HemOnco Flashcards

(92 cards)

1
Q

ALL good prognostic factors?

A

Good prognostic factors
- Hyperdiploidy
• French-American-British (FAB) L1 type
• common ALL
• pre-B phenotype
• low initial WBC
• del (9p)
- trisomy 4,10&17
- t(12;21) > fusion protein TEL-AML1
- t (9;22) > low levels of resistance to chemo

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2
Q

ALL poor prognostic factors?

A
  • hypodiploidy
    • FAB L3 type
    • T or B cell surface markers
    • Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22)
    • age < 2 years or > 10 years
    • male sex
    • CNS involvement
    Non caucasian
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3
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Abdominal
Neurological
Psychiatric

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4
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Mutation of HMBS gene
(Codes for porphobilinogen deaminase)

Causes build up of Aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen

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5
Q

Alpha-globulin genes is located on which Chromosome?

A

16

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6
Q

Most useful prognostic marker for Myeloma?

A

Beta 2 microglobulin

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7
Q

Diagnostic test for lead poisoning?

A

Coproporphyrin in urine

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8
Q

Most common cause of svc obstruction?

A

Primary malignancy

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9
Q

1st line for CML?

A

Imatinib (tyrosine kinase inhibitor)

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10
Q

Drug that causes hemolysis in G6PD?

A

G6PD deficiency: sulph- drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine and sulfonylureas (glimepiride)

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11
Q

In idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura what are the autoantibodies most commonly directed at?

A

Glycoprotein IIb/Illa complex

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12
Q

Leucocyte Alkaline Phosphatase high in?

A

Raised in
• myelofibrosis
• leukaemoid reactions
• polycythaemia rubra vera
• infections
• steroids, Cushing’s syndrome
• pregnancy, oral contraceptive pill

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13
Q

Blood film in coeliac disease shows?

A

Hyposplenism e.g, pest-splenectomy, coellae disease (eceurs in around 30% of coellae patients)
• target cells
• Howell-Jolly bodies
• Pappenheimer bodies
• siderotic granules
• acanthoeytes

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14
Q
A
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15
Q

Genetic mutation associated with prostate cancer!

A

BRCA2

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16
Q

chemical mediator responsible for tissue oedema in hereditary angioedema?

A

Bradykinin

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17
Q

Patient starting rituximab should start?

A

Hepatitis B virus

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18
Q

Cisplatin MOA?

A

Causes cross-linking in DNA

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19
Q

Translocation with follicular lymphoma?

A

T(14:18)

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20
Q

Low LAP causes?

A

Low in
• chronic myeloid leukaemia
• pernicious anaemia
• paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
• infectious mononucleosis

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21
Q

High LAP?

A

• leukaemoid reactions
• Myelofibrosis
• polycythaemia rubra vera
• infections
• steroids, Cushing’s syndrome
• pregnancy, oral contraceptive pill

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22
Q

Most common cause of neutropenic sepsis

A

Gram positive , coagulase negative

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23
Q

NK1 receptor blocker for N&V?

A

Aprepitant

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24
Q

Cisplatin and cyclophosphamide MOA?

A

Cross linking DNA

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25
Mantle cell lymphoma translocation?
t(11:14)
26
Interferon alpha used in ttt of ?
Hairy cell leukemia
27
Docetaxel MOA?
Prevents microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, decreasing free tubulin
28
Best diagnostic test for PNH?
CD59- CD55
29
30
AML poor prognostic factors?
Deletion of chromosome 5&7
31
32
Confirming hereditary spherocytosis?
EMa binding test
33
TLS prevention?
Allopurinol or Rasuricase (preferred in high risk patients)
34
Ist line for ITP?
Oral prednisolone
35
Bombesin is a tumor marker for?
SCLC
36
Association with thymoma
Associated with • myasthenia gravis (30-40% of patients with thymoma • red cell aplasia • dermatomyositis • also : SLE, SIADH
37
Activated protein C resistance (factor V leiden) prevalence?
5% Most common inherited thrombophilia
38
Combined B and T cell deficiency?
SCID WAS Ataxic (Severe combined Immunodeficiency) (Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome) (ataxic Telangiectasia)
39
Problem in methaemoglobinemia?
Oxidation of Fe2> Fe3
40
Cold AIHA?
Mycoplasma EBV
41
Warm AIHA?
Lymphoma CLL Methyldopa
42
Initial management of APML (acute promyelocytic myeloid leukemia)
All-trans retinoic acid
43
APML (acute promyelocytic myeloid leukemia) features?
DIC: Hemorrhagic symptoms Thrombotic symptoms t(15;17)
44
TTP treatment of choice
Plasma exchange
45
Treatment of neutropenia
Filgratism (G-CSF)
46
Triad of WAS?
Recurrent chest infections Eczema Thrombocytopenia
47
Benign ethnic neutropenia in which ethnicity?
Black African or Afro-Caribbean
48
AML leukemia good prognosis >> Acute promyelocytic leukemia translocation?
t(15;17)
49
Complications of PRV
Myelofibrosis or AML (5-15%)
50
Urine darkens on standing in which condition?
Acute intermittent porphyria
51
Ttt of choice for essential thrombocytopenia?
Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide)
52
Skin prick test read after?
15-20 mins
53
Skin patch testing read after?
48 hours
54
Tumor markers for detecting recurrence of testicular teratoma?
Alpha-fetoprotein Beta-HCG
55
Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML)
t(15;17) DIC All-trans retinoic acid
56
Medication that targets breast cancer in post menopausal?
Anastrazole
57
Warfarin induced skin necrosis associated with
Protein C deficiency
58
Haemorrhagic cystitis due to cyclophosphamide prevention
Mesna
59
Factor V leiden risk due to?
10 times kore slowly activated by protein C
60
Factor V leiden risk due to?
10 times more slowly activated by activated protein C
61
Normal po2 with decreased oxygen saturation
Methaemoglobinemia 1st line >> IV methylene blue
62
CA 125
Primary peritoneal cancer Ovarian cancer
63
Drugs that cause methemoglobinemia?
Co-trimoxazole Sulphonamides Primaquine Nitrates Sodium nitroprosside Dapsone
64
Cancer associated with HTLV-1
Adult T cell leukemia
65
DIC blood film
Schistocytes Helmet cells
66
CLL investigation of choice
Immunophenotyping CD (5/23/19/20)
67
Infection associated with platelet transfusion
Bacterial
68
Translocation with follicular lymphoma?
(14;18) Causing increased BCL-2 transcription
69
Dapsone used for …. Causes ….
Dermatitis herpitiforms (with coeliac disease) Causes methemoglobinemia
70
Cisplatin S/E?
Nephrotoxicity (the primary dose-limiting side effect) Ototoxicity peripheral neuropathy hypomagnesaemia
71
Mx of CLL?
FCR
72
Causes of sideroblastic anemia
Congenital cause: delta-aminolevulinate synthase-2 deficiency Acquired causes • myelodysplasia • alcohol • lead • anti-TB medications
73
TA-GvHD presentation
4-30 days after transfusion Fever - Diarrhea - liver dysfunction- BM suppression- rash
74
TA-GvHD prevention
Irradiation
75
Neutropenic sepsis caused by
Coagulase negative, gram positive bacteria staph epidermidis
76
Raynaud’s see in which type of cyroglobulinemia
Type I
77
Advantage of capecitabine over fluorouracil?
Oral administration
78
Poor prognostic factor in ALL
Philadelphia chromosome
79
Warm AIHA?
Lupus Leukemia Lymphoma
80
Most common presenting symptom for myelofibrosis?
Lethargy
81
Burkitts lymphoma translocation
t(8;14) C-myc gene translocation
82
Most important determinant for giving cryopercipitate
Low fibrinogen level
83
SE of aromatase inhibitors (anastrazole)
Osteoporosis
84
Purpose of blood product irradiation
Depleted T-lymphocyte numbers reduce the risk of transfusion graft versus host disease
85
Bacterial infection after transfusion of which blood product
Platelets
86
Most common reason for increased susceptibility to infections in CLL?
Hypogammaglobulinemia
87
Hodgkin’s lymphoma type with best prognosis
Lymphocyte predominant
88
Hodgkin’s lymphoma type with worst prognosis
Lymphocyte depleted
89
Most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphma
Nodular sclerosing
90
t(14;18)
Follicular lymphoma Due to increased BCL-2 transcription
91
First line ttt for Methemoglobinemia
Methylene Blue
92