High Yield (UWORLD) Flashcards
(136 cards)
1
Q
what drugs would you give to someone who is on the max dose of a statin but the LDL level is still not controlled and they have severe hyperlipidemia
A
PCSK9 Inhibitors Evolocumab and Alirocumab
2
Q
De Musset sign
A
Sign in aortic regurgitation in which there is head bobbing
3
Q
Muller sign
A
Uvula bobbing that is present in aortic regurgitation
4
Q
Duroziez sign
A
Pistol shot that is heard when listening to the femoral arteries that is present in aortic regurgitation
5
Q
Grey turner sign
A
Ecchymoses on the back and flank area, sign of AAA
6
Q
Cullen sign
A
Ecchymoses around umbilicus sign of AAA
7
Q
Leriche syndrome
A
Atherosclerotic occlusion of the aorta right above the bifurcation that causes impotence, claudication and absent or diminished femoral pulses
8
Q
ABI <0.9
A
Blockage of arteries (intermittent claudication , rest pain )
9
Q
ABI>1.4
A
Arteries that cannot be compressed (severe disease)
10
Q
ABI 0.9 -1.4
A
No blockage in the artery
11
Q
Good drug treatment for peripheral vascular disease
A
Cilostazol
12
Q
Treatment for hospital acquired pneumonia
A
Cefepime or ceftazidime
Pip/tazo
Carbapenems
13
Q
Treatment for community acquired pneumonia
A
Azithromycin
Doxocylcline
Levofloxacin
14
Q
Treatment for p jiroveci
A
TMP SMX
atovaquone (mild form)
Clincamycine or prumaquine if there is TMP SMX toxicity
15
Q
what drug slows the rate of pulmonary fibrosis
A
pirfenidone and nintedanib
16
Q
what is the drug that is safe to use with heparin induced thrmobocytopenia
A
fondaparinux
17
Q
what drug reverses the effects of dabigatran
A
idarucizumab
18
Q
ARDS has a po2/FiO2 ratio of
A
<300
19
Q
treatment for eosinophilic esophagitis
A
PPI, remove allergic food and if bad aersol steroids
20
Q
treatment for infectious esophagitis (candida)
A
fuconazole
21
Q
treatment for Schatzki ring
A
pneumatic dilation
22
Q
treatment for plummer vinson
A
first treat FE anemia
23
Q
treatment for zenker
A
surgery
24
Q
what test should never be done one someone with zenker
A
NG tube or upper endoscopy, could be fatal
25
treatment for esophagus problems associated with scleroderma
PPI
26
what does pyrosis mean
heartburn
27
what treatments can be used for GERD patients who do not respond to PPI
```
Nissen fundoplication (wrap stomach around LES)
Endocinch (suture put into LES)
heat and radiation of LES to casue scar
```
28
treatment for H pylori
PPI, clarithromycin and amoxicillin
| use metronidazole if PNC is allergic
29
what is the best test for diabetic gastroperiesis
nuclear gastric emptying study
30
what is the treatment for diabetic gastroperesis
erythromycine and metoclopramide
31
drug to give for variceal bleeding
ocreotide
32
what medication is given to decreases the times variceal bleeding will occur in the future
b-blocker (propranolol)
33
what procedure can be done to decrease portal pressure in people who have variceal bleeding that is not controlled by banding or ocreotide
TIPS
| Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting
34
tx for c diff
metronidazole
35
tx for refractory (to metronidazole) c diff
fidaxomicin
36
tx for sever c diff
oral vanco
| iv metronidazole
37
tx for whippel disease
TMP SMX
38
treatment for tropical sprue
TMP SMX or tetracycline
39
treatment for carcinoid
ocreotide (somatostain analogue)
40
treatement for intraamniotic infection
delivery and
| clindamycin, ampicillin or gentamicin
41
thickening of the glomerular basement membrane is seen in
membranous nephropathy
42
renal disease
sensorineurla hearing loss
occular problems
Alport syndrome
43
thinning and splitting of the basement membrane is seen in
alport syndrome
44
linear deposition of IgG in basement membrane
GOODPASTURES SYNDROME
45
fusion of podocytes is seen in
minimal change disease
46
igA deposiiton on mesangium
HenochScholein Purpura
47
blastomycosis most commonly occurs in
wisconsin
48
blastmycosis has what two particulra disease traits
lytic bone lesions and ulcerated skin lesions
49
thalamic stroke presentation
contralateral loss of sensaiton and tingling
50
dejerine-Roussy syndorme?
after a thalamic stroke has resolved, this is the pain with ongoing parathesisias that takes place
51
what is the lactose tolerance test
hydrogen breath test
52
lactose deficency stool ph is
acidic (fermentation)
53
symmetric proximal muscle weakness and skin rash is seen in
dermatomyositis
54
what is melanoisis coli
dark brown areas on the colon due to laxative abuse (alligator skin)
55
what is the diseases that has 1000 polyps present in a young person who will get cancer by age 40 and die by age 50
familial adenomatous polyposis
56
what is the mutation in FAP
APC gene
57
what is the disease where people will get colorectal, endometrial and ovarian cancer, (3 family memebrs will ahve it, 2 generation apart, 1 will get cancer before age 50)
hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer "Lynch syndrome"
58
what is mutated in lynch syndorme
DNA mismatch repair genes
59
what is the disease that has brain tumers and colon acancer
turcot
60
what is the diseases that has tumors of the jaw and colon cancer
gardener
61
hyperpigmentated buccal mucosa, small intestine tumores (harmatomas) and nonmalignant colon polyps
Peutz-Jegers
62
vaginal bleeding, back pain and or abdominal pain in a pregnant woman
abruptio placenta
63
atypical glandular cells seen on PAP calls for what test
endometrial biopsy
64
what disease can present with trigeminal nerualgia BILATERALLY
MS
65
what is acrocyanosis
this is when the body of new born is pink and the arms are blue, it is normal for 1-2 days
66
most common reason for liver transplant in babies
biliary atresia
67
inability for the kidney to concentrate urine and found in sickle cell paitents is called
hyposthenuria
68
OCP reduce the risk for what cancers
ovarian and endometrial
69
increased cortisol has been associiated with what psych condition
MDD
70
increased sensitivity to lactate infusion is seen in
panic attacks
71
enlarged ventricles are seen in what psych condition
schizophrenia
72
RA affects what spine
cervical spine
73
what is the most common cause of AA amyloidosid
RA
74
wat is the most common cause of AL amyloidosis
Multiple Myeloma
75
treat widespread impetigo with
celphalexin
76
what drugs can be used to bind phosphate
sevelamer and calcium acetate
77
what are the three main problems in TTP and HUS
intravascular hemolysis
renal insufficiency
thrombocytopenia
78
urgent treatment drugs for SIADH
tolvaptan and conivaptan
79
chronic treatment for SIADH medication
demeclocycline
80
what substance removes potassium from the body
kayexealate
81
tx for RTA 4
fludricortisone (replaces blood sodium)
82
tx for RTA 1
bicarb
83
tx for RTA 2
thiazide or salt restriction
84
ketorolac is what
an NSAID that gives analgesia to the level of an opiate
85
what medication is used to treat acute disotonia
diphenyhdramine
86
what medication is used to treat akathesia
lorazepam
87
what is the best way to stop NMS
to stop giving the antipsychotic (haloperidol)
88
what are the ebst ways to measure when DKA is getting better (decrease in acidemia)
by measuring
- serum anion gap
- beta-hydroxybuterate
89
if an animal who has not been vaccinated against rabies bites a human but the animal is calm and the human cut is clean, what do you do
observe the animal for 10 days and do not prophylax the patient yet
90
person goes to a bat cave and is unsure if they were bitten, what do you do
give PEP (rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin)
91
what is a comon problem in the gut of preemies
necrotizing enterocolitis because the bowl is immature and bacteria gets in there with the tube feedings they are given
92
what is the best way to avoid NES in preemies who need to be monitoired
breast feeding them
93
what is the key difference with a child with hirschprung verses nectrotizing eneterocolitis
hirschprung child wont be gaining weight
94
what kind of cancers can form on the border of scars
squamous cell (Marjolin Ulcer)
95
Flurouracil is used for
actinic keratosis (May become SCC)
96
tx for vitaligo
topical or po steroids
97
small macules on sun exposed areas in old people that are hypopigmented
idoiopathic guttate hypomelanosis
98
resting tremors are due to a problem in what area of the brian
the basal ganglia
99
cerebellar dysfunction causes what kind of tremor
intentional tremor (as finger gets closer to target it shakes)
100
what tremor begins in the legs and is immedialty stopped when one sits down
orthostaic tremor
101
how do you diagnose pneumonia
with a CXR
102
why dont you order a sputum and gram stain for pneumonia dx
because you dont usually do that in an outpatient setting because antibiotics treat everything anyway
103
what is the condition where digital clubbing (Convex nails) is associated with sudden onset arthropahty (wrist pain)
```
hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (associated with Lung CA)
-get CXR to dx
```
104
non HIV patients who get P jiroveci (Patients on steorid) present how
fever
dry cough
fatigue
105
what can cuase cerebelalr atrophy
antiseziure drugs like phenytoin and alcohol abuse
106
a brain that has seized for more then 5 mins (status epilepticus) is at an increased risk for
cortical necrosis
107
what can be a complication of thoracic aortic aneyursm repair
spinal infarction causing anterior cord syndorme (loss of pain and temp in lower extremities, loss of bladder ontorl and flaccid paralysis )
108
the name of a form of treatment for a disease when the standard treamtnet fails
salvage
109
name for treamtment given in addition to a therapy
adujvant
110
therapy gien after induction therapy as a multidrug system to further reduce a tumor is called
consolidation
111
treamtnet given before the standard therapy in particular diseases
neoadjuvant
112
MC meds for bipolar
lithium and valproate
113
which drug reduces the risk for suicide in bipolar pts
lithium
114
what are the four first line treamtnets for bipolar
lithium
valproate
quetiapine
lamotrigine
115
phenytoin and carbamazepine use during pregnancy can cause
fetal hydantoin syndorme
116
```
midfacial hypoplasia
digital hypoplasia
hirtuism
microcephaly
cleft lip
developmental delay
```
what is the dx
fetal hydantoin syndrome
117
common side effect of epidural for pregnant people
hypotension (blood pools in the veins and venous return is decreased)
118
generalized muscular atrophy and hyporeflexia is seen in
Werdnig-Hoffman (spinal muscular atrophy)
119
first line treatment for alzheimers is
cholinesterase inhibitors
- donepezil
- galantamine
- rivastigmine
120
what is amantadine
a dopamine agoinst used to treat parkinsons
121
anti-tissue-trangultaminase is a marker for
celiac sprue
122
what is the first test to do on a child with increasing head circumference and bulging fontanells
head CT
123
what is the common heart finding in ankylosing spondylitis
aortic regurgitation (diastolic murmur)
124
patients with diuretic abuse (Barters and Gitelman Syndrome) have what important labs
hypokalemia and increased chloride in the urine
125
paitnets with chroninc diarrhea have what important lab findings
```
hypokalmeia
metabolic acodosis (HCO3 gets lost in stool)
```
126
what antihypertensives are common causes of erectile dysfunction
beta blockers and thizaide
127
when someone has pneumonia in the left lung and thye lay with their left lung down and thier right lung up, why is it that they hae decreased air
becuase ventilation is decreased in the dependent lung and perfusion is increased, right-lieft-intrapulmonary shungting
128
marfans is a disorder of
fibrilin - 1
129
what is th emost life threatening sxs of marfans
aortic root dilatation (AR)
130
homocystinuria is a deficiency in
cystathionine synthase
131
someone with marfan features, intelectual dysability, thromboembolic events, DOWNWARD lens dislocation and fair complexion has
homocystinuria
132
Ehlers danols is a def in?
collagen
133
def in fibrillin-2 is seen in
congenital contractual arachondactlyly
134
what is the non sitmulant option to treat ADHD
atomoxetine
135
does a negative heterophile AB test mean there is no mono
no because the antibodies can take up to 1 week to show up
136
the absorption of what is increased in intestial diseases that deal with malabsoprtion like Crohns
oxalate (stone formaiton is likley)
