Heme/Onc Flashcards

1
Q

Triad of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

Hemolysis, cytopenias, and a hypercoagulable state (e.g. PVT)

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2
Q

CYP450 inducers that lead to decreased warfarin levels

A
  1. OCPs
  2. AEDs: carbamezepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital
  3. Rifamping
  4. Ginseng and St. John’s Wort
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3
Q

CYP450 inhibitors that lead to increased warfarin levels

A
  1. Acetaminophen and NSAIDs
  2. Some antibiotics and antifungals (e.g. metronidazole)
  3. SSRIs
  4. Amiodarone
  5. Cimetidine and omeprazole
  6. Thyroid hormone
  7. Gingko, cranberry juice, vitamin E
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4
Q

Reversal of warfarin

A

IV vitamin K plus prothrombin complex concentrate (or FFP if that is unavailable)

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5
Q

What is LMWH CI that unfractionated heparin is not?

A

ESRD

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6
Q

When do you treat ITP, and what with?

A

Bleeding or platelets <30k. Give steroids or IVIG

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7
Q

Triad of GVHD

A
  1. Dermatitis (maculopapular rash)
  2. Gastroenteritis (bloody diarrhea)
  3. Hepatitis (jaundice and elevated LFTs)
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8
Q

Marker for ALL

A

TdT

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9
Q

Transient visual disturbances, burning cyanosis in hands and feet, and itching in the shower

A

PV (can also see HTN and thrombosis)

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10
Q

Hyperviscosity syndrome in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

Diplopia, tinnitus, HA, and dilated/segmented fundoscopic findings
(Elevated IgM can also lead to neuropathy and cryogloblinemia).
(Infiltration can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, and thrombocytopenia)

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11
Q

Smudge cells

A

Pathognomonic for CLL

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12
Q

High mitotic index and “starry sky” appearance

A

Burkitt lymphoma

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13
Q

VHL syndrome

A
  1. Hemangioblastomas
  2. Clear cell RCC
  3. Phochromocytoma
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14
Q

Anterior mediastinal masses

A
  1. Thymoma
  2. Thyroid tumor
  3. Teratoma and germ cell tumors
  4. Terrible lymphoma
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15
Q

Middle mediastinal masses other than lymphomas and lymph nodes

A

Bronchogenic cysts and tracheal tumors

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16
Q

Posterior mediastinal masses other than lymphomas and lymph nodes

A

Neurogenic tumors

17
Q

Test required before starting rituximab

18
Q

Work-up for first provoked unprovoked thromboembolism

A

CXR and age-appropriate cancer screening

19
Q

Macrocytic anemia with elevated bilirubin

A

Intramedullary hemolysis in megaloblastic anemia

20
Q

Who is at risk for primary hypotensive transfusion reaction?

A

Patients on ACEIs (bradykinin accumulation in blood products leads to hypotension, ACE breaks down bradykinin)

21
Q

What do you do for the next transfusion for a patient who had anaphylaxis after an RBC transfusion?

A

Washed RBCs (to wash away IgA)

22
Q

What do you do for the next transfusion for a patient who had febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction after an RBC transfusion?

A

Leukoreduced RBCs (FNHTR due to antibodies against donor WBC or breakdown of donor WBC releasing cytokines)

23
Q

Finding on exam in X-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

Absent lymphoid tissue (tonsils and lymph nodes)

Will present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections after 6 months of age

24
Q

Recurrent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopenia.

What is the underlying defect?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndroe. Due to defect in regulation of actin cytoskeleton

25
Test for chronic granulomatous disease
Dihydrorodamine or nitroblue tetrazolium for lack of oxidative burst
26
Most common organism causing sepsis in sicklers
Pneumococcus (even if vaccinated)
27
Key side effect(s) of cyclophosphamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis and bladder cancer | Present with hydration and mesna
28
Key side effect(s) of platinum-based chemotherapies
Cochlear dysfunction
29
Electrolyte changes in tumor lysis syndrome
Elevations in phosphate, potassium, and uric acid, but hypocalcemia (precipitates with phosphate).