HIV-AIDs Flashcards

1
Q

How is HIV infection and AID transmission?

A

Virus is passed through sexual contact, through transfusion of contaminated blood or blood products, through sharing of contaminated needles and syringes among infection drug users; intrapartum or perinatally from mother to infant or via react milk
—HIV-1, HIV-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the is pathophysiology and Immunopathogenesis of HIV?

A

Profound immunodeficiency resulting from a progressive quantitative and qualitative deficiency of the subset T lymphocytes refereed to as helper T cells (CD4+)- primary cellular receptor for HIV
—Co-receptors CCR5 and CXCR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the primary infection of HIV?

A

Virus infects CD4+ cell, GALT
—viremic stage during primary infection
—some pt= “acute retroviral syndrome” a mononucleosis-like illness
—disseminating virus to lymphoid and other organs throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the chronic and persistent infection of HIV?

A

Chronic infection develops that persists for a median time of 10 yrs before the untreated pt becomes clinically ill
-decreasing number of T cells
-active viral replication can almost always be detected by as plasma viremia and the demonstration of virus replication in lymphoid tissue
-steady-state viremia (viral set point_ at 6 months to 1 year postinfection has important prognostic implication for the progression of HIV disease
—low viral set point at 6-1yr after infection progress to AIDs more closely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe advanced HIV disease?

A

The presence of a CD4+ T cell count of <200/mL or an AIDS-defining opportunistic disease establishes a diagnosis of AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clinical finding on the acute HIV syndrome

A

General: fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, headache/retroorbital pain, arthralgia/myalgia, lethargy/malaise, anorexia/wt loss, N/V/D
Neurological: meningitis, encephalitis, periperal neuropathy, myelopathy
Dermatological: erythmatous maculopapular rash, mucocutaneous ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the most common secondary infection disease of HIV?

A

P. Jiroveci, CMV, Candida albicans, M. Avium intracellular, M. Tuberculosis, cryptococus neoformans, Toxopalsma gondii, HSV, cryptosporidium, isospora belli (diarrhea) , JC virus (PML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RX for HIV infection?

A
  1. Two NRTIs +integrate inhibitors
  2. Two NRTIs + protease inhibitors
  3. Two NRTIs and NNRTIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What should you expect from HIV treated?

A

1-log re-education in plasma HIV RNA within 1-2 months
Decline in plasma HIV RNA < 50 copies/mL
Rise in CD$+ T cell count 100-150/mL during the first year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How to prepare for secondary infection when infected with HIV?

A

T cell <200: P. Jiroveci
T cell < 50: M. Tuberculosis

Vaccination with the influenza and pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccines is generally recommended for all pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Testing for HIV?

A
  1. Viral load- for initial detection prior to seroconversion, also used with HAART therapy. Used to detect replicating virus
  2. ELISA for HIV antibody- gold standard screening Test
  3. Western Blot- gold standard confirmatory test after ELISA
  4. Absolute CD 4 count-prognostic indicators and progress of HIV->AIDS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the CDC Recommendation for Clinical practice regarding HIVs?

A

All adults ages 13-64 should be screened at least once in their lifetimes
—Rapid HIV screen (search’s for p24 Ag)- still requires confirmatory testing
—results in 10-20 minutes
—Pretest counseling should be given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What opportunistic infection should you consider when the CD4 cell count in >250?

A
Bacterial infections
Tuberculosis
Herpes simplex
Herpes zoster
Vaginal candidiasis
Hairy leukoplakia
Kaposi sarcoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What opportunistic infection should you consider when the CD4 cell count in less than 200 but greater than 50?

A
Pneumocystis
Toxoplasmosis
Cryptococcosis
Coccidioidomycosis
Cryptosporidiosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What opportunistic infection should you consider when the CD4 cell count in <50?

A

Disseminated MAC infection
Histoplasmosis
CMV retinitis
CNS lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe Cryptosporidium?

A

Protozoan that infects intestinal epithelial cells

Sx: Abdominal cramps/pain
Major cause of chronic diarrhea in HIV/AIDs up to 3-17 l of stool a day

17
Q

Describe D. Latum?

A

Helminth (fish tapeworm)
Acquired: eating larva in raw or undercooked fish
Sx: hardly any Sx. B12 deficiency (megaloblastic anemia)
Detection: identification of eggs in feces

18
Q

Describe Mycobacterium Avium Intracellulare Complex?

A

Non-tuberculous mycobacterium (NTM) infection comprised of M. Avium and m.intracellulare
CXR: fibrocaitary with bronchiectasis, does not have dominant apical involvement like TB

Seen most commonly with a CD4 below 50- disseminated readily
Sx: insidious >5 wks: cough, weight loss, fever, lethargy, diarrhea
Hemoptysis rare

Prophylaxis: azithromycin

19
Q

Describe Progressive Multifocal Leukoenxephalopathy?

A

Cause: JC polyomavirus
Sever Demyelinating disorder of the CNS-affects white matter but has cortical extension
Seen in AIDs with less than 200 CD4 counts
MRI: extensive damage to white matter tracks with cortical involvement
Dx: brain biopsy is gold standard
—PCR for JC virus with CSF

20
Q

Describe CNS Lymphoma?

A

Originates from EBV- typically B cell in nature
Sx: Mitch like many space occupying lesions in the CNS-focal neurological deficits, ocular deficits increase intracranial pressure (look for papilledema), HA, carnival, neuropathic, and can have seizures
CT/MRIS findings: solitary, well defined mass, necrosis, location can include brain, meninges, SC, etc
Incredible response to IV steroids ( can shrink within days)
Dx: extensive, testing CSF for EBV

21
Q

Describe Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Encapsulated fungi (can be G+ gram stain with surrounding halo on INdia Ink stain)
CD4 less than 100
Acquire from bird dropping
Sx: altered mental status, fever, malaise, HA
—1/3 pts have meningeal signs, unchallenged rigidity, photophobia , Messi
—Dx: serum cryptococcal Ag, get a CSF to stain with India Ink
__Tx: fluconazole. If severe, liposomal AmphoB

22
Q

Describe Toxoplamsa Gondii?

A
Protozoan- obligate, intracellular
Seen when CD4 count is < 100
Prophylaxis- TMP-SMX
Acquired: cats and eating infected meat 
SX: HA, confusion, fever neurologic complaints
CT/MRIs-ring enhancing lesions
Dx: serum IgG, brain bx
23
Q

Describe HSV encephalitis?

A

HSV-1 reactivation- dsDNA, tegumented, icosahedral virus
Sx: rapid onset of HA, fever, neurodeficits, impaired consciousness
MRI: temporal lobe involvement
Dx: HSV PCR from CSF
Rx: IV acyclovir

24
Q

Describe Candida Albicans?

A

Yeast-with KOH prep generally always have pseudohyphae
Causes: thrush, esophagitis, vulvogaginitis, skin infections
** easily scraped off tongue

25
Q

Describe Cytomegalovirus?

A

CMV
Causes: retinitis (fluffy infiltrates on fundoscope)-blurry vision
Esophagitis-single deep ulceration
CMV Pneumonia is

Histologically: OWL’s EYE inclusion (intranulcear)

26
Q

Describe HSV in HIV/AIDs?

A

HSV-1: dsDNA, enveloped, icosahedral virus with tegument

Manifestation: extensive, painful, vesicles on face, mouth, genitals (HSV2)
Esophagitis-multiple shallow ulceration

Dx: PCR, Tzank smear

Always treat outbreak

27
Q

Describe HPV?

A

Human papilloma virus-most common sexually transmitted infection
Sx: anogenital lesions, can have oral manifestation
Links: oral and cervical cancer

High risk strains :16,18

28
Q

What are Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIVs?

A

PrEP-combination pill for those who do not have HIV but are at high risk of acquiring it
—can reduce risk of infection by 90%

Truvada(PrEP): tenofovir and emtricitabine
—take every day
—F/U every 3 month
—HIV testing, if positive, must discontinue PrEP immediately

29
Q

How to treat a post-exposure?

A

Tenofovir + emtricitabine+ raltegravir

Perinatal exposure= ziduvodine