HH-60G Vol. 3

Question 1

How long is a preflight good for?

Answer 1

72 hours

Question 2

Weather Minimums

Answer 2

Day: 700 ft. ceiling & 1 SM
Night Unaided: 1,000 ft. ceiling & 3 SM
Night Aided: 700 ft. ceiling, 2 SM

Question 3

What is the minimum fuel quantity we are required to land with?

Answer 3

500 lbs.

Question 4

Single ship LZ minimum

Answer 4

25 ft. clearance from any portion of the helicopter from the nearest obstacle

Question 5

Multi-ship LZ minimum

Answer 5

Must provide one rotor diameter width between aircraft and 25 ft. of clearance from the nearest obstacle

Question 6

When ambient illumination doesn’t meet NVG requirements, what are the minimums?

Answer 6

Non-mountainous: 500 ft. AGL
Mountainous: 500 ft. AHO within 2 NM of course centerline

Question 7

How are mountainous areas defined?

Answer 7

An area of changing terrain where terrain elevation exceeds 3,000 ft. within 10 NM

Question 8

What is the minimum HAAR altitude?

Answer 8

1,000 ft. AGL/AWL

Question 9

What are the parameters for fuel dumping?

Answer 9

Must be at a minimum 3,000 ft. AGL, cannot be over agricultural or populated areas, and only in an emergency or out of operational necessity.

Question 10

When will TOLD be computed and briefed?

Answer 10

Prior to takeoff

Question 11

What is the maximum airspeed of forward flight with personnel attached to the rope ladder?

Answer 11

40 KIAS

Question 12

How many strobes can be inoperative for flight?

Answer 12

One

Question 13

What are the aircraft taxi restrictions?

Answer 13

Taxi no closer than 25 ft. without a wing walker, 10 ft. with a wing walker, and no faster than 15 knots ground

Question 14

When will power have to be recomputed for verification of numbers? What might be needed after that?

Answer 14

When required power is within 10% of of available power. The use of contingency power for the T/O or landing.

Question 15

Pinnacle power requirement

Answer 15

Operational/Training: OGE

Question 16

Clear Escape Route power requirement

Answer 16

Operational/Training: 10ft. / 10ft. + 5%

Question 17

Restricted Escape Route power requirement

Answer 17

Operational/Training: OGE/ OGE + 5%

Question 18

Water operations power requirement

Answer 18

Operational/Training: OGE/OGE + 5%

Question 19

Restricted Visibility operations power requirement

Answer 19

Operational/Training: 10 ft. + 5%/ OGE + 5%

Question 20

High reconnaissance parameters

Answer 20

No lower than 150 ft. ASE and no faster than 50 KIAS

Question 21

Low reconnaissance parameters

Answer 21

Minimum of 50 ft. AHO and a minimum of 50 KIAS or SEAS

Question 22

Prohibited maneuvers

Answer 22

Actual engine shutdown, deliberately entering vortex ring state or power settling, dual DEC malfunctions, intentional removal of primary AC power

Question 23

A minimum of _____ mainwheel clearance will be used for all contact hovering maneuvers.

Answer 23

10 ft. AGL

Question 24

Marginal power takeoff

Answer 24

10 ft. hover power w/ a simulated 50 ft. obstacle

Question 25

Maximum performance takeoff

Answer 25

OGE + 5% or as specified by IP and a simulated 100 ft. obstacle

Question 26

Rolling Takeoff

Answer 26

10 ft. hover power -10%

Question 27

Down wind legs will be flown at ____ and ____. During the turn to base, descend to ____ and slow the aircraft to ____.

Answer 27

500 ft. AGL/ 100 KIAS 300 ft. AGL/ 80 KIAS

Question 28

Normal Approach Parameters

Answer 28

300 ft. AGL, 80 KIAS, and a 30° apparent angle

Question 29

Shallow Approach Parameters

Answer 29

300 ft. AGL, 80 KIAS, 10° apparent angle

Question 30

Steep Approach Parameters

Answer 30

300 ft. AGL, 50 knots ground, and a 45° apparent angle

Question 31

Roll-on Landing Parameters

Answer 31

Entry airspeed cannot be more than 70 KIAS or SEAS, max touchdown speed is 60 knots ground

Question 32

What EPs are approved for contact training?

Answer 32

Single-engine training, stabilator malfunctions, boost/SAS off, and DEC lockout

Question 33

0-90° Autorotation Entry Altitude

Answer 33

500 ft. AGL

Question 34

91-180° Autorotation Entry Altitude

Answer 34

800 ft. AGL

Question 35

Aircraft heading will be no greater than ___ from wind direction when winds exceed ___ knots and will be no greater than ___ from wind direction when winds are ____ and below.

Answer 35

45°/15 knots 90°/15 knots

Question 36

Minimum Entry Altitude for Low Altitude Autorotation

Answer 36

100 ft. AGL

Question 37

What does WAR80 stand for? When does it apply?

Answer 37

- Wings level, aligned for landing, RPM within limits, and minimum of 80 KIAS - When recovering from an autorotation. Must occur before 150 ft. AGL

Question 38

When must a power recovery be performed? When must it be terminated?

Answer 38

- In case of excessive sink rate, rotor RPM out of briefed parameters, ineffective flare maneuver, or if a touchdown might occur. - No lower than 15 ft. AGL

Question 39

Night Autorotation Parameters

Answer 39

All crew members must be aided by NVGs and illumination must be at or above 40% when performing on an unlit surface.

Question 40

What are the standard crew call times for deploying personnel?

Answer 40

20, 10, 5, and 1 minute

Question 41

Minimum rotor diameter separation in formation is ____ rotor diameter. This is based on the ______ rotor disk in the formation.

Answer 41

1, largest

Question 42

Night turning rejoins are limited to ___ angle of bank and ____ .

Answer 42

20°/80 KIAS

Question 43

When flying in formation less than 3 rotor disk, what are the only authorized maneuvers?

Answer 43

Shackle, split, cover, and dig

Question 44

What two turns will not be accomplished at night?

Answer 44

Cross and center turns

Question 45

When conducting TFM maneuvers at night, what maneuvers must a rollout heading be called out for?

Answer 45

Break, split, hook, and tac turns

Question 46

Low illumination definition and restrictions

Answer 46

Defined as less than 10% illumination. Formation geometry will not exceed 1-3 rotor disk and 30° apparent aspect unless additional non-visual station keeping methods are used.

Question 47

Medium illumination definition and restrictions

Answer 47

Defined as a range between 10-40% illumination. Formation geometry will not exceed 1-10 rotor disks and a 45° apparent aspect unless additional non-visual station keeping methods are used.

Question 48

High illumination definition and restrictions

Answer 48

Defined as greater than 40% illumination. Minimum aircraft separation is 1 rotor disk. The maximum is based on environmental conditions, crew experience, threat situation, and mission requirements IAW AFTTP 3-3

Question 49

Minimum distance required between taxiing aircraft?

Answer 49

100 ft. of spacing from main rotor to tail rotor.

Question 50

During NVG water ops do not exceed ____ when below ____.

Answer 50

30° angle of bank, 100 ft. AWL

Question 51

The observation pass will be performed above translational lift and a minimum of ___. Do not perform during NVG water operations.

Answer 51

25 ft. AWL

Question 52

The FRIES bar must be extended and locked prior to _____.

Answer 52

Final approach.

Question 53

If requested by the deploying rope master, the aircraft may have a maximum forward ground speed of ___.

Answer 53

5 knots

Question 54

What are the primary and secondary rappelling attachment points?

Answer 54

Primary I the FRIES bar releasing mechanism. Secondary can be the upper cargo net restraint ring, cargo tie down ring, or opposite FRIES bar release mechanism.

Question 55

What is the maximum number of personnel allowed on the ladder?

Answer 55

3

Question 56

What is anticipated blind?

Answer 56

When terrain/environmental factors cause a loss of visual cues for a short duration or when visual cues are lost when using a pre-coordinated non-visual station keeping that provides sufficient situational awareness to ensure deconfliction

Question 57

What is unanticipated blind?

Answer 57

Visual cues required for formation separation no longer provide sufficient distance, aspect, or closure rate cues to ensure deconfliction. Could also occur when non-visual methods do not provide sufficient situational awareness to ensure positive deconfliction.