Hematology/Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

AA can be differentiated from a hypoplastic variant of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with decreased bone marrow cellularity by finding dysplastic cells and cytogenetic abnormalities typical for MDS.

A

Aplastic anemia associated with: auto-immune, treatment for hyperthyroid, gold exposure

Tx: young<50 (stem cell transplant), age>50 ATG, prednisone, cycosporine

MDS is typically hypercellular marrow, dysplastic neutrophils, can cause panctyopenia, has risk of becoming AML
- A group of patients with low-risk MDS with the −5q cytogenetic abnormality could be treated with the immunomodulatory drug lenalidomide if they are transfusion dependent. Lenalidomide has been approved for this indication and is effective in decreasing transfusion requirements.
- Younger patients can get stem cell transplant

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2
Q

Causes of pure red cell aplasia_____________

A

auto-immune, parvo b19, phenytoin/isoniazid, leukemias

*especially effects patients with underlying disorders (sickle cell), malignancies

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3
Q

The triad of neutropenia, splenomegaly, and rheumatoid arthritis is called ________

A

Felty syndrome

Tx: G-CSF

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4
Q

CML is a clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder characterized by translocation of the long arm of chromosomes 9 and 22 [t(9;22), Philadelphia chromosome] leading to _________

A

BCR-ABL fusion gene

Blast crisis is considered to be secondary AML.

CML, peripheral blood neutrophilia along with immature myeloid forms, such as myelocytes and metamyelocytes

Tx: Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) are highly effective and are the treatment of choice for patients with chronic phase CML. Three TKIs, imatinib, dasatinib, and nilotinib, are FDA approved for the initial treatment of CM

TKIs are contraindicated during pregnancy, so either close monitoring of patients off treatment or a switch to interferon is indicated.

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5
Q

Essential thrombocytosis

A

Patients with platelet counts greater than 1,000,000/µL (1000 × 109/L) are at risk for bleeding and should also be treated with hydroxyurea to lower the platelet count. Other therapies for patients who do not respond to hydroxyurea or who experience significant adverse effects include anagrelide and interferon-α. Low-dose aspirin is considered in all patients at high risk and in patients at low risk who have vasomotor symptoms.

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6
Q

Myelofibrosis

A

Ruxolitinib is reserved for treatment in patients with debilitating symptoms who are not candidates for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation. Hydroxyurea may be used for patients with low-risk PMF

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7
Q

___________may present with a reduced total leukocyte count and features of disseminated intravascular coagulation.

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

Acute promyelocytic leukemia, characterized by poorly differentiated leukocytes with distinctive primary granules that contribute to coagulopathy (Figure 4) and chromosomal translocation t(15;17),

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8
Q

Both ALL and CML can carry the BCR-ABL phuladelphia chromosome

A
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9
Q

MGUS: MGUS is characterized by an M protein level less than 3 g/dL (or less than 500 mg/24 h of urinary monoclonal FLCs), clonal plasma cells comprising less than 10% of the bone marrow cellularity

A
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10
Q

MM vs waldenstrom

A

The clinical presentation is similar to that of multiple myeloma except that (1) organomegaly is common in Waldenström macroglobulinemia and is uncommon in multiple myeloma and (2) lytic bony disease and renal disease are uncommon in Waldenström macroglobulinemia but are common in multiple myeloma.

Neuropathy

Patients with Waldenström macroglobulinemia can develop a hyperviscosity syndrome, with symptoms including altered mental status and diverse central nervous system symptoms, dilated retinal veins on funduscopic examination, and mucosal bleeding from impaired platelet function and dysfibrinogenemia.

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11
Q

Lenalidomide (MM, MDS subtype) and pomalidomide carry a risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), and patients are considered for thromboprophylaxis.

A

Bortezomib is associated with a high risk of herpes zoster reactivation; prophylactic therapy with acyclovir is recommended.

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12
Q

All amyloid deposits have a characteristic apple-green birefringence under polarized light microscopy of the tissue with Congo red staining.

A

Fat pad biopsies are appropriate for amyloid diagnosis

Amyloid associated with MGUS/MM = AL Amyloid

Amyloid associated with kidney injury = B2 microglobin

Patients with immunoglobulin light-chain amyloidosis who are ineligible for autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation should receive treatment with melphalan- or bortezomib-based chemotherapy regimens.

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13
Q

Treatment of cryoglobinemia with hyper-viscosity

A

Patients with neurologic symptoms from the hyperviscosity are treated with emergent plasmapheresis, along with treatment of the underlying plasma cell dyscrasia to prevent production of cryoglobulins

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14
Q

Bite cells characteristic of ____

target cells____

A

G6PD deficiency

Thallesemia, splenectomy

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15
Q

CKD hemoglobin goal~____

A

10

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16
Q

An important distinction to make is that folate deficiency leads to an elevation in homocysteine levels with normal levels of methylmalonic acid, whereas cobalamin deficiency has increases in both metabolites.

A

Because folate is absorbed in the jejunum, small bowel diseases such as amyloidosis, celiac disease, or inflammatory bowel disease can also inhibit folate absorption.

Cobalamin deficiency should be excluded before patients receive folate therapy; although blood abnormalities may improve with folate supplementation, the neurologic complications of cobalamin deficiency would continue to progress.

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17
Q

Iron should be restricted in thalassemia, typically patients have plenty of intracellular stores, risk of iron overload

A

Thallesemia should only be supplemented with Folate, avoid iron

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18
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis: auto dominant, spectrin mutation, elevated MCHC

A

Cx: splenomegaly, pigmented gallstones

Folate supplementation needed

Due to spleen complications, need vaccination for Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitides

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19
Q

G6PD (X linked recessive)
-Triggers: Dapsone, sulfa, rasburicase, illness

A

G6PD evaluation involves a fluorescent spot test used to detect NADPH. A positive result shows lack of fluorescence. Evaluation should not be performed during an acute hemolytic episode

NADPH depletion, less reduction equivalents

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20
Q

Sickle cell disease HgB goal____

A

10 (Specifically in a pre-op scenario)

Except pregnant females, can avoid transfusion, symptom based transfusion strategy

Exchange transfusion is used for acute stroke or retinal artery occlusion or in patients with severe acute chest syndrome. When indicated, the target hemoglobin S level should be less than 30%.

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21
Q

Drugs associated with hemolytic anemia ______

A

Dapsone, Cephalosporins, Levofloxacin, Methyldopa, Nitrofurantoin,

Coombs +, spherocytes

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22
Q

Conditions associated with cold antibody hemolytic anemia (IgM)

A

Infectious (Mycoplasma and Epstein-Barr virus), lymphoproliferative (IgM MGUS, Waldenström macroglobulinemia, other B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas)

Tx: Rituximab

*You can treat warm antibody disease with steroids, IVIG, rituxan

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23
Q

MAHA syndromes : Schistocytes, consumption (thrombocytopenia)

A

Examples of MAHA syndromes: HUS, TTP, DIC

Patients with artificial valves or those with left ventricular assist devices can develop anemia resulting from erythrocyte fragmentation known as macroangiopathic hemolysis

HUS Treatment: Supportive

TTP treatment: Plasmapharesis (ADAMTS13 deficiency due to destruction)

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24
Q

PNH caused by mutation in CD55, 59 that usually protect erythrocyte from complement destruction

A

Patients lacking these proteins develop episodic hemolysis, marrow aplasia, and thrombosis.

Dx: Flow cytometry

Tx: Eculizumab is associated with Neisseria infections, so patients should receive meningococcal vaccination before use.

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25
Q

Hemachromatosis (Auto dominant):

A

elevated transferrin saturation greater than 45% and an elevated serum ferritin level; diagnosis is confirmed through genetic testing.

Asymptomatic family members of patients with hemochromatosis and a serum ferritin level less than 300 ng/mL (300 µg/L) (men) or 250 ng/mL (250 µg/L) (women) can be observed

Tx: Phlebotomy

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26
Q

Porphyria cutanea tarda is characterized by cutaneous blisters, often on the hands, and hypertrichosis; it responds well to phlebotomy. (Iron overload condition)

A
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27
Q

Drug related causes of TTP:

A

Drugs such as ticlopidine, quinine, cyclosporine, gemcitabine, and vascular endothelial growth factor inhibitors (such as bevacizumab) can cause TTP. Drug abuse with oxymorphone, 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (“ecstasy”), and cocaine has also been reported to cause TTP.

Hallmark of TTP is neurological decline, kidney injury

Initial treatment involves therapeutic plasma exchange to remove the high-molecular-weight vWF multimers and replace the deficient ADAMTS13–> Rituximab

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28
Q

HUS (Typical vs Atypical)
-Atypical: other factors, not associated with EHEC

A

severe HUS treatment: Plasma exchange, eculizumab

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29
Q

Conditions associated with ITP

A

systemic lupus erythematosus, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, HIV, hepatitis C, or Helicobacter pylori infection

Tx: Recommended initial therapy includes a short course (<6 weeks) of prednisone or dexamethasone. The response to intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) is faster and may be indicated in patients with more severe thrombocytopenia and life-threatening bleeding.

Antiplatelet antibody testing is specific but has low sensitivity, so it is not recommended in the diagnosis or management of immune thrombocytopenic purpura.

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30
Q

HIT

A

Diagnosis of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia requires a screening test (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for platelet factor 4 antibodies) followed by a confirmatory test (serotonin release assay or heparin-induced platelet aggregation assay)

31
Q

Triad of eczema, thrombocytopenia, immunodeficiency____-

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

32
Q

Deficiency of VWF can then lead to a reduction in factor VIII levels, which explains the elevation in PTT, elevated PTT and low platelets

A

PFA-100® would suggest vWD, making this a useful initial evaluation tool. The diagnosis is confirmed by finding a reduction in von Willebrand antigen (quantitative analysis) and reduced vWF ristocetin cofactor activity

Tx: Desmopressin for Type 1 disease Antifibrinolytic therapy (ε-aminocaproic acid and tranexamic acid) is useful after surgical procedures to protect against delayed bleeding and can be used to treat menorrhagia.

33
Q

Hemophilia: Diagnosis requires a prolonged aPTT (that corrects in mixing studies) and a normal PT and complete blood count. Assay of individual factors (VIII and IX) confirms the diagnosis.

A

Patients with mild hemophilia A can be treated with desmopressin, which stimulates the release of preformed factor VIII from endothelial cells.

34
Q

Factor VIII is not produced in the hepatocytes, is often elevated in liver disease

A
35
Q

Because of their cost and association with prothrombotic complications, prothrombin complex concentrates should not be routinely used to manage the coagulopathy of liver disease.

A

FFP unclear if it works for INR>2

36
Q

Acquired vWD occurs in conditions of high circulatory shear stress (valvular heart disease, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, circulatory assist devices, and extracorporeal membrane-oxygenation systems)

A

esmopressin and vWF concentrates have been used in management.

37
Q

Acquired hemophilia A (malignancy, pregnancy, auto-immune)

A

Management of acute bleeding requires plasma derivatives or recombinant coagulation factors that bypass the inhibited factor, such as activated prothrombin complex concentrates or recombinant activated factor VII

Recombinant porcine factor VIII provides more effective hemostasis, but it may be limited in availability. Immunosuppression, using corticosteroids, usually combined with rituximab or cyclophosphamide, is required to eliminate the autoantibody and prevent continued production of inhibitors.

Recombinant factor concentrates (not containing any donor plasma) are the standard of care for younger patients with hemophilia A and B.

38
Q

DIC: Classic laboratory findings include thrombocytopenia, prolonged aPTT and PT, elevated INR, hypofibrinogenemia, and elevated D-dimer levels

A
39
Q

A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, with low-grade fever and worsening anemia, occurs 1 to 2 weeks after transfusion and should be evaluated measuring direct antiglobulin, haptoglobin, lactate dehydrogenase, bilirubin, and reticulocyte count.

When minor antigen alloimmunization occurs

A
40
Q

TACO: Signs and symptoms include respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion, positive fluid balance, elevated central venous pressure, elevated B-type natriuretic peptide, and compatible radiographic findings of pulmonary edema. Therapy consists of diuretics and a slower rate of blood administration.

A
41
Q

TRALI vs TACO

A

These patients are more likely to present with fever and hypotension and less likely to have overt signs of volume overload as in patients with TACO. (More immune inflammatory)

Most cases of TRALI occur because of HLA or neutrophil-specific antibodies in multiparous donors that bind to and activate recipient leukocytes in the pulmonary vasculature.

42
Q

Patients who have undergone stem cell transplantation typically require γ-irradiated blood products to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

A
43
Q

Proclotting disorders
1)Factor 5 Leiden
2) Prothombin mutation
3) Antithrombin deficiency
4) Protein C/S

A

Antithrombin deficiency: whom heparin is initiated and titration to a therapeutic range is difficult

Protein C or S deficiency is associated with warfarin-associated skin necrosis.

Measurement of homocysteine, factor VIII levels, and plasminogen activator inhibitor activity should not be part of the standard thrombophilia evaluation because results do not influence management.

44
Q

Medications with high clotting risk ______

A

Thalidomide, TKI, VEGF (Bevacizumab), SERM (Tamoxifen), hormonal contraception

45
Q

Criteria for antiphospholipid antibody diagnosis
-Multiple fetal deaths
-Multiple VTE events
-Anticardiolipin antibody of IgG and/or IgM isotype, present in medium or high titer
-Anti-β2-glycoprotein-1 antibody of IgG and/or IgM isotype

A

The diagnosis of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is based on the clinical criteria of thromboembolism or pregnancy morbidity and laboratory findings of medium or high titer antiphospholipid antibodies present on two or more occasions at least 12 weeks apart.

46
Q

Approximately 50% of cases of Budd-Chiari syndrome and 25% of cases of portal vein thrombosis are the result of an MPN, and JAK2 V617F gene mutations should be evaluated even in the absence of erythrocytosis or thrombocytosis

A

Patients with abdominal thrombosis, splenomegaly, and portal hypertension should be evaluated for the presence of a myeloproliferative neoplasm, specifically the JAK2 V617F gene mutation, even in the absence of erythrocytosis or thrombocytosis.

47
Q

In patients with malignancy, LMWH remains preferable to warfarin;

A
48
Q

Patients with lower extremity superficial vein thrombosis managed conservatively with warm compresses, analgesics, and NSAIDs require follow-up evaluation after 1 week to determine whether symptoms have resolved; duplex imaging is indicated for symptoms that persist or worsen

A
49
Q

In patients with lower extremity superficial vein thrombosis of at least 5 cm in length or close to the deep venous system, or in patients with other thrombophilic risk factors, including cancer or previous venous thromboembolism, therapy with fondaparinux or an alternate anticoagulant is recommended.

A
50
Q

Provoked upper extremity deep venous thrombosis (DVT) should be managed with 3 months of anticoagulation; however, in patients with catheter-associated DVT in whom the catheter will not be removed, anticoagulation should continue for as long as the catheter remains in place.

A
51
Q

Reversal for heparin _________

A

Protamine sulfate

52
Q

Heparin effects PTT, but not LMWH

A
53
Q

Argatroban versus fondaparinux

A

Because fondaparinux is cleared through the kidney, it should be avoided in patients with a creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/min

54
Q

Warfarin management
-Patients with asymptomatic INR elevation between 4.5 and 10 can often be managed by simply withholding warfarin.
-For INRs greater than 10 in patients without bleeding, oral vitamin K, 2.5 mg, should be given

A

Warfarin reversal: PCC + Vitamin K

55
Q

Pre procedural bridging for warfarin users indicated in only specific scenarios:

A

recent VTE (within the past 4 weeks)

history of VTE during anticoagulant interruption for surgery, or a procedure with very high VTE risk, such as orthopedic surgery.

Bridging is also indicated in patients with atrial fibrillation who have had a stroke or transient ischemic attack in the preceding year, in patients who have multiple risk factors for stroke (CHADS2 score of 5-6),

and in most patients with a mechanical heart valve.

56
Q

Apixaban has the lowest renal elimination, so it is approved for patients undergoing dialysis

A
57
Q

NOACs should be stopped 24 to 48 hours before surgery with moderate bleeding risk and 72 hours before surgery with higher bleeding risk.

A

Idarucizumab, a monoclonal antibody fragment, binds free and thrombin-bound dabigatran and neutralizes its activity.

If idarucizumab is not available, activated prothrombin complex concentrate is an alternative for patients with dabigatran-associated major bleeding

58
Q

Pregnancy in sickle cell disease
- Medications used to control SCD, such as hydroxyurea and chelating agents, must be discontinued during pregnancy. Painful vaso-occlusive crises increase during pregnancy; pain should be managed with narcotic analgesics, and NSAIDs should be avoided after the 30th week of gestation.

A
59
Q

ITP during Pregnancy
- Patients should receive intravenous immune globulin or glucocorticoids at any time during pregnancy if the platelet count decreases below 30,000/µL (30 × 109/L). The target platelet count for delivery (vaginal or cesarean section) is 50,000/µL (50 × 109/L), and therapy should begin approximately 1 week before the expected delivery date to achieve that goal

A
60
Q

Breast-conserving therapy is effective for patients with tumors 5 cm or less in size, without skin involvement, and with clear margins after excision in women who do not have hereditary syndromes that place them at high risk for subsequent breast cancer.

Postmastectomy radiation is recommended for cancers greater than 5 cm in size, positive margins or skin involvement, inflammatory breast cancers, and many patients with positive axillary lymph nodes.

A

2 of 16 lymph nodes is still negative

61
Q

Deciding on adjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer
-Patients with hormone receptor–positive tumors, zero to three positive axillary lymph nodes, and low-risk scores on the 21-gene recurrence assay have a favorable prognosis with antiestrogen therapy alone and do not benefit from the addition of chemotherapy.
-Adjuvant chemotherapy is most appropriate for patients with triple-negative tumors greater than 5 mm in size, skin involvement, or positive axillary lymph nodes.

A

The site of initial metastasis should be biopsied to confirm the diagnosis and to assess hormone receptor and HER2 status, which can be discordant from the primary breast cancer.

62
Q

Current guidelines recommend BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic testing for all women with epithelial ovarian cancer, regardless of age of onset, family history, or ancestry. - Everyone with ovarian cancer gets BRCA1/2 testing

A
63
Q

Local resection is still considered for metastatic disease, if there is only 1 site of mets (Liver)

A
64
Q

Colon cancer treatments

A

All metastatic colorectal cancers require molecular analysis for KRAS, NRAS, and BRAF gene mutation status as well as mismatch repair gene deficiency, which will determine treatment after first-line therapy.

Upper gastrointestinal tumors should be evaluated for human epidermal growth factor 2 (HER2) overexpression; adding trastuzumab to chemotherapy regimens for patients with HER2 overexpression

The anti–vascular endothelial growth factor antibody bevacizumab potentiates the efficacy of 5-fluorouracil combined with either leucovorin or capecitabine in treating metastatic colon cancer, but is associated with worsening hypertension, arterial thrombosis, poor wound healing, and gastrointestinal perforation and fistula formation.

65
Q

In contrast to other gastrointestinal tumors,_____________ is widely used as part of standard preoperative staging of gastroesophageal cancer.

A

PET-CT

66
Q

MALT can be treated with HPylori eradication alone

A
67
Q

Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumors can produce serotonin, which can cause the carcinoid syndrome characterized by diarrhea and facial flushing.

A

Well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors are indolent and only require observation and serial imaging.

68
Q

test for hereditary spherocytosis_____________

A

eosin 5 maleimide binding test, cryohemolysis test

Tx: Splenectomy

*Dont test for G6PD immediately, wait till after the event is over in 2-3 weeks else test will be wrong

69
Q

PT prolonging diseases________________

A

Vitamin K (2,7,9,10, protein C/S) :

70
Q

PTT prolonging ____________

A

Hemophilia A,B, 8,9,11,12 ; vwf since associated with factor 8

Lupus anticoag in APLS

desmopressin can be used to release factor 8 in hemophilia A
desmopressin can also be used for VwF

71
Q

PTT prolonged in hemophilia A, B

A
72
Q

Avoid platelet transfusions in MAHA (TTP, HUS)

A
73
Q

polymyalgia rheumatica associated with _______________

A

Renal cell carcinoma

74
Q
A