HIV Flashcards

1
Q

Most likely cells affected by HIV

A

primary targets for HIV are dendritic cells in the mucosa of the genital tract, use receptor DC-sign to attach

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2
Q

What are the receptors for HIV?

A

CD4 moleucles on the surface of a subpopulation of t-lymphocytes (a coreceptor is needed for infection)

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3
Q

Pathogenesis of HIV

A

Newly infected lymphocytes flood the blood and are transported to all tissues with in days; there is a progressive annual loss of CD4 cells

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4
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A

predominantly through heterosexual intercourse (0.1-1% chance), can be transmitted through HIV infected blood transfusion (100%), child of mother with out tx (30%), needle prick (1/300)

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5
Q

Signs and symptoms of primary HIV infection (acute retroviral syndrome)

A

incubation period of 2-4 weeks; fever, painful ulcers/lesions, nonexudative pharyngitis and swollen LN (diffuse lymphadenopathy), GI complaints, skin rash (upper body)-2-3 days after fever, HEADACHE

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6
Q

What is the hallmark of HIV infection?

A

progressive reduction in CD4 T cells (rarely returns to normal)

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7
Q

HIV testing

A

Diagnosed by the detection of HIV specific antibodies in the plasma or serum. (ELISA) Antibodies appear a few weeks afer infection, shortly before or after symptoms of acute retroviral syndrome. There is a WINDOW PERIOD where patient is infected but its not detected. These antibodies remain positive for LIFE. Do not use PCR.

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8
Q

How do we confirm a dx of HIV

A

second blood sample, if indeterminate do a western blot to confirm

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9
Q

AIDS defining illness

A

When the number of CD4 cells declines below a critical level of 200 or they have an AIDs associated syndrome (candidiasis, ____, ____). Patients CD4 count indicates the degree of immune deficiency and predicts short term risk of oppurtunistic disease. In long term- prognosis is also determines by viral load.

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10
Q

When do we consider HAART therapy?

A

if CD4 is between 350-500

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11
Q

Indications for starting tx

A

atients CD4 count indicates the degree of immune deficiency and predicts short term risk of oppurtunistic disease. Viral load = more rapid progression. Need to account for speed of progression, patients acceptance of tx, likelihood of compliance and possible side effects.

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12
Q

Tx of HIV

A

combo therapy: 4 different classes of drugs to tx AIDs: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase (NRTI), Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase (NNRTI), Protease inhibitors, Fusion inhibitor enfurvitide.

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13
Q

How do we pick the Tx

A

2 NRTI’s and one of the others

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14
Q

Occupational blood exposure risks

A

percutaneous injury (needle stick, cut) OR contact of mucous membrane or nonintact skin. Recommendations: Gloves handwashing, etc. Post exposure prophylaxis (w/in hrs) and follow up testing.

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15
Q

Efficacy of Tx monitoring

A

monitored by decline in viral load and rise in CD4 count (get this done every 3 mo)

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16
Q

What predicts the duration of viral supression?

A

Nadir- lowest point of viral load reached during tx; time to optimal supression depends on initial viral load.

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17
Q

When to initiate prophylaxis with PCP

A

CD4 <400 or after episode of PCP

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18
Q

What to give as prophylaxis for PCP

A

trimethoprim-sulfamehoxazole

19
Q

When to initiate prophylaxis with Toxoplasma

A

if CD4 <100

20
Q

What to give as prophylaxis for Toxoplasma

A

trimethoprim-sulfamehoxazole

21
Q

When to initiate prophylaxis of Mycobacterium avian intracellulare

A

primary prophylaxis if CD4 <100

22
Q

What to give as prophylaxis of Mycobacterium avian intracellulare

A

Azithromycin

23
Q

When to initiate prophylaxis of Cryptococcus

A

CD4 <50; only in regions of high incidence

24
Q

What to give as prophylaxis for Cryptococcus

A

Fluconazole

25
Q

When to initiate prophylaxis of Candida

A

?

26
Q

What to give as prophylaxis of Candida

A

?

27
Q

When to initiate prophylaxis of Cytomegalovirus

A

CD4 <50, secondary if after retinitis

28
Q

What to give for prophylaxis of CMV

A

valganiciclovir

29
Q

Toxoplasma encephalitis

A

reactivation of latent toxoplasma infection. Starts with focal deficit (hemiplegia), convulsions, headaches, fever or confusion. CD4 IS BELOW 200

30
Q

Dx of Toxoplasma encephalitis

A

Toxoplasma IgG antibody will be positive. CT or MRI (w/ gadolinium/contrast) will show abscesses that are usually multiple and preferentially located in the basal ganglia and corticomedullary junction. USUALLY HAS MARKED EDEMA

31
Q

Tx of Toxoplasma encephalitis

A

combo of otal sulfadiazine and oral pyrimethamine w/folic acid to prevent bone marrow toxicity (also prevents PCP). Tx is not well tolerated

32
Q

Pneumocysitis Jiroveci Pneumonia

A

PCP, subacute disease that develops in HIV infected patients with CD4 below 200.

33
Q

Symptoms of PCP

A

fever, dyspnea on exertion, dry cough, weight loss and fatigue. Pulm exam is normal

34
Q

Dx of PCP

A

CXR- usually shows interstitial butterfly pattern. Lactate dehydrogenase is usually elevated and PaO2 depressed.

35
Q

Tx of PCP

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

36
Q

Cryptococcal Meningitis

A

fever, head ache, +/- meningeal signs, NO NECK STIFFNESS

37
Q

Cryptococcal Meningitis Dx

A

on CD4 <100; blood and LCR are positive

38
Q

Tx of cryptococcal meningitis

A

amphotericin B

39
Q

CMV retinitis

A

Before advent of HAART, 35-30% of AIDS pts developed this infection. Visual symptoms—blurred vision, scotomas, floaters, or flashing lights— subacute onset.

40
Q

Retinal findings of CMV retinitis

A

Mix of exudates, hemorrhages, and atrophy; Vascular 
sheathing

41
Q

Tx of CMV retinitis

A

Tx is required to prevent progression to
retinal detachment and blindness. Ganciclovir is drug of choice; causes
bone marrow toxicity, and dosing must be corrected for renal dysfunction.

42
Q

Candida

A

most frequent opportunistic pathogen in all HIV positive patients with severe immunosuppression. Yellow white plaques (thrush). Often accompanied by esophagitis

43
Q

Tx for Candida

A

fluconazole