally appear in the peripheral blood is the: a. Band cell b. Metamyelocyte c. Myelocyte d. Promyelocyte

a. Band cell

Which of the following precursors below is considered as the largest in the group? a. Myeloblast b. Myelocyte c. Metamyelocyte d. Promyelocyte

d. Promyelocyte

The positive result in the sodium dithionite tube test is: a. Turbid solution b. Clear solution c. Sickle cells d. “Holly leaf” cells

a. Turbid solution

Tests for the Marchiafava-Micheli Syndrome include all of these, except: a. Chemiluminescence b. Flow cytometry c. Ham’s acidified serum test d. Sucrose hemolysis test

a. Chemiluminescence

Hookworm infections may lead to: a. Macrocytic, normochromic anemia b. Normocytic, normochromic anemia c. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia d. None of these

c. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia

In Stage 1 of iron deficiency, which of the following tests will show a decreased result? 1. Hemoglobin 2. TIBC 3. Serum iron 4. Serum Ferritin a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 1 and 3 d. 4 only

d. 4 only

Which of the following foods below will provide folate? 1. Leafy green vegetables 2. Dried beans 3. Oranges 4. Gelatinase granules 5. Beef a. 1, 2, and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Which of the following cells is normally found in the bone marrow? 1. Early myelocyte 2. Late myelocyte 3. Juvenile cell 4. Stab cell 5. Mature neutrophil a. 1, 2, 3, and 4 b. 1, 3, and 4 c. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Which of the following is a possible cause of IDA? 1. Adolescence 2. Menstruation 3. Pregnancy a. 2 and 3 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2 only d. 3 only

b. 1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements is true regarding megaloblastic anemia? 1. It can be considered a case of hemolytic anemia. 2. It can be considered a case of nutritional anemia. 3. It is expected to show hypersegmented neutrophils in the blood films of affected patients. 4. It may be caused by an autoimmune disease. a. 2, 3, and 4 b. 3 and 4 c. 1, 2, 3, and 4 d. 3 only

c. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A 50-year-old woman submitted a blood specimen for analysis. Her hemoglobin, RBC count and hematocrit values were reported as follows: *Hemoglobin: 11.50 g/dL *RBC count: 3.74 (x 1012/L) *Hematocrit: 34% Which one of the following results of red cell indices most likely belongs to this patient? a. MCV: 72 fL, MCH: 23 pg, MCHC: 28 g/dL b. MCV: 119 fL, MCH: 36.7 pg, MCHC: 36.2 g/dL c. MCV: 91 fL, MCH: 30.7 pg, MCHC = 33.8 g/dL d. Any of the above

c. MCV: 91 fL, MCH: 30.7 pg, MCHC = 33.8 g/dL

Which of the following may be used to detect deficiencies in fibrinogen, prothrombin, and factors V and X? a. Russel’s Viper Venom Time b. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. Prothrombin time d. All of these

d. All of these

Aspirin is otherwise called: a. Acetylsalicylic acid b. Cyclooxygenase c. Cephalosporin d. Ristocetin

a. Acetylsalicylic acid

Which of the following is a part of the prothrombinase complex? 1.) Factor Va 2.) Platelet factor-3 (PF-3) 3.) Calcium 4.) Factor IXa 5.) Factor Xa a. 1,2,3, and 5 b. 2 and 3 c. 3,4, and 5 d. 1,2,3,4, and 5

a. 1,2,3, and 5

The half-life of Proconvertin is: a. 5 hours b. 6 hours c. 7 hours d. 8 hours

b. 6 hours

Monocytes remain in the circulation for about: a. 3 hours b. 6 hours c. 24 hours d. 72 hours

d. 72 hours

WBC inclusion bodies believed to be linear projections of primary granules that are seen in certain cases of acute myelogenous leukemia: a. Dohle bodies b. Auer rods c. Heinz bodies d. Toxic granulations

b. Auer rods

Which of the statements below concerning epinephrine is true? a. It can activate the platelets. b. It is considered as a hormone. c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B

c. Both A and B

Which of the following is a part of the tenase complex? 1.) Factor IXa 2.) Platelet factor-4 (PF-4) 3.) Calcium 4.) Factor Va 5.) Factor VIIIa a. 1, 3, and 5 b. 1,2,3, and 5 c. 3,4, and 5 d. 1,2,3,4, and 5

a. 1, 3, and 5

In which of the following cytochemical stains will the cells in the leukemia named AML, without maturation produce a positive result? 1. Myeloperoxidase stain 2. Sudan Black B stain 3. Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate a. 1,2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 only

a. 1,2, and 3

The Philadelphia Chromosome is brought about by the reciprocal translocation involving the long arms of: a. Chromosome 11 and 22 b. Chromosome 9 and 22 c. Chromosome 11 and 16 d. Chromosome 9 and 16

b. Chromosome 9 and 22

The coagulation factors that function as cofactors include: 1.) Tissue thromboplastin 2.) Factor V 3.) Factor VIII 4.) Fitzgerald factor a. 1,2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

In which of the following cytochemical stains will the cells in the leukemia named AML, with maturation produce a positive result? 1. Myeloperoxidase stain 2. Sudan Black B stain 3. Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate a. 1,2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 only

a. 1,2, and 3

In which of the following cytochemical stains will the cells in the leukemia named Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia produce a positive result? 1. Myeloperoxidase stain 2. Sudan Black B stain 3. Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate a. 1,2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 only

a. 1,2, and 3

In which of the following cytochemical stains will the cells in the leukemia named Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia produce a positive result? 1. Myeloperoxidase stain 2. Sudan Black B stain 3. Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate a. 1,2, and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 only d. 2 only

a. 1,2, and 3

Which of the following may demonstrate Auer rods? 1. AML M1 2. AML M2 3. AML M3 4. AML M4 5. AML M5 a. 1,2,3, and 4 b. 5 only c. 1,3,5 d. 1,2,3

a. 1,2,3, and 4

All of the statements below are true for May-Hegglin Anomaly, except: a. Giant platelets are expected in this disorder. b. It is described as an autosomal dominant disorder. c. Patients with May-Hegglin Anomaly show high platelet count. d. N Granulocytes and monocytes in this disorder show cytoplasmic inclusions that look like Dohle bodies.

c. Patients with May-Hegglin Anomaly show high platelet count.

The organ that produces the plasminogen is the: a. Liver b. Brain c. Stomach d. Pancreas

a. Liver

All of the statements below are true for Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, except: a. Abnormal clot retraction b. Abnormal aggregation response in adrenaline c. Normal bleeding time result d. Abnormal aggregation response in collagen

c. Normal bleeding time result

Which of the following stains is helpful in the diagnosis of suspected erythroleukemia? a. Peroxidase b. Nonspecific esterase c. PAS d. Acid phosphatase

c. PAS

Which of the following choices exhibit partial albinism? a. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome b. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome c. TAR syndrome d. Chediak-Higashi syndrome

d. Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Consumption coagulopathy is otherwise called: a. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome b. Hemolytic uremic syndrome c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation d. Primary myelofibrosis

c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

The type of anemia observed in AML M6 is: a. Normocytic, normochromic b. Microcytic, hypochromic c. Macrocytic, normochromic d. None of these

c. Macrocytic, normochromic

Concerning Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) and Leukemoid Reaction (LR), which statement is true? Statement 1: Both are characterized to have markedly elevated platelet count. Statement 2: Both are characterized to have increased LAP score. a. Statement 1 b. Statements 1 and 2 are both true c. Statement 2 d. Statements 1 and 2 are both false

d. Statements 1 and 2 are both false

Which of the following is improperly matched? a. AML M3: Acute promyelocytic leukemia b. AML M4: Acute myelomonocytic leukemia c. AML M5: Acute monocytic leukemia d. AML M7: Acute erythroleukemia

d. AML M7: Acute erythroleukemia AML M6: Acute erythroleukemia AML M7: Megakaryocytic leukeia

Which of the following is improperly matched? a. AML M7: Acute megakaryocytic leukemia b. AML M5: Acute myelomonocytic leukemia c. AML M3: Acute promyelocytic leukemia d. AML M1: Acute myelogenous leukemia, without maturation

b. AML M5: Acute myelomonocytic leukemia = Acute monocytic leukemia

Calculate the total LAP score of this patient sample and then select from the choices that follow the condition/s that would most likely reflect this score. (NOTE: The laboratory used the Kaplow’s Method.) Score Number of Neutrophils 0 92 1+ 7 2+ 1 3+ 0 4+ 0 1.) Polycythemia vera 2.) Infections 3.) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria 4.) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia a. 1 and 2 b. 3 and 4 c. 4 only d. 1 only

b. 3 and 4

Which of the following test results would a patient with Stuart-Prower factor deficiency exhibit? a. Normal PT b. Normal Thrombin Time c. Normal APTT d. All of these

b. Normal Thrombin Time

In the calculation of the INR, the needed pieces of information are the: a. Patient’s PT, mean normal PTT, and the ISI of the reagent b. Patient’s PT, mean normal PT, and the ISI of the reagent c. Patient’s PT, mean normal PT, and the date of expiration of the reagent d. Patient’s PTT, mean normal PTT, and the ISI of the reagent

b. Patient’s PT, mean normal PT, and the ISI of the reagent

Select from the choices below the conditions that demonstrate higher than normal thrombocyte count. 1.) Polycythemia vera 2.) Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome 3.) HIT 4.) May-Hegglin Anomaly 5.) Primary myelofibrosis 6.) Essential thrombocythemia a. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 b. 5 and 6 c. 1, 5, and 6 d. 3, 4, and 5

c. 1, 5, and 6

The shape of a circulating, resting thrombocyte is: a. Biconcave b. Biconvex c. Spherical d. Triangular

b. Biconvex

Which of the following therapeutic anticoagulants is administered orally? a. Warfarin b. LMWH c. Heparin d. All of these

a. Warfarin

Which of the given statements below is correct? 1.) WAS is an x-linked recessive disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia. 2.) Bernard-Soulier syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia. 3.) May-Hegglin anomaly is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by small platelets. 4.) Gray Platelet syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by small platelets. a. 1 and 2 b. 3 and 4 c. 2 and 4 d. 1 and 3

a. 1 and 2

Calculate the total LAP score of this patient sample and then select from the choices that follow the condition/s that would most likely reflect this score. (NOTE: The laboratory used the Kaplow’s Method.) Score Number of Neutrophils 0 0 1+ 3 2+ 10 3+ 45 4+ 42 1.) Polycythemia vera 2). Infections 3). Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria 4.) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia a. 1 and 2 b. 3 and 4 c. 4 only d. 1 only

a. 1 and 2

The cause of thrombocytopenia in all of these conditions is increased splenic sequestration, except for: a. Gaucher disease b. Cirrhosis of the liver c. Hodgkin’s disease d. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

d. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

The deficiency in Plasma Thromboplastin Component is called: a. Rosenthal syndrome b. Owren’s disease c. Christmas disease d. Classic hemophilia

c. Christmas disease

In Owren’s disease, the results in the patient’s coagulation tests will be: a. PT: normal, APTT: prolonged b. PT: prolonged, APTT: normal c. PT: prolonged, APTT: prolonged d. PT: normal, APTT: normal

c. PT: prolonged, APTT: prolonged

Which of the following is characterized by alpha granule deficiency? a. WAS b. TAR syndrome c. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome d. Gray Platelet Syndrome

d. Gray Platelet Syndrome

The “w” in the acronym WARF stands for: a. World b. Wiskott c. Wisconsin d. Whole

c. Wisconsin

All of the following belong to the thrombin sensitive group of coagulation factors, except: a. Fibrinogen b. Prothrombin c. Proaccelerin d. Factor VIII

b. Prothrombin

Which of the following stages is characterized by an indented nucleus? a. MK-I b. MK-II c. MK-III d. None of these

b. MK-II

The acronym “CRAB” is used to describe the findings in a patient with plasma cell myeloma. The letter R in this acronym stands for: a. Rotavirus b. Renal insufficiency c. Retrogression d. Rashes

b. Renal insufficiency C - hyperCalcemia R - Renal insufficiency A - Anemia B - Bone pain

A disorder of vascular hemostasis would exhibit: a. Normal PT b. Normal Thrombin Time c. Normal APTT d. All of these

d. All of these

In hematology, PIVKA means: a. Proteins induced by Vitamin K absorption b. Proteins induced by Vitamin K absence c. Prions inactivated by Vitamin K antagonists d. None of these

b. Proteins induced by Vitamin K absence

Which of the following statements is false concerning the fibrinogen? a. It is the most concentrated of all the plasma procoagulants b. Platelet dense granules absorb, transport and release abundant fibrinogen c. It is essential for platelet aggregation d. None of the above

b. Platelet dense granules absorb, transport and release abundant fibrinogen

The patient shows a prolonged PT result together with a normal APTT result. This patient most likely has: a. Factor VII deficiency b. Factor VIII deficiency c. Factor XIII deficiency d. Christmas disease

a. Factor VII deficiency

Hepcidin is produced by the: a. Liver b. Kidneys c. Bones d. Bone marrow

a. Liver

SMAD is one of the proteins involved in body iron sensing and hepcidin production. The “s” in SMAD is: a. Secretory b. Soluble c. Sons d. Sodium

c. Sons

In hematology, the “u” in UPA means: a. Uromodulin b. Urokinase c. Urothelial d. Urinary tract

b. Urokinase

Which of the following clotting factors may be described as Vitamin K independent? a. Prothrombin b. Stable factor c. Hageman factor d. Christmas factor

c. Hageman factor

Identify from the choices below which one serves as an antifibrinolytic enzyme. a. TAFI b. Activated Protein C c. Thrombin d. None of these

a. TAFI

The other name for the Flaujeac factor is? a. Christmas factor b. Stuart-Prower factor c. Tissue factor d. None of the choices

d. None of the choices

Which of the following anticoagulant is used for blood gas studies and osmotic fragility test? a. Lithium iodoacetate b. Sodium citrate c. Sodium fluoride d. Heparin

d. Heparin

All of the following are platelet aggregating reagents, except: a. Ristocetin b. ADP c. Collagen d. Barium sulfate

d. Barium sulfate

The correct volume ratio of blood to anticoagulant using the sodium citrate tube: a. 1:9 b. 1: 19 c. 9:1 d. 1:5

c. 9:1

STATEMENT 1: Eosinophilia is often attributed to parasitic infections. STATEMENT 2: In the hematocrit determination, the buffy coat must be included. STATEMENT 3: Hyperviscosity is a consequence of polycythemia. Which of the statements above is considered correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 1 and 3

The survival time of eosinophils in human tissues ranges from: a. 10 to 15 days b. 14 to 21 days c. 2 to 5 days d. 45 days

c. 2 to 5 days

In which of the following conditions will one be able to find a pseudo-Pelger-Huet cell? 1. Myelodysplastic syndromes 2. HIV infection 3. Tuberculosis 4. Congenital Pelger-Huet Anomaly a. 1,2,3, and 4 b. 2 and 4 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

From the list of laboratory tests below, select the one that would best confirm PNH. a. Acidified serum test b. Flow cytometry for FLAER binding, CD24 on granulocytes, and CD14 on monocytes c. Flow cytometry for detection of eosin-5’-maleimide binding on RBCs d. Citrate agar electrophoresis

b. Flow cytometry for FLAER binding, CD24 on granulocytes, and CD14 on monocytes

The mean plasma concentration of fibrinogen is: a. 500 to 800 mg/dL b. 200 to 400 mg/dL c. 100 to 150 mg/dL d. 50 to 80 mg/dL

b. 200 to 400 mg/dL

Aside from sodium citrate, another blood additive which may be found in a light blue top tube is: a. Thrombin b. CTAD c. Acid citrate dextrose d. Sodium heparin

b. CTAD

Which of the following appear as the first markers of megakaryocytic differentiation? 1.) CD71 2.) CD41 3.) CD45 4.) CD61 a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2, 3, and 4

b. 2 and 4

Cyanide-resistant Peroxidase stain may be used to detect: a. Hairy Cell Leukemia b. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia c. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma d. Eosinophilic leukemia

d. Eosinophilic leukemia

Identify from the choices below which laboratory findings may indicate that the blood specimen contains cold agglutinins. 1.) High RBC count 2.) High MCV 3.) Low MCHC 4.) Blood film with grainy appearance a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 4 only

c. 2 and 4

Which of the following conditions will produce a falsely increased WBC count? a. Presence of lysis-resistant RBCs containing abnormal hemoglobin b. Both A and B c. Increased numbers of nucleated RBCs d. Lipemia

b. Both A and B

Corrected Reticulocyte Count (CRC) is sometimes referred to as: a. Shift correction b. Poor Man’s Bone Marrow Aspirate c. Reticulocyte Production Index d. None of these

b. Poor Man’s Bone Marrow Aspirate

From the choices that follow, select the cell/s that can perform endomitosis. 1.) BFU-Meg 2.) CFU-Meg 3.) LD-CFU-Meg 4.) Megakaryoblast a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 3 and 4 c. 3 only d. 2 and 3

b. 3 and 4

Which of the following is not a member of the Fibrinogen Group? 1.) Factor XIII 2.) Factor VII 3.) Factor V 4.) Factor I a. 1, 2, 3, and 4 b. 3 and 4 c. 1, 3, and 4 d. 2 only

d. 2 only

The reference range for the absolute reticulocyte count is: a. 200 to 400 X 109/L b. 20 to 115 X 109/L c. 120 to 300 X 109/L d. 5 to 15 X 109/L

b. 20 to 115 X 109/L

Pseudo-Gaucher cells can be encountered in: 1.) Thalassemia 2.) Chronic myeloid leukemia 3.) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. None of these

a. 1, 2, and 3

What is considered the chief means through which EPO increases RBC mass? a. Apoptotic cell death prevention b. Allowing early release of reticulocytes from the marrow c. Reduction of the time needed for cells to mature in the bone marrow d. Stimulating kidney cells to produce more erythropoietin hormone

a. Apoptotic cell death prevention

In cold hemagglutinin disease, the macroscopic appearance of the patient’s blood film is: a. Grainy b. Filled with holes c. Filled with blue specks d. Filled with cracks

a. Grainy

TAFI is synthesized in the: a. Liver b. Blood vessels c. Platelets d. Pancreas

a. Liver

All of these globin chains are composed of 146 amino acids, except: 1.) Alpha 2.) Beta 3.) Delta 4.) Gamma a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 1 and 2 d. 1 only

d. 1 only

Through what manner will the LMWH be administered to patients? a. Subcutaneous injection b. Oral c. Rectal d. Either A or B

a. Subcutaneous injection

Cytochrome b5 reductase is otherwise called: a. G6PD b. Methemoglobin reductase c. Pyruvate kinase d. 2,3-BPG

b. Methemoglobin reductase

The myeloblast stage lasts about: a. 15 hours b. One week c. One day d. Four days

a. 15 hours

Which of the following is not considered a sign of dyserythropoiesis? a. Multinucleate RBCs b. Dohle bodies c. Basophilic stippling d. Oval macrocytes

b. Dohle bodies

A blood smear from a patient with a normal erythrocyte count has an average of 15 thrombocytes per oil immersion field. This patient’s platelet count is approximately: a. 150 x 109/L b. 200 x 109/L c. 250 x 109/L d. 300 x 109/L

d. 300 x 109/L

Which of the following are a possible finding in a patient who has megaloblastic anemia? 1.) Hypersegmented neutrophils 2.) Dacryocytes in the blood film 3.) Nucleated RBCs 4.) Howell-Jolly bodies 5.) Basophilic stippling 6.) Cabot rings a. 2,4,6 b. 1,2,3,4,5,6 c. 1,3,5 d. 1, 2, and 4

b. 1,2,3,4,5,6

Statement 1: In Von Willebrand’s disease, the patient’s APTT is prolonged. Statement 2: In Factor VII deficiency, the patient’s Thrombin Time is normal. a. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. b. Both statements are true. c. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. d. Both statements are false.

b. Both statements are true.

Statement 1: Heparin has anticoagulant activity of its own. Statement 2: Unfractionated heparin is administered intravenously. a. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. b. Both statements are true. c. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. d. Both statements are false.

c. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

Statement 1: Normally, two-thirds of the platelet mass can be found in the spleen. Statement 2: The anticoagulant used for platelet count determination is EDTA. a. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. b. Both statements are true. c. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. d. Both statements are false.

c. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

Statement 1: The primary platelet surface receptor for VWF is the GP VI. Statement 2: VWF has receptor sites for both platelets and collagen. a. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. b. Both statements are true. c. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. d. Both statements are false.

c. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

Statement 1: Thrombocytes are described as cells with granular cytoplasm but no nuclear material. Statement 2: Thrombocytes cluster with the erythrocytes near the center of the blood vessel. a. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. b. Both statements are true. c. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. d. Both statements are false.

b. Both statements are true.

Which of the following coagulation factors are increased in liver disease? a. VII and VIII b. IX and XI c. I and V d. I and VIII

d. I and VIII

All of the following are examples of oral anticoagulants, except: a. Dicumarol b. Phenprocoumon c. Acenocumarol d. Unfractionated heparin

d. Unfractionated heparin

The normal value used in the Lee and White (Whole Blood Clotting Time) Method is: a. 7 to 15 mins. b. 20 to 25 mins. c. 2 to 4 mins. d. <1 min.

a. 7 to 15 mins.

Both Hemophilia A and Hemophilia C demonstrate: a. Normal PT and normal APTT b. Prolonged PT and prolonged APTT c. Normal PT and prolonged APTT d. Prolonged PT and normal APTT

c. Normal PT and prolonged APTT

The medical technologist stained a blood smear. He then held it up to the light and noticed that the smear is bluer than normal. What abnormality may be expected on this smear? a. Leptocytes b. Lymphocytosis c. Rouleaux d. Sickle cells

c. Rouleaux

The most common clinical application of flow cytometry is: a. Diagnosis of Sickle Cell Disease b. Detection of fetomaternal hemorrhage c. Diagnosis of leukemias and lymphomas d. Differentiation of anemias

c. Diagnosis of leukemias and lymphomas

The cells which are normally found within the bone marrow are: 1.) Pronormoblast 2.) Basophilic normoblast 3.) Polychromatophilic normoblast 4.) Orthochromic normoblast 5.) Reticulocyte a. 1,2,3, and 4 b. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 c. 1,2, and 3 d. 1 and 2

b. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

From the choices below, select the ones that may be found in the alpha granules. 1.) Plasminogen 2.) Platelet-derived growth factor 3.) Albumin 4.) Protein C inhibitor a. 1 and 4 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3

c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Antithrombin inhibits all of the following, except: a. VIIa b. Thrombin c. IXa d. Kallikrein

a. VIIa

Which of the disorders given below will exhibit acanthocytes in the peripheral blood smear? 1.) Abetalipoproteinemia 2.) McLeod syndrome 3.) Chorea acanthocytosis (ChAc) a. 1 and 3 b. 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 d. None of the choices

c. 1, 2, and 3

Intrinsic factor, important in Vitamin B12 absorption, is secreted by the: a. Ileal enterocytes b. Esophageal cells c. Pancreatic cells d. Gastric parietal cell

d. Gastric parietal cell

A patient with Vitamin B12 deficiency will show: 1.) Increased serum lactate dehydrogenase 2.) Anisocytosis 3.) Increased serum methylmalonic acid 4.) Increased holotranscobalamin a. 1, 2, 3, and 4 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 4 only

c. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements wrongly describes the lymphocytes on a Wright-stained smear? 1.) Slightly smaller than erythrocytes 2.) With a thin rim of granular cytoplasm 3.) With a round nucleus a. 1,2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 3 only d. 1 and 3

b. 1 and 2

All of the following may cause hemolysis of red cells, except: a. Vigorous shaking of EDTA tube after collecting blood b. Malarial infection c. Using an improper needle gauge for a particular patient d. None of these

d. None of these

It is almost 1:00 in the morning when you arrived at the patient’s room and he is already deeply asleep. You need to draw a timed blood specimen from him. How must you proceed? a. Do not wake him up and proceed with the blood collection quietly. b. Make a loud noise while calling out the patient’s name. c. Softly wake the patient up before proceeding with the blood collection. d. Inform the physician or the nurse that you will come back later when the patient is already awake.

c. Softly wake the patient up before proceeding with the blood collection.

The color of the cytoplasm of the monocyte is: a. Bright orange b. Blue-gray c. Pink to tan d. Dark-violet

b. Blue-gray

Hematology Flashcards

(236 cards)