HIV Flashcards
(60 cards)
1
Q
- HIV is an (…) that attackes the immune system, maining the (…) cells
- It causes a progressive decrease in the (…) cell count
- Once this count falls below (…), the person becomes more susceptible to (…) and (…)
1. type of virus
A
- RNA retrovirus
- CD4+ T-helper cells
- CD4+ T cell count
- 200 cells/mm^3
- opportunistic infections and certain malignancies
2
Q
- HIV has 2 subtypes, what are they?
- Which subtype causes the vast majority of infections and is the predominant subtype in the US?
- Because HIV is a retrovirus, it is very susceptible to (…); it has a (…) replication rate and (…) transcriptase enzymes
A
- HIV-1 and HIV-2
- HIV-1
- mutations; high replication rate; error-prone reverse transcriptase
3
Q
- Rapid mutations allow HIV to evolve and develop (…) very rapidly
- Because mutations can develop so rapidly, (…) regiments are the standard of care
- You never want to give (…) for HIV treatment because HIV will becomes (…) to it very quickly
A
- drug resistance
- multidrug regimens
- monotherapy; resistant
4
Q
- HIV is spread through what?
- What are the two most common means of HIV transmission?
- (…) transmission may occur as well
- How does this occur?
A
- infected blood, semen, and vaginal secretions
- unprotected sex and sharing needles
- vertical transmission (from mother to child)
- during pregnancy, at birth, or through breastfeeding
5
Q
- The CDC recommends routine screening for patients ages (…) in all healthcare settings
- Pregnant women and patients initiating treatment for (…) or (…) should also be tested for HIV
- Persons at high risk should be tested for HIV (…)
- Who are people in these high risk groups?
A
- 13-64
- TB or other STIs
- annually
- injecting drug users, high-risk sexual behaviors (male to male sex)
6
Q
- An acute HIV infection is characterized by an initial burst of (…)
- A person experiencing acute HIV infection may experience (…) symptoms
- (…) are undetectable initially; may show positive results at (…) weeks but may take (…) months
- If trying to detect HIV before these time frames, you can test for (…) and (…) because they will be present
A
- viremia (virus in blood)
- flu-like symptoms
- anti-HIV antibodies (HIV ab); 4-8 weeks; 3-6 months
- HIV RNA and HIV p24 antigen
7
Q
What lab parameters are recommended for the evaluation and monitoring of HIV infections?
(there are 5)
A
- CD4+ count
- HIV viral load
- drug resistnace testing
- comprehensive metabolic panel
- hepatitis B and C testing
8
Q
- The CD4+ count is the key factor for determination of need for (…)
- The treatment goal is a normal CD4+ count which is what?
A
- opportunistic infection prophylaxis
- 800-1200 cells/mm^3
9
Q
- HIV viral load is the most important indicator of what?
- The treatment goal is to have an (…) HIV viral load
A
- response to antiretroviral therapy (ART)
- undetectable HIV viral load
10
Q
What describing genotypic testing that determines the specific mutations of the HIV virus?
A
drug resistance testing
11
Q
- What is the first stage of the HIV life cycle?
- HIV attaches with (…) to a CD4 receptor and the co-receptors (…) on the surface of the CD4+ host cell
- The virus must bind/attach to both a (…) and a (…) in order for the next step of viral replication to occur
- What drug classes target this stage?
A
- binding/attachment
- gp120; CCR5 and/or CXCR4
- CD4 receptor and a co-receptor
- CCR5 antagonist, CD4-directed post-attachment HIV-1 inhibitors
12
Q
- What is the second stage of the HIV life cycle?
- (…) of the HIV viral envelope with the CD4+ host cell membrane allows HIV to enter the host cell, where (…) of the virus releases (…) and viral proteins and enzymes needed for HIV replication into host cell’s (…)
- What drug classes target this stage?
A
- fusion
- fusion; uncoating; HIV RNA; cytoplasm
- fusion inhibitors
13
Q
- What is the third stage in the HIV life cycle?
- Once inside the cell, the single-stranded HIV RNA is converted to double-stranded HIV DNA by (…)
- What drug classes target this stage?
A
- reverse transcriptase
- reverse transcriptase
- nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs); non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
14
Q
- What is the fourth stage in the HIV life cycle?
- HIV is transported across the host cell nuclear membrane and is (…) into the host cell’s (…)
- What drug classes target this stage?
A
- integration
- integrated; host cell’s DNA
- integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs)
15
Q
- What is the fifth stage in the HIV life cycle?
- HIV DNA is (…) and (…) into new HIV RNA as well as new viral proteins (envelope proteins and non-functional long-chain proteins)
- What drug classes target this stage?
A
- transcription and translation
- transcribed and translated
- no drugs target this stage
16
Q
- What is the sixth stage of the HIV life cycle?
- New HIV RNA viral envelope proteins, and non-functional long-chain proteins migrate to the host cell surface and begin forming new, immature (…)
- (…) enzyme is also incorporated into this newly forming HIV virus
- What drug classes target this stage?
A
- assembly
- HIV virus
- protease enzyme
- no drugs target this stage
17
Q
- What is the seventh stage of the HIV life cycle?
- Newly formed, immature HIV virus (…) from the host cell
- During the maturation process, (…) cleaves the long-chain viral proteins into smaller, functional viral (…) and (…)
- The mature HIV viruse is now able to move on and infect other (…) cells
- What drug classes target this stage?
A
- budding and maturation
- buds off from host cell
- protease; proteins and enzymes
- CD4+ host cells
- protease inhibitors (PIs)
18
Q
- Combination (…) has dramatically reduced HIV morbidity and mortality
- (…) is recommended in all HIV-infected individuals
- With this treatment, patients must have an adherence rate of (…) in order for it to be effective long-term
A
- ART (antiretroviral therapy)
- ART
- 95% or higher (can’t miss more than 1 dose per month)
19
Q
What are the primary goals of ART?
(there are 5)
A
- restore and preserve immune system
- suppress HIV viral load to undetectable levels
- prevent transmission
- reduce HIV-associated morbidity
- prolong survival
20
Q
- ART can be very (…), but there are many (…) available
- It is important to leverage (…) and (…) to ensure patients can obtain and maintain access to ART
A
- expensive; funding programs
- social workers and programs
21
Q
- How to CCR5 antagonists work?
- What drugs are CCR5 antagonists?
- Patients must undergo a tropism test to determine the type of (…) present because this drug, (…), only works in (…) disease and patients may have (…), (…), or both receptors
- In the tropic test, patients must be negative for what?
A
- inhibits binding to the CCR5 co-receptor and prevents HIV from entering the cell
- Maraviroc (selzentry)
- co-receptor; maraviroc; CCR5 tropic disease; CCR5, CDCR4
- CXCR4 or dual/mixed tropisms
22
Q
Is maraviroc (selzentry) used often in HIV treatment? Why or why not?
A
no, there are other, more effective alternatives
23
Q
- What drug is a post-attachment HIV-1 inhibitor?
- This is the first new class of (…) for HIV
- How does this drug work?
- How is it administered?
- This is approved for use in (…) who are failing their current ART
- Is this drug used often?
A
- Ibalizumab
- monoclonal antibody
- binds to domain 2 of CD4 and blocks entry of HIV into host cells
- IV
- heavily treatment-experienced (with multidrug resistant HIV or MDR-HIV)
- no, not used often
24
Q
- What do fusion inhibitors do?
- What drug is a fusion inhibitor?
- How is this drug given (dosage, ROA)?
- Typically, this drug is only used in what type of patients?
- Is this drug used often?
A
- block fusion of the HIV virus with the CD4+ cells by blocking the conformational change in gp41 required for membrane fusion
- enfuvirtide (fuzeon)
- 90 mg subcutaneous injection BID
- patients who are treatment-experiences with resistance to multiple other ARTs
- not used often
25
Regarding the MOA of nucleoside/nucleotide transcriptase inhibitors:
- NRTIs are inhibitors of (...)
- They are analogs of (...) (nucleosides or nucleotides containing ribose) which all lack (...)
- Once they enter the cell, they are (...) by cellular enzymes, which is then encorporated into the viral DNA by (...)
- Because of the missing (...), the growing DNA chain is terminated
- HIV reverse transcriptase
- ribosides; 3'-hydroxyl group
- phosphorylated; reverse transcriptase
- 3'-hydroxyl group
26
What drugs are NRTIs?
- abacavir
- lamivudine
- **emtricitabine**
- **tenofovir**
| (bold are most common)
27
- All NRTIs are administered (...)
- Tenofovir has two salt forms, what are they?
- Which achieves better anti-HIV activity at lower dose, and has a lower side effect profile
- All NRTIs are (...) excreted, except (...)
- orally
- tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) and tenofovir alafenamide (TAF)
- tenofovir alafenamide (TAF)
- renally excreted except for abacavir
28
- What are the boxed warnings for all NRTIs?
- Abacavir is associated with (...), so patients must test negative for (...) allele to safely take
- Tenofovir (TDF or TAF) is associated with (...) and (...)
- What can Tenofovir cause?
- What is the preferred NRTI?
- lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis (fat accumulation)
- hypersensitivity reaction; HLA-B*5701 allele
- kidney damage and decreased bone density
- AKI, CKD, proximal tubular injury (Fanconi syndrome)
- TAF
29
What drugs are non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)?
| ("-vir-")
- nevirapine
- efavirenz
- etravirine
- relpivirine
- doravirine
30
- What is the MOA of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)?
- Most NNRTIs are (...) inducers, so there are many (...)
- Efavirenz is safe to use in which patients? Why?
- What does Rilpivirine require in order to be absorbed? What should you avoid taking this with?
- noncompetitive inhibitors of HIV reverse transcriptase
- CYP450 inducers; drug interactions
- patients coinfected with TB because lower potential for drug interaction (lower CYP induction compared to others)
- acidic stomach; avoid proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)
31
What are the adverse effects of NNRTIs?
- serious psychiatric symptoms (suicidal ideation, depression)
- CNS symptoms (usually resolve 2-4 weeks; includes impaired concentration, dizziness, vivid dreams)
32
What drugs are integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTI)?
| ("-tegravir")
- raltegravir
- elvitegravir
- dolutegravir
- bictegravir
- cabotegravir
33
- What is the MOA of integrase strand transfer inhibitors?
- Oral INSTIs are subject to (...)
- What should you avoid taking oral INSTIs with?
- Elvitegravir has a short half life of (...) and is often given with (...) to "boost" its half-life to allow once daily dosing
- What is a CYP3A4 inhibitor that has no retrovial activity by itself?
- blocks integrase; inhibits the insertion of viral DNA into the host genome
- chelation with cations
- avoid antacids
- 3 hours; cobicistat
- cobicistat (Tybost)
34
What are the mainstay of initial treatment for HIV?
INSTIs
35
- How can resistance occur with INSTIs?
- Which drugs have cross resistance?
- Which drugs have limited cross-resistance to other INSTIs?
- mutations within the inetrase gene
- cross-resistance between raltegravir and elvitegravir
- dolutegravir and bictegravir
36
- What is the mainstay for initial HIV therapy (general combo)?
- What is the best initial option (actual drugs)?
- INSTI + 2 NRTIs (dual NRTI backbone)
- biktarvy (bictegravir + emtricitabine, TAF)
37
- What is a long-acting injection approved for the treatment of HIV?
- What is the general combo for this?
- Cabenuva (cabotegravir, rilpivirine)
- INSTI + NNRTI
38
What drugs are protease inhibitors?
| ("-navir")
- atazanavir
- durunavir
- lopinavir/r (boosted)
- nelfinavir
- saquinavir
- tipranavir
39
- What is the MOA of protease inhibitors?
- It is recommended that all PAs be (...)
- inhibit HIV protease; prevents assembly of viral proteins and maturation of virus
- boosted
40
- What are the different boosting agents for HIV drugs?
- Where are all PIs metabolized in?
- PIs are (...) substrates
- Most PIs are also (...) inhibitors
- Therefore, there are many (...)
- ritonavir and cobicistat
- liver
- CYP3A4 substrates
- CYP3A4 inhibitors
- drug interactions
41
What are the different drugs that protease inhibitors may have drug interactions with?
- CYP3A4 inhibitors (rifampin, St. Johns Wort)
- antiarrhythmics (dronedarone, amiodarone)
- anticoagulants/antiplatelets (apixaban, edoxaban, rivaroxaban, ticagrelor, warfarin)
- hormonal conraceptives
- methadone
- PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil)
- statins (lovastatin, simvastatin)
42
Because of long list of contraindicated or dose-adjustments required, PIs are not typically recommended at what?
first line agent for HIV treatment
43
What are the adverse effects of protease inhibitors?
- hepatotoxicity
- metabolic abnormalities (hyperlipidemia, lipohypertrophy, insulin resistance/hyperglycemia)
- GI upset (N/V/D)
- fat redistribution (buffalo hump)
44
Which protease inhibitor has the highest risk for hepatotoxicity?
tipranavir
45
- What agents can act as boosters for HIV drugs?
- Do they have antiviral activity?
- Which one is difficult to co-formlate with other ARVs?
- ritonavir, cobicistat
- ritonavir does (protease inhibitor), cobicistat does not
- ritonavir
46
- INSTI-based regimens are recommended as (...) therapy for most patients
- An INSTI-based regimen is an (...)
- What can the 2 NRTIs be referred to as?
- initial therapy
- an INSTI + 2 NRTIs
- dual NRTI backbone
47
- What drugs make up truvada?
- What is truvada given with?
- emtricitabine/TDF
- dolutegravir (tivicay)
48
- What drugs make up descovy?
- What is descovy given with?
- What patients can this combo be used in?
- emtricitabine/TAF
- dolutegravir (tivicay)
- pregnant patients
49
- What is the most popular INSTI+2NRTI regiment at this time?
- What does the use of abacavir require?
- What drug should be used with caution in patients with renal insufficiency?
- Single tablet regimens offer no flexibility in (...)
- biktarvy
- testing pts for HLA-B*5701 allele
- tenofovir disproxil fumarate (TDF)
- renal dosing
50
- What is an HIV prevention method in people who do not have HIV in high-risk groups?
- What types of individuals would be in this group?
- Pre-exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)
- men who have sex with men (MSM), sex with an HIV positive partner, persons who inject drugs
51
What are the principles of PrEP?
- must be HIV negative
- no documented hepatitis B virus
- normal renal function
52
What is the surveillance during PrEP use?
- must have follow up visit every 3 months
- this includes: HIV test, renal funtion test, evaluation for bacterial STDs
53
What are the different PrEP regimens and their ROA?
**truvada**
- emtricitabine/tenofovir disproxil fumarate
- oral - 1 tablet daily
**descovy**
- emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide
- oral - 1 tablet daily
**apretude**
- cabotegravir
- long-acting injection (1 month)
| (truvada mostly used, better efficacy and cheaper)
54
- What is PEP?
- When must a patient start PEP to prevent HIV?
- What is the length of PEP treatment?
- post exposure prophylaxis - taking ART to prevent HIV after possible exposure
- within 72 hours
- 28 days
55
What are the recommended PEP regimens?
- biktarvy (bictegravir/emtricitabine/TAF)
- dolutegravir + TDF or TAF
- raltegravir + TDF or TAF
56
- Which PEP regimen is usually what is prescribed?
- Which PEP regimen is not recommended due to twice daily dosing?
- Biktarvy
- Raltegravir
57
What are some complications of ART?
- lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis
- immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)
58
- Lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis is a complication most common with (...)
- If this happens, (...) treatment
- NRTIs
- stop treatment
59
- What is the paradoxical worsening of a pre-existing opportunistic infection or malignany once ART is initiated?
- What common pathogens are associated with this?
- immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)
- M. tuberculosis, M. avium, Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP), herpes viruses
60
How is IRIS managed?
- treat underlying opportunistic pathogen
- continue ART