Histology Practice Questions Flashcards
(172 cards)
1
Q
Connective Tissue matrix refers to: A. Cells & fibers B. Cells, Fibers & Ground Substance C. Cells & Ground Substance D. Ground substance & Tissue Fluid E. Fibers & Ground Substance
A
E. Fibers & Ground Substance
2
Q
All of the following are true of fibroblasts EXCEPT:
A. Have lots of rough ER and store collagen
B. Produce connective tissue matrix and are important in wound healing
C. Are the most common cell type in loose connective tissue
D. Arise from mesenchymal cells and other fibroblasts
E. A & B
A
A. Have lots of rough ER and store collagen
3
Q
Collagen:
A. Increases the viscosity of ground substance
B. Is broken down by the action of procollagen peptidases
C. Consists of polymerized molecules of tropocollagen
D. Is resistant to heat
E. All of the above
A
C. Consists of polymerized molecules of tropocollagen
4
Q
Collagen:
A. Consists of polymerized molecules of procollagen
B. Increases the viscosity of ground substance
C. Is synthesized by a variety of cell types
D. Is broken down by the action of procollagen peptidases
E. All of the above
A
C. Is synthesized by a variety of cell types
5
Q
Tropocollagen: A. Polymerizes to form procollagen B. Requires vitamin D as a coenzyme for the hydroxylation of proline C. Contains 3 chains of amino acids D. Contains a registration peptide E. All of the above
A
C. Contains 3 chains of amino acids
6
Q
Which of the following is NOT true of procollagen?
A. It polymerizes to form collagen microfibrils
B. In type I, it contains one alpha-1 and two alpha-2 amino acid chains
C. Requires vit. D which acts as a coenzyme for procollagen hydroxylase
D. All of the above
E. A & C
A
D. All of the above
7
Q
Which of the following is TRUE concerning collagen?
A. Increases the viscosity of ground substance
B. Is broken down by the action of procollagen hydroxylase
C. Consists of polymerized molecules of procollagen
D. Is resistant to heat
E. None of the above
A
E. None of the above
8
Q
Which of the following best describes the classification of tendons? A. Areolar connective tissue B. Reticular connective tissue C. Dense irregular connective tissue D. Dense regular connective tissue E. Hematopoietic connective tissue F. Supportive connective tissue
A
D. Dense regular connective tissue
9
Q
Type II collagen is secreted by: A. Chondroblasts B. Fibroblasts C. Smooth muscle cells D. Osteoblasts E. None of the above
A
E. None of the above
10
Q
Hyaluronic acid:
A. Is a sulfated glycosaminoglycan (GAG)
B. Increases the viscosity of ground substance
C. Is secreted by certain bacteria
D. Is one of the basic molecules of collagen
E. None of the above
A
B. Increases the viscosity of ground substance
11
Q
Elastic fibrils: A. Contain a central amorphous region surrounded by microfibrils B. Are heat labile C. Have the capacity to stretch D. Are synthesized by elastocytes E. A & C
A
E. A & C
12
Q
Cells responsible for the production of areolar connective tissue matrix are: A. Chondroblasts B. Mast Cells C. Fibroblasts D. Macrophages E. None of the above
A
C. Fibroblasts
13
Q
Which of the following cell types are responsible for the synthesis and storage of fat? A. Mast cells B. Adipocytes C. Macrophages D. Mesenchymal cells E. B & C
A
B. Adipocytes
14
Q
Which of the following is true of unilocular adipose tissue?
A. Brown in color
B. Gland-like appearance
C. Has limited distribution in body
D. Consists of adipocytes which when fully developed contain only one fat droplet
E. B & C
A
D. Consists of adipocytes which when fully developed contain only one fat droplet
15
Q
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of unilocular adipose tissue?
A. Yellow in color
B. Good blood supply
C. Consists of adipocytes which when fully developed contains several lipid droplets
D. Has wide distribution in body
E. A & C
A
C. Consists of adipocytes which when fully developed contains several lipid droplets
16
Q
Macrophages are primarily derived from: A. Basophils B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Fibroblasts E. None of the above
A
E. None of the above
17
Q
Macrophages develop from which of the following? A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Plasma cells D. Lymphocytes E. Mast cells
A
B. Monocytes
18
Q
Phagocytosis of bacteria is mainly a function of: A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. Neutrophils E. Fibroblasts
A
D. Neutrophils
19
Q
Heparin & Histamine are synthesized by which of the following? A. Mast cells B. Basophils C. Plasma cells D. All of the above E. A & B
A
E. A & B
20
Q
Histamine is synthesized and released by which of the following cells? A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Mast cells D. Plasma cells E. None of the above
A
C. Mast cells
21
Q
Humoral (circulating) antibodies are produced by: A. Eosinophils B. Plasma cells C. Neutrophils D. Lymphocytes E. Mast cells F. None of the above
A
B. Plasma cells
22
Q
The phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes is a function of: A. Eosinophils B. Neutrophils C. Plasma cells D. Fibroblasts E. Adipocytes F. Mast cells G. Basophils
A
A. Eosinophils
23
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_ is a stem cell that gives rise to many of the connective tissue cells: A. Macrophages B. Adipocytes C. Fibroblasts D. Mesenchymal cells E. Satellite cells
A
D. Mesenchymal cells
24
Q
Which of the following is/are NOT considered to be phagocytic? A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Macrophages D. Mast cells e. A & B
A
D. Mast cells
25
```
Which of the following is/are NOT considered to be phagocytic?
A. Plasma cells
B. Macrophages
C. Mast cells
D. Neutrophils
E. A & C
```
E. A & C
26
```
Loose, areolar connective tissue is more likely to be found in:
A. Ligaments
B. Superficial fascia
C. Perichondrium
D. Deep fascia
E. B & C
```
B. Superficial fascia
27
```
The most common cells in loose connective tissue are:
A. Fibroblasts
B. Macrophages
C. Adipocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. Plasma cells
```
A. Fibroblasts
28
```
The most common leukocyte found in a normal blood smear:
A. Basophil
B. Plasma cells
C. Eosinophil
D. Neutrophils
E. Lymphocyte
```
D. Neutrophils
29
```
The least common leukocyte found in a normal blood smear:
A. Basophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Eosinophil
D. Neutrophils
E. Monocyte
```
A. Basophil
30
The triple response of an acute injury to skin consist of changes which occur in the following order:
1. Dilation of arterioles, dilation of capillaries, loss of fluid form vessels
2. Appearance of bright red flare, appearance of dull red line, swelling
3. Appearance of dull red line, appearance of bright red flare, swelling
4. Dilation of capillaries, dilation of arterioles, loss of fluids from vessels
A. 1 & 2
B. 1 & 3
C. 2 & 4
D. 3 & 4
D. 3 & 4
31
```
Dilation of capillaries in acute inflammation is initially due to:
A. Increase in osmotic pressure
B. Histamine release at time of injury
C. Decrease in hydrostatic pressure
D. Simple nerve (axonic) reflex
E. A & B
```
B. Histamine release at time of injury
32
```
Tissue Fluid:
A. Bathes all living cells
B. Is known as amorphous ground substance
C. Is a filtrate of blood
D. All of the above
E. A & C only
```
E. A & C only
33
```
Edema due to increases in capillary permeability may occur as a result of:
A. Starvation
B. Burns
C. Heparin relase
D. Histamine release
E. B & D
```
E. B & D
34
```
Tissue fluid is:
A. An ultrafiltrate of blood
B. Maintained by fibroblasts in most tissues
C. Also known as ground substance
D. Found only in epithelial tissues
E. B & C only
```
A. An ultrafiltrate of blood
35
```
The approximate diameter of the nucleus of a lymphocyte is:
A. 2-4 nm
B. 150-200 um (micrometers)
C. 2-4 mm
D. 15-20 nm
E. 7-10 um
```
E. 7-10 um
36
```
Which of the following do NOT synthesize collagen?
A. Smooth muscle cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Osteoblasts
D. Macrophages
E. Chondroblasts
```
D. Macrophages
37
```
Upon leaving blood vessels, monocytes transform into:
A. Mesenchymal cells
B. Macrophages
C. Eosinophils
D. Fibroblasts
E. None of the above
```
B. Macrophages
38
Starvation may result in edema due to an increase in hydrostatic pressure.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B FALSE
39
Starvation may result in edema due to an decreased resorption.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
A TRUE
40
Argyrophilia refers to the quality of reticular fibers to color red in responses to a PAS staining procedure.
A. True
B. False
B. False
41
Argyrophilia refers to the quality of reticular fibers to turn black in responses to a H & E.
True or False
False
42
Multilocular adipose tissue has a rich blood supply, is brown in color, and is gland-like appearance.
True or False
True
43
Diapedesis is the process by which leukocytes exit capillaries.
True or False
True
44
Lack of abscorbic acid (vit. C) will result in impaired collagen formation.
True or False
True
45
Tropocollagen of type I collagen consists of 3 chains of amino acids plus a registration peptide.
True or False
False (this is true of procollagen)
46
Which of the following concerning cartilage is TRUE?
A. Elastic cartilage is flexible due to presence of elastic fibers and absence of ground substances
E. Perichondrium is present in hyalin, elastic & fibrocartilage
C. Numerous ‘cell nests’ would indicate active interstitial growth
D. Cartilage repairs well because of its high degree of vascularity
E. A & C
C. Numerous ‘cell nests’ would indicate active interstitial growth
47
```
Hyaline Cartilage is “hard” due to presence of:
A. Sulfated GAGs (glycosaminoglycans)
B. Lots of lacunae
C. Collagen fibrils
D. Dense periosteum
E. None of the above
```
A. Sulfated GAGs (glycosaminoglycans)
48
Hyaline cartilage:
A. Exhibits appositional and interstitial growth
B. Is absent from the long bones of individuals past the age of 30
C. Initially develops from mesenchymal cells
D. Contains collagen, elastic, and reticular fibrils in its matrix
E. A & C
E. A & C
49
Hyaline cartilage:
A. Is surrounded by a perichondrium containing chondrocytes and fibroblasts
B. Is avascular
C. And bone exhibit appositional and interstitial growth
D. Is absent from the bones of individuals past the age of 27
E. B & C
E. B & C
50
```
Perichondrium is a sheath of connective tissue surrounding:
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Fibrocartilage
D. All of the above
E. A & B
```
E. A & B
51
```
Hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage, and fibrocartilage are similar in that they all:
A. Contain a perichondrium
B. Lack blood vessels
C. Develop into bone
D. Contain chondroiton sulfate
E. B & D
```
E. B & D
52
Hyaline cartilage and bone are similar in that they both:
A. Are categorized as supportive connective tissue
B. Contain collagen
C. Contain lacunae
D. Are present in the long bones of adults past the age of 30
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
53
```
Elastic cartilage lacks the following:
A. Chrondrocytes
B. Ground substance
C. Perichondrium
D. Chrondroiton sulfate
E. None of the above
```
E. None of the above
54
Chondroblasts lose the capability to divide once they are entrapped within lacunae.
True or False
Flase
55
Elastic cartilage is flexible due to presence of elastic fibers and lack of ground substance.
True or False
False
56
```
The organic phase of bone matrix:
A. Constitutes 50% of the osteoid
B. Is synthesized by osteoclasts
C. Includes calcium hydroxyapatite crystals
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
```
A. Constitutes 50% of the osteoid
57
The “zone of maturation” in the epiphyseal plate is characterized by:
A. Mitoses of chondroblasts
B. Deposition of bone
C. Enlarged lacunae
D. Calcium deposits in the wall of enlarged lacunae
E. Resorption of bone
C. Enlarged lacunae
58
```
The “zone of ossification” in the epiphyseal plate is characterized by:
A. Mitoses of chrondroblasts
B. Ca++ deposits in wall of lacunae
C. Deposition of bone
D. Resorption of bone
E. Enlarged lacunae
```
C. Deposition of bone
59
```
The “zone of calcification” in the epiphyseal plate is characterized by:
A. Mitoses of chrondroblasts
B. Ca++ deposits in wall of lacunae
C. Deposition of bone
D. Resorption of bone
E. Enlarged lacunae
```
B. Ca++ deposits in wall of lacunae
60
Epiphyseal plates:
A. Appear at both ends of most long bones
B. Serve as growth centers of most long bones
C. Are sensitive to growth hormones
D. Exhibit interstitial growth
E. Are absent in the long bones of adults past the age of 30
F. All of the above
F. All of the above
61
```
An Osteon:
A. Is the organic phase of bone matrix
B. Lacks calcium
C. Contains concentric lamellae of bone
D. Interconnects canalliculi
E. Is the immature form of an osteoblast
```
C. Contains concentric lamellae of bone
62
```
Osteoid:
A. Is the organic phase of bone matrix
B. Is the calcified ground substance of bone
C. Includes calficied cartilage
D. Contains a central canal
E. B & D
```
A. Is the organic phase of bone matrix
63
Osteoblasts:
A. Are located in lacunae of compact bone
B. Increase in number in response to parathyroid hormone
C. Contribute to the interstitial growth of bone
D. Synthesize the organic phase of bone
E. Are absent in intramembranous bone formation
D. Synthesize the organic phase of bone
64
```
Osteoclasts:
A. Are found on surfaces where bone is being eroded away
B. Normally are multinucleated
C. Are formed in response to calcitonin
D. All of the above
E. A & B
```
E. A & B
65
Osteoclasts:
A. Normally are multinucleated
B. Increase in number in responses to parathyroid hormone
C. Are found on surfaces where bone is being eroded away
D. All of the above
E. A & B
D. All of the above
66
Sharpey’s Fibers:
A. Connect the periosteum to the outer circumferential lamellae
B. Interconnect Volkmann’s and Haversian canals
C. Are found in all bony lamellae
D. Constitute the fibrous component of bone
E. C & D
A. Connect the periosteum to the outer circumferential lamellae
67
```
Volkmann’s Canals:
A. Contain blood vessels
B. Interconnect with Haversian systems
C. Are also known as Howship’s lacunae
D. Run parallel with the long axis of bone
E. A & B
```
E. A & B
68
```
Which of the following is formed by intramembranous bone formation?
A. Ulna
B. Periosteal bone collar
C. Frontal bone of the skull
D. Radius
E. Humerus
F. None of the above
G. B & C
```
G. B & C
69
Canalliculi are important because they:
A. Contribute to the strength of the bone
B. Provide channels for nutrients to the osteocytes
C. Seal the lacunae from Haversian canals
D. Provide a means of attachment for the periosteum
E. None of the above
B. Provide channels for nutrients to the osteocytes
70
Long bones increase in diameter by:
A. Growth on endosteal side only
B. Growth on periosteal side and resorption on endosteal side
C. Growth on periosteal side only
D. Growth on endosteal side and resorption on periosteal side
E. Growth on both periosteal and endosteal sides
B. Growth on periosteal side and resorption on endosteal side
71
```
The region of bone formation in the epiphysis of a long bone is called:
A. Periosteal bud
B. Secondary center of ossification
C. Zone of ossification
D. Interstitital growth zone
E. Intramembranous bone formation
```
B. Secondary center of ossification
72
```
In bone, interstitial lamellae are located:
A. Within Haversian systems
B. Within the periosteum
C. In spongy bone only
D. Between Haversian systems
E. Adjacent to the endosteum
```
D. Between Haversian systems
73
```
Growth in diameter of bone is accomplished by the activities of osteoblasts located in the:
A. Endosteum
B. Periosteum
C. Epiphyseal plate
D. Secondary center of ossification
E. A & B
```
B. Periosteum
74
The periosteal bone collar:
A. Surrounds the middle of the diaphysis
B. Is formed by intramembranous bone formation
C. Enhances the degeneration of the cartilage
D. All of the above
E. A & C
A. Surrounds the middle of the diaphysis
75
Parathyroid hormone:
A. Increases blood Ca by decreasing osteoclast activity
B. Increases blood Ca by increasing osteoclast activity
C. Decreases blood Ca by increasing osteoclast activity
D. Decreases blood Ca by decreasing osteoclast activity
E. Has no effect on serum calcium levels
B. Increases blood Ca by increasing osteoclast activity
76
```
One stage in the repair of bone is characterized by the presence of immature or woven bone. This stage is called:
A. Callus
B. Procallus
C. Temporary callus
D. Spongy bone
```
A. Callus
77
```
One stage in the repair of bone is characterized by the presence of hyaline cartilage in the fracture site. This stage is called:
A. Procallus
B. Temporary Callus
C. Callus
D. Spongy bone
E. Intramembranous ossification
```
B. Temporary Callus
78
```
One stage in the repair of bone is characterized by the presence of dense connective tissue in the fracture site. This stage is called:
A. Callus
B. Procallus
C. Temporary Callus
D. Spongy bone
E. Lost cause
```
B. Procallus
79
The first stage in the repair of a bone fracture is:
A. Formation of a procallus composed of fibrous connective tissue
B. Erosion of cartilage cells
C. Conversion of spongy bone to compact bone
D. Formation of a cartilaginous temporary callus
C. Conversion of compact into spongy bone
A. Formation of a procallus composed of fibrous connective tissue (CT containing fibroblasts, blood vessels, macrophages and fibers)
80
Remodeling of bone:
A. Involves the activities of chondroblasts and osteoclasts
B. Is inhibited by parathyroid and calcitonin hormones
C. Occurs throughout life
D. Occurs only in spongy bone
E. All of the above
C. Occurs throughout life
81
All of the following concerning Haversian systems are true EXCEPT:
A. The innermost lamellae is the ‘youngest’
B. They are reconstructed throughout life
C. They are orientated perpendicular to the long axis of bone
D. They contain blood vessels and endosteum in the central canals
E. They are usually surrounded by interstitial lamellae
C. They are orientated perpendicular to the long axis of bone
82
Haversian systems:
A. Are formed by osteocytes in the periosteum
B. Are known as osteoids
C. Are oriented at right angles to the long axis of the bone
D. Includes a central canal surrounded by concentric lamellae
E. None of the above
D. Includes a central canal surrounded by concentric lamellae
83
The formation of the periosteal bone collar and parietal bones are examples of intramembranous bone development.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
84
Howship’s lacunae normally contain osteocytes.
| TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
85
Canalliculi provide a means of attachment for the periosteum
| TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
86
The lamellae nearest the Haversian canal is the youngest lamella of a Haversian system.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
87
The organic phase of bone matrix is synthesized by osteoblasts.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
88
The connective tissue lining Haversian and Volkmann’s canals is known as endosteum.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
89
Immature and mature bone differ in their orientation of collagen fibers.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
90
Volkmann’s canals interconnect with Haversian canals.
| TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
91
The secondary center of ossification occurs in the metaphysis.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
92
The thin filaments in striated muscle contains:
A. Tropomyosin which binds the actin to myosin
B. F-actin which is composed of G-actin monomers
C. Troponin which stimulates the release of Ca from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. All of the above
E. A & B
B. F-actin which is composed of G-actin monomers
93
```
Myofibers of skeletal muscles contain:
A. Fascicles
B. Myofilaments
C. Myofibrils
D. Endomysium
E. Collagen
F. B & C
```
F. B & C
94
In a sarcomere, the:
A. I-band is composed of actin
B. A-band contains myosin which changes in length with each contraction
C. H-band is that area of A-band which is devoid of actin
D. Myosin molecules attach to the Z-band
E. A & C
E. A & C
95
Muscle fibers are grouped into fascicles. Each fascicle is surrounded by connective tissue known as:
A. Perimysium
B. Endomysium
C. Epimysium
A. Perimysium
96
```
A sarcomere contains all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Myosin
B. Troponin
C. Myofilaments
D. Myofibrils
E. G-actiN
```
D. Myofibrils
97
The repeating unit of structure and function in a skeletal muscle fiber, called a sarcomere is:
A. The distance from A-band to Z-band
B. An A-band plus one adjacent I-band
C. The length between two successive Z-bands containing one A-band plus 1/2 of each adjacent I-band
D. The distance between successive m-bands
E. None of the above
C. The length between two successive Z-bands containing one A-band plus 1/2 of each adjacent I-band
98
The repeating unit of structure and function in a skeletal muscle fiber, called a sarcomere is:
A. Contains actin only
B. Consists of an A-band plus one adjacent Z-band
C. The distance between 2 successive m-bands
D. The distance between two successive Z-bands
E. A & D
D. The distance between two successive Z-bands
99
During contraction of skeletal muscle, all of the following occur EXCEPT:
A. I-band decreases in width
B. Distance between Z-lines decreases
C. Thick and thin myofilaments interdigitate
D. Width of A-band remains constant
E. Width of H-band remains constant
E. Width of H-band remains constant
100
During contraction of skeletal muscle, the:
A. Width of the A-band remains constant
B. I-band becomes narrower
C. Thick and thin filaments interdigitates
D. The distance between Z-lines decreases
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
101
```
Endomysium envelopes individual:
A. Myofibers
B. Myofibrils
C. Muscle fascicles
D. Sarcomeres
E. None of the above
```
A. Myofibers
102
```
The I-band of skeletal muscle contains which of the following?
A. Myosin
B. Actin
C. H-band
D. All of the above
E. B & C
```
B. Actin
103
```
T-tubules of skeletal muscles:
A. Are located along Z-lines
B. Store glycogen
C. Are continuous with sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. Are continuous with the cell membrane
E. Are continuous with the sarcolemma
F. A & D
G. A & E
H. D & E
```
H. D & E
104
```
T-tubules of skeletal muscles:
A. Store calcium
B. Are continuous with sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. Are located along Z-lines
D. Are continuous with the cell membrane
E. A & D
```
D. Are continuous with the cell membrane
105
```
Which of the following is true only of cardiac muscles (in relation to other muscle cell types)?
A. Presence of T-tubules
B. Branching cells
C. Multinucleated cells
D. Devoid of glycogen
E. Centrally placed nuclei
```
B. Branching cells
106
```
Cardiac muscles may be differentiated from other muscle types in that it contains:
A. Multinucleated cells
B. T-tubules along Z-lines
C. Intercalated discs
D. All of the above
E. B & C
```
E. B & C
107
Cardiac muscle:
A. Has cells containing a single peripheral nucleus
B. Is innervated by parasympathetic fibers which decrease contraction rate
C. Contains more actin per cell than skeletal muscle, but lacks myosin
D. Has cells that are connected side-to-side by intercalated disks
E. Like smooth muscle, has branching cells
B. Is innervated by parasympathetic fibers which decrease contraction rate
108
```
In a relaxed muscle, Ca is sequestered in the:
A. Sarcosomes
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. Sacrolemma
D. Sarcomere
E. T-tubules
```
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
109
Which of the following is true concerning smooth muscle cells?
A. Lack cross striations due to lack of myofilaments
B. Contain a single peripheral nucleus
C. Synthesize collagen and ground substance
D. Lack mitotic capabilities
E. All of the above
C. Synthesize collagen and ground substance
110
Skeletal muscle contains:
A. Epimysium which surround individual fascicles
B. Intercalated disks which provide for end-to-end between cells
C. Myofibrils which are small group of myofibers
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum which in turn contain calcium
E. All of the above
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum which in turn contain calcium
111
Skeletal muscle contains:
A. Epimysium which surround individual fascicles
B. Intercalated disks which provide for end-to-end between cells
C. Myofibrils which are small group of myofibers
D. H-bands in the center of A-bands
E. None of the above
D. H-bands in the center of A-bands
112
All of the following are true concerning smooth muscles EXCEPT:
A. Non-striated since it lacks myosin
B. Synthesizes connective matrix
C. Contains side-to-side attachments known as gap junctions (nexus)
D. Has regenerative capabilities
E. Is classified as an involuntary muscle
A. Non-striated since it lacks myosin
113
Smooth muscle cells:
A. Retain mitotic capabilities
B. Lacks cross striations due to an absence of myosin
C. Contain a single peripheral nucleus
D. Are joined by tight and gap junctions which participate in cell-to-cell transmission of impulses
E. A & D
E. A & D
114
Skeletal muscle triads:
A. ContaIn 3 nuclei
B. Are groups of 3 muscle fibers wrapped in epimysium
C. Consists of sarcolemma and terminal cisternae
D. Are concerned with protein synthesis
E. Include 2 boxers and 1 referee
C. Consists of sarcolemma and terminal cisternae
115
Intercalated discs are typically found in cardiac and smooth muscles.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
116
Within muscle cells, lysosomes are known as sarcomeres.
| TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
117
Muscle enlargement as a result of exercise is due to an increase in the number of myofibrils.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
118
Muscle enlargement as a result of exercise is due to an increase in the number of myofibers.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
119
A sarcomere is defined as the portion of one myofibril between 2 M lines.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
120
During skeletal muscle membrane depolarization, Ca leaves the sarcoplasmic reticulum and attaches to troponin.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
121
Cardiac muscles like smooth muscles contain branching cells.
| TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
122
Troponin, tropomyosin, and F-actin are all components of an actin filament.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
123
Skeletal muscle triads are groups of 3 myofibers wrapped in endomysium.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
124
Skeletal muscle contains a sarcoplasmic reticulum that release Ca during membrane depolarization.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
125
In a sarcomere, the H-band is devoid of actin.
| TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
126
T-tubules in skeletal muscles cells are continuous with the sarcolemma.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
127
T-tubules in cardiac muscles are located along Z-lines.
| TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
128
Smooth muscle cells lack cross-striations due to absence of myosin.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
129
During contraction of skeletal muscle, the width of the A-band remains constant.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
130
Smooth muscle is classified as an involuntary muscle since it is innervated by somatic efferent nerve fibers.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
131
Cardiac muscles may be differentiated from other muscle types in that it contains intercalated discs and multinucleated cells.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
132
A motor end plate (myoneural junction) is:
A. A tight junction
B. A junction between an axon terminal and sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. A junction between a terminal cisterna and a T-tubule
D. Present only in cardiac muscle
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
133
A motor end plate (myoneural junction) is:
A. A tight junction
B. A junction between an axon terminal and sarcolemma
C. A junction between a terminal cisterna and a T-tubule
D. Present only in cardiac muscle
E. When activated, releases calcium into a T-tubule
B. A junction between an axon terminal and sarcolemma
134
Which of the following is true concerning Nissi bodies:
A. They function in protein synthesis
B. They function in energy production
C. They package nurotransmitters
D. May be found in axons
E. Are used by podiatry students to learn gross anatomy
F. A & C
A. They function in protein synthesis
135
```
Somatic afferent (sensory) neurons are classified as:
A. Unipolar
B. Pseudounipolar
C. Multipolar
D. Nonpolar
E. Bipolar
```
B. Pseudounipolar
136
```
Motor fibers innervating skeletal muscle are classified as:
A. Somatic efferent
B. Visceral afferent
C. Somatic afferent
D. Sympathetic
E. A & C
```
A. Somatic efferent
137
```
Endoneurium contains:
A. Collagen
B. Schwann cell cytoplasm
C. Myelin
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
```
D. All of the above
138
```
Which of the following is NOT found in the perikaryon of a neuron?
A. Nuclues
B. Nissi bodies
C. Boutons
D. Granules
E. mitochondria
```
C. Boutons
139
```
Which of the following is NOT found in the cell bodies of a neuron?
A. Nissi bodies
B. Boutons
C. Mitochondria
D. Microtubules
E. heterochromatin
```
B. Boutons
140
```
Each of the following describes a typical neuron EXCEPT:
A. May have 2 or more axons
B. Contains Nissi bodies
C. May have multiple dendrites
D. Has a cell body known as a perikaryon
E. Is specialized for impulse conduction
```
A. May have 2 or more axons
141
```
A collection of nerve cell bodies outside of the CNS is referred to as a:
A. Gray matter
B. Synapse
C. Plexus
D. Ganglion
E. Spinal nerve
```
D. Ganglion
142
Which of the following statements concerning ganglia is TRUE?
A. Parasympathetic ganglia have central nuclei and are usually located within the viscera innervated
B. Neurons associated with the dorsal root (spinal) ganglia may be either pseudounipolar or multipolar
C. Preganglionic sensory fibers synapse in the dorsal root ganglia; the postganglionic neurons then pass to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
D. A ganglion is a collection of nerve cell bodies outside of the CNS
E. None of the above
D. A ganglion is a collection of nerve cell bodies outside of the CNS
143
Which of the following is TRUE concerning axons?
A. They may be identified by the presence of Nissi bodies
B. They have enlarged terminations known as telodendria
C. Bipolar cells are so-called due to the presence of 2 axons
D. They carry impulses to the perikaryon
E. None of the above
A. They may be identified by the presence of Nissi bodies
144
Sympathetic ganglia:
A. Are usually found within the organ they innervate
B. Contain primarily bipolar neurons
C. Contain postganglionic sympathetic cell bodies
D. Are also known as dorsal root ganglia
E. Occur only between spinal segments T1 and L1 or L2
C. Contain postganglionic sympathetic cell bodies
145
```
Dorsal root ganglia:
A. Contain cell bodies of pseudounipolar neurons
B. Contain visceral afferent fibers
C. Contains somatic afferent fibers
D. All of the above
E. B & C
```
D. All of the above
146
A bouton is:
A. A point of synapse between a dendrite and a cell soma
B. Also known as a telodendrion
C. An organelle that carries nerve impulses along an axon to the cell soma
D. An enlarged terminal ending of an axon
E. An enlarged terminal ending of a dendrite
D. An enlarged terminal ending of an axon
147
```
Which of the following is not found within the cell bodies of neurons?
A. Nissi bodies
B. Boutons
C. Mitochondrion
D. Microtubules
E. heterochromatin
```
B. Boutons
148
```
Cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the:
A. Brainstem
B. Lateral gray of the spinal cord
C. Anterior horn of the spinal cord
D. Sympathetic ganglia
E. Dorsal root ganglia
```
B. Lateral gray of the spinal cord
149
Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons:
A. Have their cell bodies located in the CNS
B. Are myelinated
C. Are classified as motor neurons
D. Secrete acetylcholine from their axon terminals
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
150
The preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic system:
A. Originate in the intermediolateral horn of the spinal cord
B. Enter paravertebral ganglia through white rami
C. Synapse with neurons located in prevertebral or paravertebral ganglia
D. All of the above
E. A & B
E. A & B
151
```
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter secreted by most __________ neruons.
A. Somatic efferent
B. Preganglionic sympathetic
C. Postganglionic parasympathetic
D. Preganglionic parasympathetic
E. Postganglionic sympathetic
```
E. Postganglionic sympathetic
152
Which of the following is TRUE concerning the sympathetic chain ganglion?
A. White rami are associated with those ganglia attached to spinal nerves T1 to S1-S2
B. Grey rami are present on all sympathetic paravertebral ganglia
C. Preganglionic axons may be found in both white and grey rami
D. Schwann cells are associated only with the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic system
E. A & B
B. Grey rami are present on all sympathetic paravertebral ganglia
153
The intervals between Schwann cells are referred to as “internodes”
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
154
Schwann cells are absent from those fibers classified as ‘unmyelinated’
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
155
Autonomic ganglion are similar to dorsal root ganglia in that they both carry sensory information only.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
156
An unmyelinated fiber is one that lacks Schwann cells.
| TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
157
Gray rami contain postganglionic sympathetic neurons.
| TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
158
In general, the sympathetic system has short preganglionic neurons and long postganglionic neurons.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
159
In general, preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic ganglia are longer than preganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
160
White rami are typically NOT found above spinal level C8.
| TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
161
Increase in blood pressure, dilation of eyes, and increses in heart rate results from stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
162
Parasympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle would result in an increase of the contraction rate.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
163
The term ‘efferent fiber’ in reference to the PNS describes a neuron that carries sensory information towards the CNS.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
164
The term ‘afferent fiber’ in reference to the PNS describes a neuron that carries sensory information towards the CNS.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
165
Axoplasm is devoid of Nisse bodies.
| TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
166
The dissolution of Nissi bodies in response to nerve injury is referred to as chromatolysis.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
167
An axodendritic synapse consists of presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes separated by a synaptic cleft.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
168
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete norepinephrine from their axon terminals.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
169
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete acetylcholine from their axon terminals.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
170
The ANS projects the vast majority of its efferent fibers to skeletal muscle fibers.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
171
Autonomic fibers may be found traveling within spinal nerves.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
172
Neuronal cell bodies located in parasympathetic ganglia are cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
