Hematology Review Flashcards
(106 cards)
1
Q
What is hematopoiesis?
A
Is the formation and development of blood cells
2
Q
Where does hematopoiesis take place in a fetus?
A
Liver
3
Q
Where does hematopoiesis take place in adults?
A
bone marrow
4
Q
What is a erythrocyte?
A
RBC
5
Q
What are the five stages of RBC maturation?
A
Rubriblast Prorubricyte Rubricyte Metarubricyte Polychromatophil
6
Q
What are the four stages of eosinophil maturation?
A
Eosinophilic Myelocyte Eosinophilic Metamyelocyte Eosinophilic Band Eosinophil
7
Q
What are the four stages of neutrophil maturation?
A
Neutrophilic Myelocyte Neutrophilic Metamyelocyte Neutrophilic Band Segmented Neutrophil
8
Q
What are the four stages of basophil maturation?
A
Basophilic Myelocyte Basophilic Metamyelocyte Basophilic Band Basophil
9
Q
What are the three stages of monocyte maturation?
A
Monoblast Promonocyte Monocyte
10
Q
What are the three stages of lymphocyte maturation?
A
Lymphoblast Prolymphocyte B and T Lymphocytes
11
Q
What are the four stages of platelet maturation?
A
Megakaryoblasts Promegakaryocytes Megakayocytes Platelets
12
Q
Do you get plasma or serum in a purple top tube?
A
Plasma
13
Q
What anticoagulant is in a purple top tube?
A
EDTA
14
Q
What are purple top tubes commonly used for?
A
CBC’s and Platelet counts
15
Q
Do you get plasma or serum in a green top tube?
A
Plasma
16
Q
What anticoagulant is in a green top tube?
A
Lithium Heparin
17
Q
What are green top tubes commonly used for?
A
blood chemistries, electrolytes, and stats
18
Q
What anticoagulant is in a red top tube?
A
no additive
19
Q
Do you get plasma or serum in a red top tube?
A
serum
20
Q
How long must a red top tube sit before centrifugation?
A
15-30 minutes
21
Q
What are red top tubes commonly used for?
A
chemistries and serological assays
22
Q
If the serum isn’t removed immediately what can it effect?
A
Blood glucose
23
Q
Do you get plasma or serum in a tiger/marble top tube?
A
serum
24
Q
What anticoagulant is in a tiger/marble top tube?
A
no additive but does have a silicon gel
25
What are tiger/marble top tubes commonly used for?
chemistires, serological assays, and some outside lab tests
26
Why can't you use a tiger/marble top tube for drug testing? And what tests are these?
It affects results in thyroid and phenobarb levels
27
Do you get plasma or serum in a blue top tube?
Plasma
28
What anticoagulant is in a blue top tube?
Sodium citrate
29
What are blue top tubes commonly used for?
coagulation assays
30
What grey top tube is rare to use? Is it plasma or serum? What are the uses? What is the anticoagulant?
Plasma sample. Contains the anticoagulant sodium fluoride. Used for glucose assays
31
What grey top tube will you most likely see? Is it plasma or serum? What are the uses? What is the anticoagulant?
ACT. Serum sample. Contains Diatomaceous Earth. Used for testing clotting ability
32
What is another name for packed blood cell vomume (PCV)?
Hematocrit (HCT)
33
What does PCV tell you?
The percentage of whole blood that is composed of red blood cells
34
What is the normal PCV range for dogs?
37-55%
35
What is the normal PCV range for cats?
35-45%
36
What piece of equipment do you used to read TP?
refractometer
37
What is the normal TP range in dogs and cats?
6.0-7.5g/dL
38
What does TP tell you?
refers to the total amount of protein in plasma
39
What is the major functional component of the red blood cell and the component that is responsible for carrying O2 to the tissues and CO2 back to the lungs?
Hemoglobin
40
What does knowing the Hgb level help you determine?
Presence or absence of iron deficiency. To treat both iron deficiency and anemia appropriately
41
T or F. RBC's are bi concave.
True
42
What do you always need to include when talking about RBC morphology?
size, shape, color
43
T or F. You don't need to report the quantity when reporting variations in size, color, and shape.
False
44
What is the term for some size variation?
anisocytosis
45
When cells on a smear are normal what would you call them?
Normocytic
46
What does macrocytosis mean?
increase in cell size
47
What does microcytosis mean?
decrease in cell size
48
What is the term for normal color?
Normochromic
49
T or F. The central pallor in dogs is 1/3 of the diameter of the cell.
True
50
What species is it common to see rouleaux?
Normal equine and feline
51
What are the functions of a WBC?
control inflammation Control bacterial infection Provide immunity Help blood clot Help destroy clots Help prevent unwanted cells
52
What WBC is the first line of defense?
Neutrophil
53
What are the functions of a neutrophil?
First line of defense against microbial infection Performs phagocytosis and pinocytosis
54
What is a left shift?
When there is 5% or more band neutrophils
55
When is a segmented neutrophil considered hypersegmented?
Nucleus has more than 5 segments
56
What is a right shift?
Greater than 5% hypersegmented neutrophils
57
What are some causes of hypersegmented neutrophils?
Blood has been in tube longer than 3 hours Vitamin b12 deficiency Steroids
58
What is most common cell found in circulating blood of cats and dogs?
Segmented neutrophil
59
What is the second most common cell found in circulating blood of cats and dogs?
lymphocyte
60
What is the most common cell found in circulating blood of ruminants?
lymphocyte
61
What are the functions of a lymphocyte?
B cells mature into B lymphocytes in the bone marrow and secrete antibodies. T cells migrate to and mature in the thymus and then they respont to antigens by activating phagocytes, natural killer cells (NK), antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen
62
What is the largest cell in the circulating blood?
monocytes
63
What are the functions of monocytes?
Plays a critical role in providing immunity. Processes foreign antigens and delivers them to lymphocytes increasing immune reaction. Phagocytosis of pathogens that neutrophils have not been effective against. Chief cell for eating "bad things"
64
What are the functions of eosinophils?
Detoxifying parasites. Regulates allergic and inflammation responses by releasing antihistamines from granules
65
What are the three granulocytes?
Eosinophils, Neutrophils, and Basophils
66
What are the two agranulocytes?
Lymphocytes and Monocytes
67
T or F. Basophils are common in circulating blood.
False
68
What are the functions of basohils?
Some what unknown Release histamine to provide neut's to the injury Prevent blood from clotting Release heparin from granules
69
What are the three main functions of platelets?
Clotting Preservation of capillary walls Transportation of substances from clotting and for constriction or dilation of blood vessels
70
Where do you look for clumped platelets?
feathered edge
71
What do platelets look like in dogs?
Generally a consistent size and shape
72
What do platelets look like in cats?
Usually vary in size and shape. Clump easy
73
What are macroplatelets?
Giant platelets that are larger than RBC's.
74
What numeric description would you want to include when you see macroplatelets?
slight, moderate, marked
75
What do we do with the blood smear?
Confirm the cell numbers provided by the automated cell count. Perform a differential count...differentiating between types of white blood cells and their relative numbers. Assess cellular morphology and structural components of the cells. Look for blood-borne parasites
76
What are blood smears made with?
EDTA whole blood
77
If the patient is anemic what would you want to do with your angle?
increase
78
If the patient is dehydrated what would you want to do with your angle?
decrease
79
T or F. It is okay if the blood smear falls off an edge
False
80
What are the 3 distinct areas on an ideal blood smear?
thick blood cell area, red cell area, feathered edge
81
How much of the slide should your blood smear make up?
1/2 to 3/4
82
Where would you want to do your WBC differential count and assess cell morphology?
Red cell area (Rainbow field/counting area)
83
How would you correct the problem if the smear is too short or too thick?
make the blood drop smaller and decrease the angle of the spreader slide
84
How would you correct the problem if the smear is too thin?
Increase the size of the blood drop, increase the angle of the spreader slide, and apply less pressure
85
What are the three parts of the Diff Quick Stain?
Fixative (light blue), Eosin stain (red), Methylene Blue (dark BLUE)
86
What is a good time in each of the three parts of the diff quick stain?
15 seconds
87
What do you want to do first when looking at your stained slide?
Asses the feathered edge for clumped platelets and heartworm microfilariae or other parasites
88
What do you want to do second when looking at your stained slide?
Move to the red cell area and do your WBC differential on 100x (oil)
89
How many WBC's do you want to count when doing a differential
100 WBC's
90
What else do you want to do besides your differential?
Assess morphology... RBC - are the cells normal shape and size and is the central pallor normal for the breed WBC - are the neutrophils mature or not, are the lymphocytes normal or reactive, are there inclusions Platelets - are there normal numbers and size
91
In order to be effective, the blood smear must have what four proper things?
sample mixing, smear technique, staining, and time
92
How much time do you have to make do your CBC post draw before cells start to deteriorate?
3 hours
93
What are absolute values?
getting the actual number of each cell circulating in the blood
94
What are thrombocytes?
Platelets
95
What are leukocytes?
WBC
96
Rouleaux
97
Agglutination
98
Segmented Neutrophil
99
Band Neutrophil
100
Hypersegmented Neutrophils
101
Lymphocytes
102
Monocytes
103
Eosinophils
104
Basophils
105
Thrombocytes (Platelets)
106
Macroplatelets (Giant Platelets)
