Hepatic and Biliary Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Which coagulation factors does the liver NOT synthesize?

A

3, 4, 8, vWF

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2
Q

How many segments is the liver split into?

A

8 segments

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3
Q

What seprates the R and L lobes of the liver? Which lobe is bigger?

A

Falciform Ligament; Right lobe is bigger

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4
Q

Which vein and artery branch into each segment to perfuse the liver?

A

Portal Vein
Hepatic Artery

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5
Q

What are the names of the 3 hepatic veins and where do they empty into that perfuse the liver?

A

Right, Middle, Left Hepatic Veins
Empty into the IVC

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6
Q

What vessel do the bile ducts travel among?

A

Portal Veins

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7
Q

Bile drains through the _______ into the _____ and ______

A

Bile drains through the hepatic duct into the gallbladder and common bile duct

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8
Q

Through what structure does bile enter the duodenum?

A

Ampulla of Vater

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9
Q

How much % of the CO does the liver receive?

A

25% of CO

**Highest proportionate **CO of all the organs

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10
Q

How much of the hepatic blood flow does the Portal vein provide?

A

75% of Hepatic blood flow

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11
Q

What 2 veins does the portal vein arise from?

A

Splanchnic Vein & Superior mesenteric vein

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12
Q

Is the Portal vein oxygenated or deoxygenated?

A

**Partially deoxygenated **after perfusing GI, Pancreas and spleen

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13
Q

How much of the hepatic blood flow does the Hepatic Artery provide?

A

25% of HBF (Branches off aorta)

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14
Q

Does the portal vein or hepatic artery provide more O2 delivery to the liver?

A

The portal vein and hepatic artery each supply 50% of the oxygenation

The portal vein is partially deoxygenated

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15
Q

Hepatic artery and portal vein blood flow are _____ related

A

Inversely

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16
Q

Hepatic blood flow is….

A

Autoregulate

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17
Q

What would the hepatic artery do if portal venous blood flow was low?

A

Hepatic artery would dilate

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18
Q

What does the portal venous pressure most closely reflect?

A

Splanchnic Arterial Tone & Intra-hepatic pressure

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19
Q

What is the consequence of increased portal venous presure?

A

Esophageal Varicies & Gastric Varicies

Blood backs up into the systemic circulation

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20
Q

What is the Hepatic venous pressure gradient used for and what is a normal value?

A

Severity of portal hypertension
Normal gradient: 1-5

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21
Q

What does a HVPG of >10 indicate?

A

Significant Portal HTN (Cirrhosis, esoph. varicies)

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22
Q

What does a HVPG of >12 indicate?

A

Variceal Rupture

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23
Q

Do risk factors or symptoms offer a greater degree of suspicion for liver function?

A

Risk Factors

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24
Q

What would you see on physical exam for someone with liver disease?

A
  1. Pruritis (Bilirubin build up)
  2. Jaundice
  3. Ascites
  4. Asterixis (Flapping tremor)
  5. Hepatomegaly
  6. Splenomegaly
  7. Spider Nevi (Spider vessels s/e of venous congestion)
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25
What are the 2 major liver-specific Hepato-biliary function tests?
Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST) Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
26
What are the AST/ALT Labs for Acute liver failure?
AST/ALT elevated 25x for ALF (not chronically trending up)
27
What are the AST/ALT Labs for alcoholic liver disease?
AST:ALT ratio 2:1 (AST is usually higher)
28
What are the AST/ALT Labs for Non-Alcoholic Fatty liver disease?
AST:ALT ratio 1:1
29
What will the labs look like for hepatocellular injury?
Increased AST/ALT Decreased Albumin Increased PTT Increased Conjugated Bilirubin
30
What is cholestasis?
Sluggish/lack of bile flow from the liver
31
What will the labs look like for cholestasis?
Normal AST/ALT Increased Alkaline Phosphate Increased GGT Increased Conjugated bilirubin
32
What are gallstones called?
Cholelithiasis
33
What is the function of the gallbladder?
Gallbladder stores bile to deliver it during meals (in boluses)
34
What is the function of the CBD?
CBD secretes bile directly into the duodenum
35
What is the function of bile?
Breakdown fatty acids for absorption
36
Risk Factors for gallstones?
1. Obesity 2. Inc. Cholesterol (Stones might be made out of cholesterol) 3. DM 4. Pregnancy 5. Female 6. Family Hx
37
What percent of gallstones are asymptomatic?
80%
38
If you have gallstones, where will you experience pain?
RUQ pain referred to shoulders
39
What type of GI symptoms will gallstones produce?
Nausea, Vomiting, Fever, Indigestion (can't break down fatty acids therefore no moving food forward)
40
What is the treatment for gallstones?
Conservative Tx -IVF to restore flow -ABX -Pain Management
41
What is Choledocolithiasis?
When a stone is obstructing the CBD causing biliary colic. The bile refluxes back and can't move forward
42
What are the initial s/s of choledocolithiasis?
N/V, Cramp, RUQ pain, Cholingitis (Fever, rigors, jaundice)
43
What is the treatment for choledocolithiasis?
Endoscopic removal of the stone via ERCP
44
What path does a surgeon take during an ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography)?
Sphincter of oddi --> Ampula of Vater --> to retrieve stone from pancreatic duct or CBD
45
What position is someone in for a ERCP?
Gen. Anesthesia: Prone Head to patient's Right ETT taped to the patient's left
46
What medication can you give for a oddi spasm?
1 mg Glucagon
47
What is bilirubin?
End product of hemaglobin Breakdown
48
Unconjugated bilirubin or "indirect" bilirubin is protein bound to ____, transported to the ____, conjugated into its ______ _______ state, and excreted in the ______
Albumin, Liver, Water soluble, bile
49
What is Unconjugated (Indirect) Hyperbilirubinemia?
Imbalance between bilirubin synthesis and conjugation
50
What is Conjugated (Direct) Hyperbilirubinemia?
Caused by an obstruction resulting in reflux of conjugated bilirubin into the circulation
51
Which Viral hepatitis (ABCDE) is more chronic?
B & C
52
Which type of hepatitis is the most common, requiring liver transplant in the US
HCV
53
HCV treatment is based on
Genotype (75% is type 1) Stage +/- cirrhosis (irreversible when cirrhosis is in the picture)
54
Most HCV can be cured by what drug?
Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir
55
Symptoms of HCV
1. Fatigue 2. Jaundice 3. N/V 4. Lack of appetite 5. Bleeding/Bruising 6. Dark urine
56
Which hepatitis is bloodborne?
B & C
57
Is Hep. B or C more likely to be chronic in adults?
C is more chronic (75%)
58
What is the incubation period of Hep. B and C?
B: 4 months C: 1-2 months
59
What is mortality for Hep B and C?
B: Low mortality C: Unknown mortality
60
Alcoholic liver disease is the most common cause of what?
Cirrhosis | ALD is also top indicator of **liver transplants** in the US
61
What platelet count requires blood transfusion for ALD patient?
PLT < 50,000
62
When do alcohol withdrawal symptoms show up?
24-72 hrs after stopping
63
Symptoms of ALD?
1. Malnutrition 2. Muscle wasting 3. Parotid gland hypertrophy 4. Jaundice 5. Thrombocytopenia 6. Ascites 7. Hepatosplenomegaly 8. Pedal Edema 9. ETOH withdrawal
64
What are the lab values in ALD?
Increased: MCV, Liver enzymes, GGT, Bilirubin
65
When is NAFLD diagnosed?
Hepatocytes > 5% fat
66
Risk Factors for NAFLD?
1. Obesity 2. Insulin Resistance 3. DM2 4. Metabolic Syndrome
67
What is the gold standard for distinguishing NAFLD from other liver diseases?
Liver biopsy
68
Tx for NAFLD?
Fat Reduction (Diet and Exercise)
69
What are the main differences between NAFLD and AFLD?
NAFLD can progress for a long time, AFLD advances to cirrhosis very fast
70
What % of people have NAFLD, regardless of weight?
25%
71
Who is affected by autoimmune hepatitis and what do the labs look like? What is the treatment?
* Women are more affected * Lab: + autoantibodies and Increased Gammaglobinemia AST/ALT 10-20x normal * Treatment: Steroids, Azathioprine | 60-80% achieve remission, relapse common then liver transplant
72
What is the most common cause of drug induced liver injury?
Acetaminophen OD
73
What is Wilson's Disease?
Autosomal Recessive Dx - Impaired copper metabolism Copper buildup leads to oxidative stress in the liver, basal ganglia and cornea
74
Symptoms of wilson's dx?
Asymptomatic to sudden onset liver failure with Neuro and psychiatric manifestations
75
Treatment of Wilson's Dx?
Copper chelation therapy and oral zinc to bind the copper in GI tract
76
What is a-1 antitrypsin protein's function?
Protects the liver and lungs from neutrophil elastase which is an enzyme that disrupts lung & liver tissue
77
A-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a ____ disorder
Rare resulting in a-1 AT deficiency and decreased protection from neutrophil elastase #1 genetic cause of liver transplant in children
78
Treatment for a1AT deficiency?
Pooled a-1 AT is good for pulmonary effects, but does not help with liver disease
79
What is the only curative Tx for liver disease in a-1 AT deficiency?
Liver Transplant
80
What is hemochromatosis?
Excessive intestinal absorption of iron (from blood/iron transfusions) resulting in iron accumulation in organs and damage to tissues
81
What is presenting s/s of hemochromatosis?
1. Cirrhosis 2. HF 3. DM 4. Adrenal insufficiency 5. Polyarthropathy
82
Labs in hemochromatosis?
Increased AST/ALT Increased Transferrin Saturation Increased Ferritin
83
What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Autoimmune, chronic inflammation of the larger bile ducts Male > Female onset in the 40's Fibrosis in the biliary tree leads to strictures and cirrhosis
84
What are s/s of primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Itching & deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins (ADEK)
85
Dx and Tx for PSC?
Dx: ERCP that shows the strictures with dilated bile ducts Tx: No drugs, liver transplant but recurrence is common after transplant due to autoimmune nature
86
What is primary Biliary Cholangitis?
Destruction of bile ducts with portal inflammation and cholestasis leading to liver scarring, fibrosis and cirrhosis Females > males dx in middle ages Caused by exposure to env. toxins
87
Only treatment for primary biliary cholangitis?
Bile acids slow progression but are invasive to stomach lining
88
How can you tell the difference between PSC and PBC?
Primary sclerosing is intrahepatic and extrahepatic while primary biliary is intrahepatic only
89
What characterizes acute liver failure?
Massive hepatocyte necrosis leading to cellular swelling and membrane disruption RUQ pain, cerebral edema, encephalopathy, jaundice
90
What characterizes cirrhosis?
Final stage of liver disease (replacement of normal tissue with scar tissue) -Elevated Labs, Thrombocytopenia -Asymptomatic in early stages -Normal liver parenchyma with scar tissue
91
What is the most common complication of cirrhosis?
Ascites
92
What is ascites?
Portal HTN leads to increased blood volume and peritoneal fluid accumulation Tx: Low salt and albumin
93
What can "Put a bandaid on things for ascites and cirrhosis?"
TIPS Procedure (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt) -Reduces Portal HTN and ascites
94
what is the most common infection r/t cirrhosis?
Bacterial peritonitis from ascites
95
Varicies are present in ___ % of cirrhosis patients with _____ being the most lethal complication
50%; Hemorrhage
96
What can you give to reduce risk of variceal hemorrhage?
Beta blockers
97
What is hepatic encephalopathy?
Buildup of nitrogenous waste products due to poor liver detoxification leading to cognitive impairment --> coma
98
What is the tx for hepatic encephalopathy
Lactulose Rifaximin (ABX to remain in the gut)
99
What is hepatorenal syndrome?
Excess production of endogenous vasodilators (NO, PGDs) resulting in Decreased. SVR and decreased RBF
100
Tx for hepatorenal syndrome?
Midodrine, Octreotide, Albumin
101
What is hepatopulmonary syndrome?
Triad of Liver dx, Hypoxemia, Intrapulmonary vascular dilation -Platypnea: Hypoxemia when upright due to R-L intrapulmonary shunt
102
What is portopuolmonary HTN
Pulmonary HTN accompanied by portal HTN because systemic vasodilation triggers production of pulmonary vasoconstrictors
103
Treatment for portopulmonary HTN
Prostaglandin Inhibitors (PD-I), NO, Prostacyclin analogs, endothelin receptor antagonists
104
Child-turcotte-Pugh scoring system assigns points based on:
1. bilirubin 2. Albumin 3. +/- encephalopathy 4. Ascites
105
Model for end stage liver disease (MELD) scores based on:
1. Bilirubin 2. INR 3. Cr 4. Sodium
106
MELD or CCA < 10 means what?
Proceed to OR
107
MELD 10-15 or Child Class B with portal HTN should go or not go to the OR?
Consider TIPS placement, optimize patient before OR
108
MELD 10-15 or Child Class B without portal HTN should go or not go to the OR?
Proceed to OR with careful monitoring
109
Are colloids or crystalloids preferred for liver patients?
colloids
110
What does chronic ETOH use do to MAC levels?
Chronic ETOH needs increased MAC of Volatiles Late stage: Lower tolerance and Inc. sensitivity to volatiles
111
What are the best drugs for liver patients that are not liver metabolized?
Succs and cisatracurium
112
What might be decreased in severe liver disease?
Plasma cholinesterase
113
What is a surgeon doing during TIPS procedure?
Stent or graph placed between hepatic and portal veins to shunt the portal flow to the systemic circulation -Decreases the portosystemic pressure gradient
114
Indications for TIPS procedure?
1. Refractory variceal hemorrhage 2. Refractory Ascites
115
Contraindications for TIPS?
1. HF 2. Tricuspid Regurgitation 3. Severe pulmonary HTN
116
What is a partial hepatectomy used for?
Resection to remove neoplasms (up to 75%), leaving adequate tissue for regeneration
117
Anesthetic considerations for hepatectomy?
1. Invasive monitoring 2. Blood products 3. Adequate vascular access for pressors
118
What is standard practice in an partial hepatectomy?
Fluid restrict to maintain low CVP prior to resection to reduce blood loss -Pt. require post-op PCA
119
What is a common post-op complication of liver resection?
Coagulation disturbances