High Yield - Oral Path Flashcards
(107 cards)
1
Q
________ is seen with hypertrophic filiform papilla. ________ is seen with hyperplastic foliate papilla.
A
Hairy tongue; Lingual tonsil hyperplasia
2
Q
What disorder involves many apthous ulcers?
A
Behcet’s syndrome
3
Q
_______ are pathognumonic for measles.
A
Koplick spots
4
Q
What is an epstein pearl?
A
Seen on palate of children
5
Q
Cavernous sinus thrombosis can be caused by an infection _______.
A
in the upper lip (danger triangle)
6
Q
What are the first signs of CST?
A
Headaches, blurred vision
7
Q
What spaces are involved in ludwig angina?
A
Sublingual, submental, submandibular
8
Q
Mandibular 2nd molar infection spreads to what space?
A
Submandibular
9
Q
What is a distinct characteristic of Treacher Collins?
A
Malformed ear
10
Q
Strawberry tongue is seen in what diseas?
A
Scarlet fever
11
Q
What is a fordyce granule?
A
Ectopic sebaceous gland
12
Q
Most likely cause of Turner’s tooth?
A
Trauma when young
13
Q
T/F: Apthous ulcers are normally found on keratinized tissue.
A
False
Apthous - nonkeratinized
Herpes - free and attached mucosa
14
Q
What are the major differences between pemphigoid and pemphigus?
A
Pemphigoid = subepithelial, seperation of basement membrane, ocular lesions Pemphigus = surface lesions (intraepithelial, suprabasilar), localized, skin lesions.
15
Q
T/F: Pemphigoid and lichen planus are associated with desquamative gingivitis.
A
True
16
Q
T/F: Epidermolysis bullosa is most likely seen in adults.
A
False
Kids
17
Q
Which virus causes condyloma acuminatum?
A
HPV 6 and 11
18
Q
T/F: Candidiasis can be wiped off.
A
True
19
Q
What are common places for recurrent herpes?
A
Lip, gingiva, palate
20
Q
T/F: Herpes zoster can mimic dental pain.
A
True
21
Q
How does acyclovir work?
A
Inhibits mRNA
22
Q
T/F: Histoplasmosis can mimic cancer.
A
True
23
Q
Which disease can have the complication of herpetic neuralgia?
A
Herpes Zoster
24
Q
_______ are often seen near the premolars and grow very rapidly.
A
Pyogenic granuloma
25
What is the most common benign neoplasm of epithelial tissue origin? Has cauliflower appearance.
papilloma
26
Epulis fissuratum most closely resembles a _______.
fibroma
27
Congenital epulis most closely resembles _______.
granular cell tumor
28
T/F: Incisional biopsy for leukoplakia.
True
29
Which type of leukemia is associated with Philadelphia chromosome?
CML
30
20 year old patient, spontaneously bleeding gums, bruises easily. Diagnosis?
Leukemia
31
What is the most common leukemia in children?
ALL
32
Young man with tingling lower lip, diffuse radiating trabeculae with swelling. Diagnosis.
Osteosarcoma
33
Verrucous carcinoma often is caused by ______.
smokeless tobacco
34
Most common salivary gland benign tumor?
Pleomorphic adenoma
35
Most common malignant salivary gland tumor?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
36
Which salivary gland tumors have the best prognosis?
Acinar cell carcinoma, Mixed tumor (pleomorphic adinoma)
37
Which tumor involves peripheral invasion and looks like swiss cheese?
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
38
What type of cyst can lead to ameloblastoma?
Dentigerous cyst
39
What is the most aggressive and most common odontogenic tumor?
Ameloblastoma
40
Gardner's syndrome involves multiple _______.
odontomas
41
Radiograph shows maxillary canine surrounded by mixed radiolucent lesion?
AOT
42
Panoramic shows many teeth with open contacts and little enamel?
Amelogenesis imperfecta.
| Autosomal dominant
43
What is often seen with osteogenesis imperfecta?
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
44
T/F: Ectodermal dysplasia is often associated with dentinogenesis hyperplasia.
False
Ectoderm = enamel
45
Difference between dentinogenesis imperfecta and dentin dysplasia?
DI - Crowns short and bulbous, narrow root, obliterated pulp
| DD - Short roots, obliterated pulp, radiolucency, and mobile
46
Difference between type I and type II dentinal dysplasia?
Type 1 - pulp obliteration
| Type 2 - large pulp chamber
47
T/F: Short roots = dentin dysplasia.
True
48
T/F: Congenitally missing teeth (oligodontia) are often seen in ectodermal dysplasia.
True
49
T/F: Blue sclera is seen in osteogenesis imperfecta
True
50
Bilatteral jaw expansion in kid.
Cherubism
51
Large radiopacity with ground glass appearence?
Fibrous dysplasia
52
Cafe-au-lait spots and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia in which disorder?
McCune Albright
53
What treatment for traumatic bone cyst?
None
54
Cotton wool appearance in skull and increased alkaline phosphatase?
Paget's disease
55
T/F: Paget's disease has high potential for turning malignant.
True
Can lead to osteosarcoma
56
Teeth floating in air.
Langerhans histocytosis (Hand Schuller Christian)
57
Multiple OKCs seen in which disorder?
Gorlin's syndrome. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma
58
T/F: OKCs have a high recurrence rate.
True
59
Multiple osteomas and intestinal polyps.
Gardner's syndrome
GI polyps can turn malignant
60
Unilateral facial paralysis.
Bell's palsy
61
Best imaging for TMJ?
MRI
62
Which parts of TMJ responsible for rotation?
Condyle and articulating disk
63
Football player with tenderness of temporalis and hard to open mouth in morning?
Myofacial pain syndrome
64
T/F: Erythema multiform and pemphigus both show nikolski sign.
True
65
What is the most common location for mucocele?
Lower lip
66
T/F: Ranula is due to trauma.
True
67
Sialoliths are most commonly associated with which duct?
Submandibular
68
What is the inverted Y in maxillary radiograph?
Floor of nasal fossa, maxillary sinus
69
What is another name for antral pseudocyst?
Mucous retention cyst
70
Describe radiolucency in dentigerous cyst?
From one CEJ to other surrounding crown
71
What does TB look like in mouth?
Large Ulcer
72
Oral granulomas, apthous ulcer, rectal bleeding.
Chrohn's
73
What is most common nonodontogenic cyst?
Nasopalatine cyst (heart shaped radiograph)
74
White area cannot be wiped off?
Leukoplakia or white sponge nevus
75
T/F: White sponge nevus will often be seen on the gingival margin and tongue.
False
Mostly buccal mucosa
76
What is Carbamazapine use for?
Trigeminal neuralgia
77
T/F: Actinic cheilitis can lead to SCC.
True
78
30-50 year old female with mixed lesions on anterior mandible. Teeth are vital.
Cemento osseous dysplasia
79
What cells are targeted in lichen planus?
T lymphocytes
80
T/F: Cafe-au-lait spots with neurofibromatosis.
True
81
Talon cusp seen in _________
dens evagenatus
82
Warthin tumor is seen in which gland?
Parotid
83
What is a stafne defect?
Radiolucency seen due to depression in mandible for submandibular gland.
84
What are other terms for stafne defect?
Stafne bone cyst, salivary inclusion
85
T/F: Rheumatoid arthritis often accompanies Sjorgrens syndrome.
True
86
Multiple freckles on lips.
Peutz-Jeghers
87
First sign of osteosarcoma?
Widening of PDL
88
Soap bubble (honeycomb) lesion, moves teeth, often seen in posterior mandible.
Odontogenic myxoma
89
Most of the xray is converted to ____.
heat
90
Why oil in xray tube?
Cools off anode
91
Max dose of radiation for dental personel?
50msv/year
92
What is the purpose of collimater?
Reduce area of exposure, reduce scatter, increase penetrability
93
What material is used as a filter?
Aluminum
94
What is the target metal in an xray tube?
Tungsten
95
What provides the greatest decrease in radiation to patient?
Rectangular collimator
96
Wide anterior teeth in pan?
Too far back
97
Very long anterior maxillary teeth in pan.
Chin too far down
98
Pan has reverse occlusal plane.
Chin to high
99
What is the pneumbra?
Fuzziness on outside of radiograph. Decreased contrast.
100
How to avoid problems with pneumbra?
decrease size of focal spot, increase distance to source object, be sure of parallelism
101
Which xray is most important for maxillary sinus?
Waters, or CT
102
Radiographic image appears to light.
Underexposed, low mA or short exposure
103
How does xray damage cells?
Hydrolysis of water molecules
104
Which cells are least likely to be damaged by xrays?
Muscle
105
T/F: Multiple myeloma is treated with bisphosphonates
False
106
T/F: Ortho is contraindicated in pt taking bisphosphonate.
True
107
Higher KPV = higher _____.
energy (shorter wavelength)
