HM Flashcards

Question

Vapor Density

Answer 1

All liquid vapors are heavier than air

Answer 2

= 1 (0.9 will float / 1.1 will sink)

Answer 3

=16 (raises in air)

Answer 4

= 44 (drops in air)

Answer 5

= 10,000 PPM

Answer 6

Concentration (percentage) of a gas or a vapor in air capable of producing a flash of fire in presence of an ignition source

Answer 7

Minimum mixture in air to ignite

Answer 8

: Too rich, mixture will not ignite i.e.  Methane: LEL 5% / UEL 15%

Answer 9

Must have hydrogen

Answer 10

= Lower the #, more toxic.

Answer 11

MILLIGRAMS OF MERCURY CUBED

Answer 12

= does not mix

Answer 13

= Burns, irritates or destructively attacks organic tissues ~ 0 to 6 = acid ~ 7 = neutral ~ 8 to 14 = base

Answer 14

= Process of combining single chemical units to form larger chemical units. (Monomers > Polymers)

Answer 15

When a liquid is infinitely soluble in water

Answer 16

When a solid turns to gas (the change from a solid to gas without entering liquid phase) skips liquid phase

Answer 17

= Air’s Vapor density

Answer 18

= Air’s Specific Gravity

Answer 19

molecular weight of air

Answer 20

10% the LEL 10 PPM -CO 10 PPM-H2S 10-mr/hr

Answer 21

2X Background (Rad)

Answer 22

44 DROPS IN AIR

Answer 23

25 OHMS IS THE ACCEPTABLE LEVEL FOR GROUNDING AND BONDING

Answer 24

(BP-100*F); (VP 38*F); (FP -44*F)

Answer 25

=14.7PSI= 1 BAR

Answer 26

PPM: THE LOWER NUMBER THE MORE TOXIC A PRODUCT IS

Answer 27

1300 X VP=PPM CONCENTRATION IN THE HEAD SPACE OF A CONTAINER

Answer 28

FEDERAL REGULATIONS/LAWS USED TO OVERSEE THE STORAGE AND TRANSPORT OF HAZARDOUS MATERIALS IN THE US

Answer 29

CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS

Answer 30

CFR 49 (ONLY APPLIES TO COMMERCIAL TRANSPORT)

Answer 31

9 HAZARD CLASSES EXIST

Answer 32

EXPLOSIVES (1.0-1.6) - Division 1.1 Mass explosion hazard (Black powder, TNT) - Division 1.2 Projection hazard (Aerial Flares, Detonating cord) - Division 1.3 Fire and minor blast hazard. Minor projection hazard (Liquid-fueled Rocket motors) - Division 1.4 Explosive devices w/minor explosion hazard. No more than 25g/0.9oz of detonating material. (Line throwing rockets, practice ammo - Division 1.5 Very insensitive explosives. (Pilled Ammonium Nitrate, Fertilizerfuel Mixtures) - Division 1.6 Extremely insensitive articles without explosive hazard.

Answer 33

GASES (2.1-2.3) - Division 2.1 Flammable gases: Gases at 68°F or less and 14.7 psi ignitable when in a mixture of 13% or less by volume with air. - Division 2.2 Non-Flammable: Non-poisonous compressed gas or mixture with an absolute pressure of 41psi. at 68°F and does not meet the definition of 2.1 or 2.3. - Division 2.3 Poisonous by inhalation. A (most poisonous) to D (Least poisonous)

Answer 34

FLAMMABLE AND COMBUSTIBLE LIQUIDS - Flammable: Flashpoint of less than 141°F/60.5°C - Combustible: Flashpoint greater than 141°F and less than 200°F

Answer 35

FLAMMABLE SOLIDS (4.1-4.3) - Division 4.1 Flammable solids (Metal powders, self-reactive materials) - Division 4.2 Spontaneously Combustible and Self Heating Materials within 5 minutes of contact with air. - Division 4.3 Dangerous when wet

Answer 36

OXIDIZERS 5.1-5.2 - Division 5.1 Oxidizers (yields oxygen, causes or enhances combustion of organic materials. - Division 5.2 Organic Peroxides [Tendency to deflagrate (to burn, specially suddenly and violently)]

Answer 37

POISONS 6.1-6.2 - Division 6.1 Materials other than gases known to be toxic during transport or have a toxic effect on animals. - Division 6.2 Contains a viable microorganism or microbial toxin with potential to cause disease.

Answer 38

RADIOACTIVE MATERIALS I-III - Radioactive III: More than 50 milliroentgents/hr - Radioactive II: More than 0.5mr/hr and less than 50mr/hr - Radioactive I: Equal or less than 0.5mr.hr

Answer 39

CORROSIVE MATERIALS I-III Solid or liquid that causes irreversible harm to human skin (necrosis) over a 4 hour period. Assigned to packing groups based on necrosis time: I. Less than 3 minutes of necrosis time II. 3 to 60 minutes of necrosis time III. 60 to 240 minutes of necrosis time or ¼” corroding steel or aluminum surfaces per year.

Answer 40

MISCELLANEOUS HAZARDOUS MATERIALS Material which presents a hazard during transport but it is not included in any other hazard class.

Answer 41

No longer exists ORM-D is the exception. Consumer commodities packaged and distributed in a form intended for retail sale or consumption by individuals for the purpose of personal care or household use.

Answer 42

Specific to the mode of transportation. Highway: Bill of Lading / Hazardous Waste Manifest (Driver) Rail: Waybill (Crew) Water: Dangerous Cargo Manifest (Captain) Air: Air Bill (Pilot)

Answer 43

*Proper Shipping Name >Hazmat Table Column 2 *Hazard Class >Hazmat Table Column 3 * ID Number >Hazmat Table Column 4 *Packing Group – Hazmat Table Column 5

Answer 44

*Used when transporting a single Hazardous Material *Words “Mixture” or “Solution” are added if the material has been mixed with a Non-Hazardous or Non-regulated ingredient.

Answer 45

*Used when transporting a mixture of 2 or more Hazardous Materials *Identifies the generic Shipping Name by the letters N.O.S.

Answer 46

*Label: Describes the Hazardous Material within a container *Multiple Hazards = Multiple labels *Should be located near the proper shipping name and same surface *Should not be placed on the bottom of the container

Answer 47

*Sets regulations for the handling and storage of Hazardous Materials *HAZPOWER 29 CFR 1910.120 deals with hazardous waste operations and emergency respond

Answer 48

Regulates the federal system of Hazardous Waste management.

Answer 49

*UN ID # *Emergency Contact / Phone number *RQ when applicable * Shipping name *Hazard Class * Can be found in: Cab of vehicle Train crew member Holder on the bridge of vessel Aircraft’s pilot possession

Answer 50

*Diamond shaped sign used on transport vehicles *Include: Name / ID Number / Hazard Class

Answer 51

4 digit number found on: Placards Shipping Papers Packing

Answer 52

(DOT CFR 49)

Answer 53

Bulk containers with an internal volume greater than Liquid: 118.9 gallons (450 Litters) Solid: 881.8 lbs. (400 kg) Gas: 1000 lbs. (456.6 kg, water capacity)

Answer 54

*Designed to carry petroleum products or alcohol. *1,500 to 12,000 gallons of product. *Internal pressure of 2.65 psi (min) to 4 psi (max) *Top loaded only

Answer 55

Circular cross section *5,000 to 8,000 gallons of product. *Working pressure of 25 to 35 psi/g *Flammable and combustible liquids, mild corrosives, poisons.

Answer 56

* Single compartment * Working pressure of 15 to 50 psi/g * 3,000 to 5,000 gallons of product * Liner bonded to the tank * Stiffening rings

Answer 57

Working pressure of 100 to 500 psi/g * 8,000 to 15,000 gallons of product * Rounded ends * Values labeled as “vapor” or ”liquid”

Answer 58

Keeps product very cold (-130°F) * 8,000 to 10,000 gallons of product * Highly insulated * Working pressure of 25.3 to 500 psi

Answer 59

2 to 20 tubes * 9 to 48 inches in diameter * Up to 5,000 psi/g working pressure * Carry only gas under pressure (not liquid)

Answer 60

*Waybill: information specific to a particular rail car * Consist / Wheel Report: Lists all of the cars and their location and also identifies the Hazmat cars.

Answer 61

Up to 100 psi/g * Relieve valve set at 75 psi/g * No expansion dome

Answer 62

Up to 600 psi/g * Carries 4,000 to 45,000 gallons of product * Process chemicals, Anhydrous Ammonia, LPG * Round Ends

Answer 63

Pressure of 25 psi/g or lower * -115°F * Liquid Oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide, Argon, Hydrogen * No topside fittings

Answer 64

180 to 320 gallons of product * Up to 1,000 psi/g * Use to carry Chlorine, Phosgene

Answer 65

IM-101 / IM-102 * Up to 100 PSI * All mode of transport

Answer 66

Simple→Displaces Oxygen Chemical→Prevents the body from using Oxygen.

Answer 67

Effects depends on concentration Acid or Base Irreversible tissue damage

Answer 68

Temporary but occasionally severe inflammation of eyes, skin or respiratory tract.

Answer 69

Cause allergic reactions

Answer 70

agent directly involved in causing cancer

Answer 71

substance that inhibits the function of neurons, cells in the nervous system

Answer 72

agent which induces genetic mutation

Answer 73

lead to structural and/or functional birth defects

Answer 74

Have a physical and chemical properties capable of causing harm * Be present in sufficient amounts to do harm * Be present for a sufficient amount of time * Have a route of entry to the body * Be able to reach a susceptible body organ or tissue

Answer 75

When a toxic substance or infectious agent is taken into the body or in direct contact with the body

Answer 76

* Acute: Short period, high concentration * Chronic: Long term, long concentration

Answer 77

Material clings to or saturates clothing or parts of your body

Answer 78

* LD50: Lethal Dose 50. Amount of the substance required to kill 50% of the test population * LD100: Lethal Dose 100. Amount of the substance required to kill 100% of the test population * LC100: Lethal Concentration 100. Lethal concentration of a substance required to kill 100% of the test population

Answer 79

Average airborne concentration of substances to which is believed nearly all adults may be repeatedly exposed in the work environment for an 8hr. workday without adverse effects

Answer 80

Standard or legal limit. Maximum duration of exposed at this level is 15 minutes with no more than 4 exposures in an 8hr day

Answer 81

Exposure to airborne contaminants that is "likely to cause death or immediate or delayed (within 30 minutes) permanent adverse health effects or prevent escape from such an environment.

Answer 82

Skin Absorption - Toxic substances can be absorbed through the skin or may enter the bloodstream through broken skin. * Inhalation – Most common. Rate and depth of respiration affect the amount of material absorbed. * Ingestion – Toxic materials can be swallowed if contaminated hands or clothes come in contact with the mouth. * Injection or puncturing – Result from contact with physical agents (syringes, high pressure devices or sharp objects) * Eyes – 90% of chemicals can be absorbed through the eyes

Answer 83

* Pre-incident planning provides a mechanism for making decisions calmly and rationally, in advance of an emergency. The emergency incident scene is a poor environment in which to make decisions. * Pre-incident planning provides an opportunity to gather information prior to an emergency. Timely, accurate information may be difficult to obtain during a hazardous materials emergency. *Pre-incident planning provides response agencies and personnel with the information needed to act in an effective, well-coordinated manner. Coordination of responders is often a problem at hazardous materials emergencies.

Answer 84

* Compiling Information: Additional information will help you conduct site surveys. Obtain information from public records regarding material usage and waste, traffic patterns, past experience and observation, and other sources of information about each facility. * Preparing for On-Site Surveys Once you have established priorities and tapped and analyzed available sources of information, conduct the on-site surveys. An on-site survey helps you assess relevant information, including the location of utility and product shutoffs, built-in protection systems, and areas where spilled products may pool.

Answer 85

* Previous inspection reports * Drawings * Permit applications * History of fires or chemical incidents * MSDSs or lists of chemicals * Maps * Adjacent vulnerable locations

Answer 86

* Location/exposures * Type of construction * Type of business/process * Water supply * Building access * Communications and security * Electrical/gas shutoffs * Water shutoffs and sprinklers * Location/type/quantity of chemicals and their hazards * Emergency medical support available * Work schedules/number of employees * Emergency resources on site/contingency plans * Protective clothing available on site * Vulnerability of surrounding area/ability to evacuate * Adjacent facilities and other exposures that cannot be evacuated or shut down * Compatibility of resources * Waterways and storm sewers, particularly those that empty into waterway

Answer 87

Once materials have been identified, assess the hazards posed by each material and those that could result from a combination of these materials. Flammability, reactivity, and other hazards can be assessed using a variety of sources. Potential Health and Environmental Effects Among the most critical areas of pre-incident planning are the specific health and environmental effects of materials that could be involved in a hazardous materials emergency. The safety of emergency personnel as well as civilians is directly related to health effects of materials.

Answer 88

When you assemble information about a site or transportation corridor, include activities that take place prior to, during, and after visiting the site or area

Answer 89

INFORMATION Regarding access to and exit from a site or area is essential to a comprehensive pre–INCIDENT PLAN

Answer 90

The location of incidents may also present major problems for fire fighters. The presence of large bodies of water, steep hills, high buildings, confined spaces, very porous or very compact soil, hot asphalt, or uneven terrain all increase the likelihood of injuries and add to the complexities of dealing with an incident

Answer 91

Noise is a major but often overlooked hazard. It often interferes with communications between the entry team and command. Noise may be generated by sirens, radios, explosions, air horns, machinery, or venting from containers under pressure

Answer 92

Hazardous materials emergencies often expand beyond the initial hazard area. Runoff, vapor clouds, and fire exposures are a few of the potential avenues for spreading a hazard. An additional function of pre-incident planning is to provide information on exposures

Answer 93

Pre-incident planning helps you identify the protective features of a site and to recognize the abilities and limitations of any in-house response forces. Understanding their capabilities and limitations in advance helps you assign roles and avoid misunderstandings during an emergency

Answer 94

A key task in pre-incident planning is the objective assessment of the capabilities and limitations of response personnel in dealing with potential emergencies at a fixed site or in a particular transportation corridor.

Answer 95

– Temperature at which a solid becomes a liquid

Answer 96

Temperature at which a liquid becomes a solid.

Answer 97

Temperature at which a liquid becomes a vapor.

Answer 98

Measurement of the ability of a material to evaporate 760 mm/hg = 1 ATM = 14.7 psi = 1 BAR

Answer 99

Measurement of the tendency of a gas to either sink or rise Air = 1  > 1 = sink < 1 = rise

Answer 100

Air = 29  > 29 = sink < 29 = rise

Answer 101

How much of one material is in relation to another. Factor that determines the toxicity of a substance.

Answer 102

Concentration of a vapor or gas in the air.

Answer 103

Weight of a material compared to water (1) > 1 = sink < 1 = rise

Answer 104

Degree that one substance will mix completely with another substance

Answer 105

Liquid is infinitely soluble in water

Answer 106

Polar = Positive and Negative charges are present – Non Polar = Positive and Negative charges are evenly distributed within the structure thereby balancing each other out

Answer 107

- Can make a fire burn hotter, faster and cause explosions - Unstable and reactive - Usually does not need air to burn

Answer 108

- Act as both Oxidizer and Corrosive

Answer 109

- Contains both an Oxidizer and a compound that can act as fuel. - Should be treated as Class 1 Explosive.

Answer 110

- Unstable molecules containing excess Oxygen - Decompose rapidly when subjected to heat

Answer 111

- Process of combining single chemical units (Monomers) to form a larger chemical unit (Polymer)

Answer 112

- Material that burns, irritates or destructively attacks organic tissue (skin) - Based on the PH Scale (0 to 14) - Acid 0 to 7 - Base 7 to 14

Answer 113

- Ability of a material to undergo a chemical reaction

Answer 114

- Minimum temperature at which a spark or flame can cause an instantaneous flash in the vapor space above the liquid.

Answer 115

- Temperature at which a material’s vapor start to burn without a flame or other ignition source (Solids=400°F)

Answer 116

- Maximum Safe Storage Temperature: Above this temperature a chemical may become unstable, spontaneously igniting and rupturing the container

Answer 117

- Self-Accelerating Decomposition Temperature: Above this temperature a chemical will become unstable and could rupture it’s container and ignite violently.

Answer 118

- Ability of a liquid to pour: - Low Viscosity (water) pours easily - High Viscosity (oil) pours slowly

Answer 119

- Radioactivity: Ability of certain materials to emit energy as a result of changes to the nucleus or center of their atoms leading to instability.

Answer 120

-Travel only a short distance - Can be stopped by a thin film of water or a sheet of paper - Largest Radioactive Particles - Hazardous if allowed to enter the body

Answer 121

- Can travel up to 30’ from its source - Can penetrate skin

Answer 122

- Higher energy and can penetrate further - Electromagnetic waves without electrical charge - 29 CFR 1910.96

Answer 123

- Instrument’s response or reading relative to the calibration gas

Answer 124

- Time that takes the instrument to obtain the sample and produce a reading. - Factors: Hose length, flow rate of the pump, length of time for the instrument to generate a response.

Answer 125

- Also known as Explosive Meters - Tests the Lower Explosive Level (LEL) - 0% to 100% range of the LEL

Answer 126

- Calibrated to indicate concentrations between 0% and 25%

Answer 127

- Specific Gas detector - Found on “Multi-Gas” or “Toxic” meter

Answer 128

- Measures concentrations of known gas in the air - Uses an vacuum pump - Calibrated to specific gas

Answer 129

- Radiation causes ionization in the detecting media

Answer 130

- Detects organic vapor and gases - Cannot determine the unknowns in the air - Indicates that there is a high or low concentration of a chemical present

Answer 131

- Electrons (negative charge) are held in orbit around the nucleus of an atom (positive charge). The energy required to remove the outermost electron is called “Ionization Potential” (IP) - IP: Unique value for a specific compound - Calibrated to Benzene - Up to 400 to 500 PPM

Answer 132

- Sensitive to low PPM changes - Detect any chemical that can burn.

Answer 133

- Pro: Readily available Highest level of respiratory protection and Oxygen efficiency - Con: Bulky Limited air supply May impair movement Unknown resistance to chemicals

Answer 134

- Pro: Longer work periods Less bulky and less heavy - Con: Hose line impairs mobility Not approved for IDLH environments OSHA / NIOSH limits hose length to 300’

Answer 135

- Pro: Enhanced mobility Increased work duration Less physical stress - Con: Cannot be used on IDLH or environment with 02 deficiency Only protects against specific chemicals Limited duration of protection No positive pressure

Answer 136

- 1920.120 - NFPA 471 to 472 - NFPA 1991 to 1993

Answer 137

- Greatest level of chemical protection - SCBA or PPSAR with escape SCBA inside suit - Vapor protective, fully encapsulating, chemical resistant - Virtually eliminates the possibility of any contact - Limitations: ~ Bulky, does not allow for cooling ~ Reduce mobility and dexterity ~ Cost ~ Man power needed to don / doff

Answer 138

- Splash protective - Not for vapor / gas protection - Cooler / more mobility - Not vapor / gas tight

Answer 139

- Same splash protection as Level B - Reduced level of respiratory protection

Answer 140

- Station uniform / footwear - Eye protection / gloves

Answer 141

Interference with the body’s ability to regulate temperature - Heat cramps: ~ Painful intermittent cramps ~ Heavy sweating ~ Variable pulse and respirations - Heat exhaustion: ~ Profuse sweating ~ Rapid / Shallow respirations ~Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, cool, pale, clammy - Heat Stroke: ~ Life threatening ~ Red, Hot, Dry skin ~ No sweating ~ Core temperature > 104.5 °F

Answer 142

- Frostnip: ~Sudden whitening of the skin ~Some discomfort - Superficial Frostbite: ~Waxy or white skin surface ~Underlying tissue is resilient - Deep Frostbite: ~Cold pale skin ~Underlying tissue is solid - Hypothermia: ~Systemic problem ~Shivering to apathy  Sleepiness  Slow Pulse Coma like respirationsFreezing of extremities Death

Answer 143

- Claustrophobia - Loss of dexterity and movement

Answer 144

- Penetration: Movement of a chemical through existing openings in a material or garment24 - Permeation: Movement of a chemical through a material at a molecular level (NFPA 1991) - Degradation: Actual, observable or measurable change in a material caused by contact with another agent.

Answer 145

Removal of hazardous substances from employees and their equipment to the extent necessary to preclude the occurrence of foreseeable adverse health effects. Eliminate or reduce exposure to harmful substances.

Answer 146

- Surface: Occurs when product remains on the surface of a protective garment. - Permeation: Difficult to detect. Contaminants soak into the protective garment. Difficult to remove. - Direct: Person or object comes in direct contact with the contaminant - Secondary: Person or object (clean) comes in contact with a contaminated person or object.

Answer 147

- Emergency: Designed to quickly decontaminate a civilian or responder who cannot wait for technical decon. - Technical: Planned and systematic removal of contaminants from personnel and equipment. Formalized set of procedures and equipment designed to progressively clean individuals and equipment

Answer 148

- Dilution / Washing: Use of water to carry away and/or dissolve or dilute a chemical hazard. Dilution effectively reduces the concentration of soluble chemicals. - Absorption: Soaking up a liquid contaminant with another medium. Produces less waste. - Absorption: Adherence of a chemical to the surface of another medium. - Isolation: Process of segregating contaminated items from other items and personnel. Placing contaminated items in bags or specifically designated drums. - Disposal: Legal removal of contaminated items to regulated treatment or storage facilities. - Chemical Degradation: Process in which a hazardous chemical is changed or degraded into another, less hazardous compound by the addition of a non-reactive substance.

Answer 149

~Isopropyl Alcohol > Rubbing Alcohol ~Sodium Hypochlorite > Bleach ~Sodium Hydroxide > Drain Cleaner ~Sodium Carbonate > Washing Soda ~Calcium Oxide > Lime

Answer 150

Form of chemical degradation used with Acid and Bases. Object is to bring the PH as near to neutral as possible.

Answer 151

Liquid portion of a contaminant is allowed to evaporate or “gas off” either completely disappearing or leaving behind solids dissolved or suspended in solution.

Answer 152

Process by which another agent is added to a hazardous liquid and combines with it physically and/or chemically to produce a solid

Answer 153

Uses a HEPA vacuum system to remove dust and other hazardous materials from personnel and equipment

Answer 154

Uses compressed air to blow off or remove dust ad some liquids.

Answer 155

Used only when the hazard involves a low-toxicity material. Has a significant cross-contamination risk.

Answer 156

- Before entering the Hot Zone - Uphill / Up wind - Marked and easy to see - Considerations: ~ Product, Weather Topography

Answer 157

- Physical Hazards: Slip / Trip hazards – Barriers – Obstruction – Environmental – Weather. - Container hazards. - Container stability. - Container integrity. - Energy release.

Answer 158

- Have a plan. - Stay away from the product. - Have the correct tools. - Reduce leaks before containing them. - Protect against fire. - Basic: Diking / Damming - Advanced: Plugging / Patching / Over packing - Special: Transfer / Neutralization / Saddle Tank Ops.

Answer 159

Process of limiting a product spill to the smallest possible area.

Answer 160

- Solids: Site control – plastic sheeting – tarps. - Liquids: Challenging – easy to spread based on terrain and viscosity. ~ Diking / Damming: Easiest method to confine a spill ~ Absorption: Use of another material placed directly on the liquid to soak. ~ Adsorption: Use of another material placed on the product to adhere to the surface. ~ Diversion Channels liquid to another, less sensitive area. ~ Retention: Act of holding liquids until they are neutralized. ~ Dispersion: Use of special agents to break up non-soluble liquids in water. - Gases / Vapors: ~ Confining liquids to a small area reduces vapor production ~ Suppression: Use of foam blanket to prevent or reduce vapor production. ~ Dispersion: Moving gas / vapors to another area or diluting it’s concentration in air.

Answer 161

Stopping or slowing a leak from a container. - Neutralization: Adding a different chemical to reduce or eliminate the hazards - Over packing: Process of placing a damaged container into an undamaged container. - Plugging: Placing an object into an opening of a container. - Patching: Placing of a material over an opening on a container. - Bandage: Use with or instead of patches. - Auxiliary Closure Devices: Meant to be use when an engineered opening (Valve, cover, man way) has been breached.

Answer 162

- Kit A: Cylinders up to 150 lbs. - Kit B: One Ton Cylinders. - Kit C: Cargo Train cars.

Answer 163

- Cracks: Narrow split or breaks due to fatigue or impact, - Scores: Reduction in thickness when container is indented. - Gouge: Reduction in thickness when part of the container material is removed. - Dent: Deformation in a tank caused by blunt object. - Burns: ~ Wheel: Constant contact with a turning wheel which reduces the thickness of the tank car. ~ Rail: Result of a moving tank passing over a stationary object. ~ Street: Deformation in a tank shell caused by sliding on pavement.

Answer 164

Field product removal methods - Transferring: Product must be transferred prior to up righting if extensive damage is present to tank, frame, understructure or other mechanical damage or the site conditions prohibits the up righting of the tank. - Venting: Process of releasing flammable and nonflammable liquefied compressed gas vapors into the atmosphere to reduce internal pressure - Flaring: Control release and disposal of flammable materials by burning from the outlet of a pipe. - Venting and Burning: Method of removing liquefied flammable compressed gas or flammable liquids from a tank by creating openings through the controlled use of explosives.

Answer 165

* CL2/ Hazard Class 2.3 / UN 1017 * Corrosive / Toxic * Can cause frostbite * (+ Water) = Hydrochloric Acid * VP = 6.8 ATM * VD = 2.47 * BP = -29 °F * SG = 1.467 * Expansion Ratio 460:1

Answer 166

OSHA 29 1910.120 / EPA 40 CFR 311

Answer 167

- Understand the nature of the hazard. - Gather information about the hazard. (Time consuming) - Size up ~ Hazard Identification: Chemical Identities, Quantities, Handling, Location, Means of spread, Hazards related to spill and/or release. ~ Vulnerability: Types of exposure, Extent of the vulnerable area, Private and public property involved/compromised, Environment. ~ Risk Analysis: Assesses the likelihood of injury or death.

Answer 168

Proper personnel with adequate resources for different tasks must be on scene before any offensive operations begin.

Answer 169

Risk taken must be justified by the likely benefits of their actions

Answer 170

* Seen or be known to exist * Time frame of exposure to material * Viable? * Entrapment

Answer 171

~ Identity of the materials ~ Visible? ~ Properties ~ Ignition sources present ~ Amount of material ~ Concentration in the area around patient ~ Status of container and/or vehicle involved

Answer 172

~ Adequately skilled and experienced ~ Monitoring devices available ~ Appropriate PPE ~ Appropriate staffing ~ Time frame for extrication ~ Proper tools

Answer 173

Responsible for entry into the Hot Zone. It handles

Answer 174

~ Identifies the boundaries of various zones ~ Monitors access routes ~ Ensures that contaminants are not being spread

Answer 175

Hot, Warm, Cold (Based on level of contamination) - Safety: ~ Supports Hazmat Sector’s OIC - Research: ~ Retrieves printed and database information (Health Hazards, handling techniques, PPE recommendation, environmental effects) - Entry: ~ Responsible for operations in the Hot Zone - Decon: ~ Responsible for removing contaminants from personnel and equipment. - Termination of Incident: ~ Phase in which FD activities are concluded and responsibility is transferred to Federal, State or local agency responsible for clean up - Waste Handling: ~ hazardous waste should be placed in compatible containers and left in the custody of the individual in charge of clean-up efforts.

Answer 176

defined as an unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property

Answer 177

~ Bacteria, fungi, viruses or toxins ~ Dispersed as solids, liquid, gases aerosols and vapors ~ 1 to 5 micrometers can remain in the air for hours ~ Different dispersion methods allow the agent to affect eyes and skin by direct contact.

Answer 178

~ Small quantities ~ Highly radioactive

Answer 179

~ Flammable devices that are thrown or placed ~ When detonated they create large amounts of fire ~ Consider secondary devices

Answer 180

~ Number one terrorist weapon ~ Pipe bombs ~ Plastic explosives

Answer 181

~ Can exist as solids, liquids or gases depending on the temperature / pressure ~ Hydrogen Cyanide, Chlorine, Phosgene ~ Vesicants / Blister agents: Respiratory collapse, aspiration, pneumonia, chemical burns. ~ Blood Agents: Cyanide, Arsine, Carbon Monoxide ~ Chocking Pulmonary: Irritation, Damage to mucus membranes. ~ Nerve Agents: Mark I Kits. Organo-phosphate poisoning ~ Categories : Neurotoxins (Nerve Agents), Chemical Asphyxiants (Blood Agents), Respiratory Irritants (Chocking Agents), Skin Irritants (Blister Agents), Anti-personnel (Riot Control)

Answer 182

Substances capable of causing disease (Hepatitis, HIV)

Answer 183

Combining weapons produces even larger number of victims and destruction (i.e. dirty bombs)

Answer 184

~Thermal: Hazards from both hot and cold substances. Fire or heat generated by a detonation or chemical reaction. ~ Radiological: Alpha, Beta particles and Gamma radiation. ~ Asphyxiation: Simple: Lack of O2 (by depletion or displacement), Chemical: Inability of the body to exchange air. ~ Chemical: Toxic or corrosive materials. ~ Etiological: Bacteria, Rickettsia, Viruses, and Toxins. Hazardous if a device is used to disperse them. ~ Mechanical: Physical item or situation that causes trauma. Blast pressure, shockwave, fragmentation

Answer 185

~Tactical: Hostile threat removed (PD). ~ Operational: Life Safety Objectives. ~ Crime Scene (PD). ~ Thread lightly.

Answer 186

1. Preparation 2. Approach the scene 3. Secure and protect the scene 4. Initiate primary survey 5. Evaluate physical evidence possibilities 6. Narrative description 7. Photography 8. Diagram / Sketch of scene 9. Detailed search 10. Record and collect physical evidence 11. Conduct final survey 12. Turn over to PD

Answer 187

~ RF shielded high impact plastic case ~ CSA classified for Class I, Division I, Groups A, B, C, and D hazardous atmospheres ~ Response time T90 within 30 seconds ~ Operating Temperature + Humidity: -20 °C to 50°C/ Bellow 85% RH (Without Condensation) ~ Power Supply and Operating Time: ~ Four (4) C Size Alkaline (standard) / 16 hrs (non alarm operation, full charge) ~ Four (4) C Size Ni-MH (optional) / 18 hrs hrs (non alarm operation, full charge) / 500 charges cycle ~ Dimensions and weight: 5.6”H x 2.5”W x 1.5”D  Calibrated to Methane (CH4).

Answer 188

Oxygen Sensor The O2 sensor is a galvanic type of sensor. A membrane behind the openings on the sensor face allows gas to diffuse into the sensor at a rate proportional to the partial pressure of oxygen. The oxygen reacts in the sensor and produces a voltage proportional to the concentration of oxygen. The voltage is measured by the EAGLE 2’s circuitry, converted to a measurement of gas concentration, and displayed on the LCD

Answer 189

The standard factory configuration for the EAGLE 2 allows the user to use the RANGE ▼ SHIFT button to change the displayed detection units of the catalytic combustible channel between %LEL, ppm, and %volume. The detection range of the combustible catalytic channel when set for ppm or %volume will correspond to 0 - 100% LEL for the configured gas. For example, the LEL for methane (CH4) is 5% volume, or 50,000 ppm. So if the catalytic combustible channel is displayed in terms of %volume, the full scale is 5.00% and if it is displayed in terms of ppm, the full scale is 50,000 ppm.

Answer 190

NOTE: False alarms may be caused by radio frequency (RF) or electromagnetic (EMI) interference. Keep the EAGLE 2 away from RF and EMI sources such as radio transmitters or large motors.

Answer 191

LOW ALARM- CONCENTRATION OF GAS RISES ABOVE THE LOW ALARM SETTING OR FALLS BELOW THE LOW ALARM SETTING FOR 02 ALRM1 APPEARS NEXT TO GAS READING ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH ONCE PER SECOND BACKLIGHT TURNS ON

Answer 192

PULSING TONE ONCE/ PER SECOND

Answer 193

CONCETRATION OF GAS RISES ABOVE THE HIGH ALARM SETTING

Answer 194

ALRM2 APPEARS NEXT TO THE GAS READING ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH TWICE PER/ SECOND BACKLIGHT TURNS ON

Answer 195

PULSING TONE TWICE PER SECOND

Answer 196

CONCENTRATION OF CO OR H2S RISES ABOVE THE TWA OR STEL ALARM SETTING

Answer 197

ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH ONCE PER SECOND BACKLIGHT TURNS ON TWA OR STEL APPEARS NEXT TO GAS READING ON LCD SCREEN

Answer 198

PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 199

(OVER) APPEARS NEXT TO GAS READING GAS READING INDICATES FULL SCALE ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH TWICE PER SECOND BACKLIGHT TURNS ON

Answer 200

PULSING TONE TWICE PER SECOND

Answer 201

THE DISPLAY INDICATES (FAIL LOW FLOW LEVEL) ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH IN A DOUBLE PULSING PATTERN ONCE PER SECOND BACKLIGHT TURNS OUT

Answer 202

DOUBLE PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 203

BATT APPEARS VERTICALLY ALONG THE LEFT SIDE OF THE LCD SCREEN

Answer 204

NO INDICATIONS

Answer 205

DOUBLE PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 206

DOUBLE PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 207

FAILED SENSORS APPEAR AT THE TOP OF THE DISPLAY AND THE FAILED SENSOR IS INDICATED ALARM LED ARRAYS FLASH IN A DOUBLE PULSING PATTERN ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 208

DOUBLE PULSING TONE ONCE PER SECOND

Answer 209

The EAGLE 2 will sound an alarm and flash the LED arrays when one of the target gas concentrations rises above the Low Alarm level, or in the case of oxygen falls below the Low Alarm level, for that gas

Answer 210

The EAGLE 2 also sounds an alarm and flashes the LED arrays when one of the target gas concentrations rises above the High Alarm level and when the STEL and TWA alarm levels are reached for CO and H2S

Answer 211

If an alarm condition occurs while you are in Display Mode, the EAGLE 2 will automatically bring up the alarm screen instead.

Answer 212

Self-resetting alarms (ALARM LATCHING set to SELF RESET) Self-resetting alarms automatically shut off and reset when the gas reading falls below (or rises above for an oxygen low alarm) the alarm setting. You cannot reset self-resetting alarms with the POWER ENTER RESET button. You can set self-resetting alarms with or without the alarm silence feature

Answer 213

Latching alarms (ALARM LATCHING set to LATCHING) Latching alarms will remain in effect until the gas reading falls below (or rises above for an oxygen low alarm) the alarm setting and they are reset with the POWER ENTER RESET button.

Answer 214

ALARM SILENCE set to ON and ALARM LATCHING set to LATCHING are the factory settings Press and release any button to silence the buzzer. If the gas concentration was still above the alarm level when the button was pressed, the LED arrays continue to flash, and the EAGLE 2 continues to display the current alarm level. The gas reading must fall below (or rise above for an oxygen low alarm) an alarm setting before you can reset the alarm.

Answer 215

Gas reading must fall below (or rise above for an oxygen low alarm) an alarm setting before you can reset the alarm. When the alarm condition passes, press and release the POWER ENTER RESET button to reset the alarm. The LED arrays and buzzer turn off and the EAGLE 2 alarm indications on the display turn off.

Answer 216

Two other operating modes are accessible when the EAGLE 2 is in Measuring Mode. They are Display Mode and Calibration Mode. This section describes using the EAGLE 2 in Display Mode. In Display Mode you can: * display peak readings * display the minimum operating and current battery voltage * select how the active channels are displayed on the LCD

Answer 217

* turn the catalytic LEL sensor on or off (if there is a TC or infrared combustible channel along with a catalytic combustible channel) * enable or disable methane elimination mode (if the catalytic combustible gas channel is configured appropriately in the CONFIGURE GASES item in Setup Mode) * Temporarily configure the catalytic combustible channel for a target gas other than the one used for calibration (if the RELATIVE RESPONSE item in Setup Mode is set to ON) * display STEL readings (H2S and CO only) * display TWA readings (H2S and CO only) * display alarm settings * select the user ID (if the USER/STATION ID item in Setup Mode is set to ON) * select the station ID (if the USER/STATION ID item in Setup Mode is set to ON) * display time in operation * Display date and time * display remaining data logging time and clear data logger memory (if the DATA LOG MEMORY item in Setup Mode is set to ON)

Answer 218

* To enter Display Mode and scroll from one screen to the next or skip an item when a question is asked, press and release the DISPLAY ADJUST NO button. * To enter an item when a question is asked, press and release the AIR ▲ YES button. * To change a flashing parameter, use either the AIR ▲ YES button or RANGE ▼ SHIFT button

Answer 219

Each screen displays for 20 seconds. If you do not press a button within 20 seconds, the EAGLE 2 automatically returns to Measuring Mode.

Answer 220

The peak screen displays the highest (lowest for oxygen) concentrations detected since the EAGLE 2 was turned on. Readings are stored in the EAGLE 2’s memory until a higher level is detected (lower for oxygen), the peak reading is cleared, or the EAGLE 2 is turned off. The lunch break feature enables the EAGLE 2 to save peak readings when it is turned off so it can continue them when it is turned on again To clear the peak readings, do the following:

Answer 221

1. With the Peak Screen displayed, press and release the POWER ENTER RESET button. The following screen will appear. 2. Press and release the AIR ▲ YES button. The peak readings will be reset and the unit will return to the Peak Screen. If you do not want to clear the peak readings, press and release the DISPLAY ADJUST NO button and the unit will return to the Peak Screen without clearing the peak readings.

Answer 222

BATTERY MIN LEVEL 4.3 VOLTS The Battery Voltage Screen displays the minimum operating voltage and the current battery voltage. Fully charged alkaline batteries typically indicate 6.0 volts; fully charged Ni-MH batteries typically indicate 5.2 volts

Answer 223

The Gas Display Screen gives you the option to select how the active channels are displayed. You can display all of them on the screen at the same time, one at a time with automatic scrolling, or one at time with manual scrolling. The factory setting displays all of the active channels at the same time *SELECT GASES DISPLAYED*

Answer 224

1. With the Gas Display Screen displayed, press and release the AIR ▲ YES button. The following screen will appear with the cursor blinking. 2. Use the AIR ▲ YES and RANGE ▼ SHIFT buttons to place the cursor next to the desired choice.41 3. Press and release the POWER ENTER RESET button. The unit continues to the STEL Screen and the display configuration will reflect your choice when you return to Measuring Mode. If you do not want to change the setting, press and release the DISPLAY ADJUST NO button and the unit will return to the Gas Display Screen. SELECT GASES DISPLAYED SELECT >DISPLAY ALL SCROLL AUTO SCROLL MANUAL

Answer 225

The STEL Screen displays the short term exposure limit (STEL) readings for H2S and CO only. The STEL reading is the average reading over the last 15 minutes

Answer 226

The TWA Screen displays the time weighted average (TWA) readings for H2S and CO only. The TWA reading is the average reading over the last 8 hours. If 8 hours have not elapsed since the last time the TWA reading was cleared, the average is still calculated over 8 hours.

Answer 227

1. The View Alarm Settings Screen gives you the option to view the gas alarm settings for all active channels. To view the gas alarm settings, do the following: 1. With the View Alarm Settings Screen displayed, press and release the AIR ▲ YES button. The following screen appears showing Channel 1 alarm points

Answer 228

2. If the channel description is too long to fit across the screen, press and release the POWER ENTER RESET button to view the remainder of the displayed channel’s description. Press and release the POWER ENTER RESET button again to return to the previous screen.

Answer 229

3. If the number of alarm settings is too many to display on one screen, a down arrow will appear in the lower right corner of the display indicating that there are additional alarm points. Press and release the RANGE ▼ SHIFT button to scroll down and display the remainder of the gas alarm settings for the displayed channel and again to return to the previous screen.

Answer 230

In Calibration Mode, you can move through a menu of screens to do the following: * Perform a span adjustment on all channels simultaneously using auto calibration * Perform a span adjustment on one channel at a time using single calibration * Perform a fresh air (zero) adjustment

Answer 231

PROBLEM: THE LCD SHOWS ABNORMALLY HIGH OR LOW READINGS BUT OTHER GAS DETECTION INSTRUMENTS DO NOT CAUSES: THE EAGLE 2 MAY NEED TO BE RECALIBRATED. CAUSES: THE SENSOR FOR THE AFFECTED CHANNEL(S) MAY NEED REPLACMENT SOLUTION: 1.RECALIBRTE THE METER 2. IF THE ISSUE CONTINUES REPLACE THE SENSOR FOR THE AFFECTED CHANNEL(S) AND CALIBRATE THE AFFECTED CHANNEL(S) 3. IF THE DIFFICULTIES CONTINUE, CONTACT RKI FOR FURTHER INSTRUCTION

Answer 232

- 3 seconds response time - It monitors Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC) using a photoionization detector (PID) with a 9.8 eV,*(10.6 eV)*, or 11.7 eV gas-discharge lamps.  More than 16 hours of continuous monitoring with rechargeable battery pack - Designed to continuously monitor VOC vapor at parts-per-million (ppm) levels - Preset alarm thresholds for STEL, TWA, low- and high-level peak values. - 260,000-point data logging storage capacity - It gives real-time measurements and activates alarm signals whenever the exposure exceeds preset limits. - The default setting for your instrument is: User Mode: Basic Operation Mode: Hygiene

Answer 233

Size: 9.25" L x 3.6" W x 2.9" H - Weight: 28 oz. with battery pack - Detector: Photoionization sensor with 9.8, 10.6, or 11.7 eV UV lamp - Battery: A 4.2V/3300mAH rechargeable Lithium-Ion battery pack (snap in, field replaceable, at non-hazardous location only) Alkaline battery holder (for 4 AA batteries) Battery Charging: Less than 8 hours to full charge - Operating Hours: Up to16 hours continuous operation - Display: Large dot matrix screen with backlight - Response time (T 90 in 2 seconds - Accuracy 10 to 2000 ppm: ±3% at calibration point. - Inlet Probe: Flexible 5" tubing - Direct Readout: Instantaneous, average, STEL, TWA and peak value, and battery voltage - Sampling Pump: Internally integrated. Flow rate: 450 to 550 cc/min. - Temperature: -20º C to 50º C (-4º to 122º F) - Humidity: 0% to 95% relative humidity (non-condensing) Low Voltage Warning When the battery’s charge falls below a preset voltage, the instrument warns you by beeping once and flashing once every minute, and the “empty battery” icon blinks on and off once per second.

Answer 234

An internal clock battery is mounted on one of the instrument’s printed circuit boards. This long-life battery keeps settings in memory from being lost whenever the Li-ion battery or alkaline batteries are removed

Answer 235

When the instrument is turned off, all the current real-time data including last measured values are erased. However, the data log data is preserved in non-volatile memory.

Answer 236

The instrument is programmed to operate in Basic User Level/Hygiene Mode as its default. This gives you the most commonly needed features while requiring the fewest parameter adjustments. Pressing [N/-] steps you from one screen to the next, and eventually return to the main display. If you do not press a key within 60 seconds after entering a display, the instrument reverts to its main display. After the instrument is turned on, it runs through the start-up menu. Then the messages “Please apply zero gas…” is displayed. At this point, you can perform a zero air (fresh air) calibration. If the ambient air is clean, you can use that. Otherwise, use a cylinder of zero air. Start zero calibration by pressing Start. You see the message “Zeroing…” followed by a 30- second countdown. Note: You can press [MODE] to quit, bypassing the zero air calibration. When zero calibration is complete, you see the message: Zeroing is done! Reading = 0.0 ppm The instrument is now sampling and collecting data.

Answer 237

During each measurement period, the gas concentration is compared with the programmed alarm limits (gas concentration alarm limit settings). If the concentration exceeds any of the preset limits, the loud buzzer and red flashing LED are activated immediately to warn you of the alarm condition. In addition, the instrument alarms if one of the following conditions occurs: battery voltage falls below a preset voltage level, failure of the UV lamp, or pump stall. Preset Alarm Limits & Calibration The instrument is factory calibrated with standard calibration gas, and is programmed with default alarm limits.

Answer 238

A memory error has occurred TO CORRECT THIS RANGE & DOWN BUTTON+SHIFT DISPLAY ADJUST NO BUTTON AND RELEASE BOTH. ENTER PASSWORD WILL APPEAR- THEN ENTER THE (PW-1994) THEN SET DEFAULT SCREEN TRY (POWER-ENTER-RESET) IF THIS DOES NOT WORK VISUALLY INSPECT THE PROBE HOSE. CHECK THE EXTERNAL HYDROPHOBIC FILTER CHECK THE INTERNAL HYDROPHOBIC FILTER PUMP MAY BE MALFUNCTIONING

Answer 239

* Noninvasive, arterial oxygen saturation and pulse rate monitor. The Rad-57 features a multicolored LED display that continuously displays numeric values for SpO2 and pulse rate, a Low Signal IQ Indicator (Low SIQ) indicator, alarm status, alarm silence and battery * Over 8 hours of continuous use on 4 “AA” alkaline batteries

Answer 240

*uses a multi-wavelength sensor to distinguish between oxygenated blood, deoxygenated blood, blood with carbon monoxide content and blood with oxidized hemoglobin * Oxyhemoglobin (oxygenated blood), deoxyhemoglobin (non-oxygenated blood), carboxyhemoglobin (blood with carbon monoxide content) and methemoglobin (blood with oxidized hemoglobin content) species differ in their absorption of visible and infrared light *The amount of arterial blood in tissue changes with your pulse (photoplethysography). Therefore, the amount of light absorbed by the varying quantities of arterial blood changes as well.

Answer 241

BATTERY LEVEL INDICATOR Four LED indicators provide information on the remaining battery capacity. The operator should monitor these indicators periodically to determine remaining battery life and if the batteries should be replaced. Battery capacity is indicated in the following chart. 4LEDS- (100%-75%) 3LEDS-(75%-50%) 2LEDS-(50%-25%) 1LED -(25%-10%) 1FLASHING LED WITH AUDIBLE ALARM (10%-0%)

Answer 242

RESPONSE TIME OF 20 SECONDS OR LESS

Answer 243

THIS METER IS USED WITH 44-2 GAMMA SCINTILLATOR Used for detecting low levels of gamma radiation in the range of 60 keV - 1.25 MeV.

Answer 244

44-9 (Geiger-Mueller ALPHA, BETA, GAMMA DETECTOR (PANCAKE)

Answer 245

Ludlum Model 133-8 Gamma Radiation Detector * APPLICATION: gamma radiation survey, dose rate, area monitoring

Answer 246

Propane belongs to a family of chemical compounds known as hydrocarbons.

Answer 247

* They are tasteless, colorless, and usually odorless. * LP-gases are capable of being either a liquid or gas. However, under ambient conditions, propane will be a gas. * Most LP-gases can be stored and transported as liquids under pressure and can easily vaporize into gas under the proper conditions. *Under normal outdoor temperatures liquid LP-gases expand rapidly into gas. One cubic foot of liquid propane will boil off and produce 270 cubic feet of propane vapor.

Answer 248

LP-gases will expand when heat is applied. If stored inside a container, this expansion will increase the volume of the liquid and the pressure inside the container. LPgases are not toxic, but they present possible inhalation hazards. If released in a confined space, propane can displace oxygen and act as a simple asphyxiant.

Answer 249

The average specific gravity is 0.504 at 60°F (15.6°C). This means that propane liquid is a little more than one-half the weight of water at 60°F (15.6°C). Propane vapor has a vapor density of 1.52 at 60°F (15.6°C). The important point to remember is that propane vapor is about 1.5 times heavier than air (air = 1.00). If a leak develops in a gas line or container, propane readily dissipates. However, under the right conditions, propane gas may settle in low unventilated areas and can become concentrated if there is little or no air movement.

Answer 250

It has a boiling point of -44°F (-42°C), well below the boiling point of water and normal ambient temperature. At temperatures above its boiling point, propane will usually boil off into vapor.

Answer 251

However, it should be noted that propane can also pool as a liquid when released at very low ambient temperatures. In order to store propane as a liquid above its normal boiling point, it must be stored and transported in pressure-tight containers called cylinders or tanks.

Answer 252

The ignition temperature of propane is approximately BETWEEN 920°F (493°C) and 1,120°F (604°C)

Answer 253

The ideal combustion ratio is 24 parts of air (96%) to 1 part of propane (4%).

Answer 254

The lower flammable limit (LFL) for commercial propane is 2.15%,

Answer 255

PROPANES upper flammable limit (UFL) is 9.60%.

Answer 256

Recommended Practice for Responding to Hazardous Material Incidents: recommended practice that covers planning, procedures, policies, and application of procedures for incident levels, personal protective clothing and equipment, of decontamination, safety, and communications

Answer 257

—Standard for Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Material Incidents: technical standard that specifies the minimum competencies for those who will respond to hazardous material incidents

Answer 258

—Standard for Professional Competence of EMS Personnel Responding to Hazardous Material Incidents: technical standard that specifies minimum requirements of competence to enhance the safety and protection of response personnel and all components of the emergency medical services system

Answer 259

- Hazardous Materials Branch Director/Group Supervisor - Hazardous Materials Operations - Hazardous Materials Safety - Hazardous Materials Medical - Hazardous Materials Entry - Hazardous Materials Decontamination - Hazardous Materials Research - Hazardous Materials Logistics

Answer 260

- Confirmed or suspected petroleum products or chemical spills, leaks, or releases. - Train derailments and aircraft accidents. - Significant gas emergencies (two inches or greater in diameter). - Incidents involving surface transportation of hazardous materials. - Hazardous materials release in structures. - Unknown odors in/out of structures causing adverse health problems. - Incidents or attacks involving weapons of mass destruction (WMD) including: chemical, biological, radiological and explosives. - Any incident determined to be a Hazardous Materials Emergency by the Public Safety Communications Center (PSCC).

Answer 261

- OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120 (Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response) - NFPA 471 (Recommended Practice for Responding to Hazardous Materials Incidents) - NFPA 472 (Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents) - NFPA 473 (Competencies for Emergency Medical Services Personnel Responding to Hazardous Materials Incidents)

Answer 262

- Any unsafe act will be discontinued and or corrected immediately when identified. All team members are responsible for taking corrective action when safety violations are observed. - Levels of personal protection are predicated on the presenting hazard; therefore, an early and accurate identification of the chemical/hazard involved is critical. - Work zones will be established as soon as possible. Initial monitoring should be conducted using appropriate personal protection. - The Incident Safety Officer will make contact with the Hazmat Branch Safety Officer as soon as possible. The Hazmat Brach Safety Officer will complete and monitor the Site Safety Plan throughout the incident. Once the plan has been developed and approved by the command staff, any change will require the approval of the IC. - Anytime personnel are operating in or near a flammable atmosphere, protective hose line(s) or dry chemical extinguisher(s) will be readied for use.. - Avoid chemical/hazard contamination and unnecessary exposure at all times. - Establish decontamination procedures as appropriate for the incident as soon as possible. - Anytime the Hazardous Materials Response Team is engaged in product transfer operations, appropriate grounding and bonding will be used. The crew assigned to the task will diagram the grounding and bonding configuration. - Use caution when positioning apparatus at the scene. - All Hazardous Materials Response Team members are expected to follow the safety guidelines established in the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 1920.120 (HAZWOPER), and the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 471, Site Safety documents.

Answer 263

- Who and What is impacted, (i.e. people, the environment, infrastructure) - Physical / chemical properties of the chemical or agent - Quantity involved and released - Type of container - Damage to the container 88 - Environmental conditions - Weather – temperature, wind, humidity - Indoor vs. outdoors - Topography - Ventilation - Available resources

Answer 264

Any change in oxygen concentrations may be cause for concern The following action levels for atmospheric monitoring have been established to assure a safe operating environment for all personnel. - Oxygen deficiency 19.5% - Oxygen enriched 23.5% - Flammability 10% of LEL

Answer 265

Toxicity: - CO 10 PPM - H 2 S 10 PPM - Radiation 10 mR/hr exclusion area In the event of a needed rescue, a once in a lifetime exposure of 25 R is acceptable

Answer 266

Level – A: totally encapsulating chemical protective clothing protection affords the responder with a vapor tight ensemble that features the highest level of both respiratory and skin protection available. Equipment Required - positive pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) - totally encapsulated chemical protective suit (TECP) - latex/nitrile gloves - gloves, inner, chemical resistant - gloves, outer, chemical resistant - boots, chemical resistant, steel toe and shank - hard hat (optional) - coveralls, fire retardant - two-way radio communications - personal cooling unit (optional) - outer flash fire protective garment

Answer 267

The “Quick Dress” procedure is for the rapid donning of CPC (Chemical Protective Clothing), entry into the contaminated environment, and extraction of “viable” victims. To facilitate rapid entry, extensive compatibility research, pre-entry physicals, and normal step-by-step dressing procedures will not be utilized. Selection of CPC will be based on physical/chemical properties of the chemical/agent(s), the environment (i.e. indoor vs. outdoors, ventilated vs. unventilated, below grade, etc.), symptomology of the patients, broad compatibility capabilities of the PPE, etc. Emergency gross decontamination capabilities must be developed for the extracted victims and entry team members.

Answer 268

Affords the user with the highest level of respiratory protection and a lesser level of skin protection designed for liquid splash protection. Level B protection should be selected when the atmospheric hazards have been identified, a high level of respiratory protection is needed, and a lesser level of skin (dermal) protection is required. Level B ensembles will not protect the responder against dangerous gases and vapors. The hazardous materials team utilizes three different styles of Level B splash garments including: - Encapsulated non-gas/vapor tight - Hooded one-piece coverall - Hooded two-piece Equipment Required: - positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) - chemical splash suit - latex/nitrile gloves - gloves, outer, chemical resistant - gloves, inner, chemical resistant - boots, chemical resistant, steel toe and shank - two-way radio communications - hard hat or fire helmet (optional)

Answer 269

Affords the user with same liquid splash protection as a Level B ensemble with a lower level of respiratory protection (APR/PAPR). Level C protection can be selected if the following conditions have been identified: - Specific chemical has been recognized - Oxygen concentration at normal levels - Recognized chemical concentration below IDLH levels - Specific chemical cartridge available Equipment Required: - Full-Face, Air Purifying Respirator (APR) or Powered Air Purifying Respirator (PAPR) with the specific chemical cartridge. - chemical splash suit - latex/nitrile gloves - gloves, outer, chemical resistant - gloves, inner, chemical resistant 90 - boots, chemical resistant, steel toe and shank - two-way radio communications - hard hat or fire helmet (optional)

Answer 270

Addresses normal workplace protection. Level D protection is commonly used in routine industrial operations. - Normal workplace uniform - Eye protection - Boots/shoes that are steel-toed and shanked - Hard hat - Gloves

Answer 271

TIER – I: First Responder Operations The crew of the first arriving unit approaching a hazardous materials emergency shall position. the apparatus uphill/upwind with concern for a potentially dangerous and unstable environment until a comprehensive size-up has been conducted. Current weather conditions and topography should be considered prior to arrival. Establish command, give a preliminary situation report, disseminate any supplemental information when received and make appropriate notifications. The Hazardous Materials Response Team will communicate technical data to the incident commander for initial decision-making options. Attempt to identify the product by using: - occupancy/incident location - container information/shape, size - placards - labels / marking - shipping papers/facility documents - product behavior/explosions, environmental deformation, adverse health reactions to individuals involved with the incident - individuals familiar with the material Scene control procedures should be based on the hazards of the product, the physical state, other physical/ chemical properties, quantity released, weather conditions, topography, type of container and damage to the container, results of atmospheric monitoring and information obtained from the (ERG). Anytime personnel are operating on an incident involving possible flammable/combustible material responders should have a charged protective hand line(s) and dry chemical extinguisher(s) available for use. Any possible ignition sources should be eliminated.

Answer 272

TIER – I: CONTINUED Establish a clearly marked hot zone (exclusion zone) the number of personnel operating in or near the hot zone shall be kept to the minimum. Emergency decontamination will be performed on all contaminated victim(s) exiting the hot zone. Emergency decontamination is performed by first responders. TIER I defensive response objectives including: - Extinguishment - Vapor Suppression - Vapor Dispersion - Absorption - Dilution - Remote Valve Shutoff - Diking, Damming, Diverting, Retaining - Call for additional resources

Answer 273

TIER – II: Hazardous Materials Rescue Companies They are the initial Technician level trained personnel that will begin the transition from defensive to offensive tactical objectives to include site characterization, victim extraction, atmospheric monitoring to establish control zones and begin the specific chemical research process. Hazardous Materials Rescue Companies - Rescue 444 - Rescue 411 - Rescue 419 - Rescue 426 Tier II Rescue Company Offensive Response Objectives: - Verify product identification - Quick Dress Procedure for patient extraction - Ensure adequate control zones - Atmospheric monitoring - Select personal protective equipment - Chemical research - Offensive leak and spill control - Continue notification process Field Decontamination Units (FDU’s) are selected Engine Companies with enhanced chemical protective clothing and specialized decontamination equipment. FDU’s have the ability to decontaminate large numbers of victims at hazardous materials incidents or operate at remote sites such as hospitals where patients may self-present.

Answer 274

- Battalion 1 E404 E431 - Battalion 2 E402 E413 - Battalion 3 E415 E432 - Battalion 4 E408 E423 - Battalion 5 E427 E435 - Battalion 6 E424 E437

Answer 275

- Determine decontamination site. - Perform gross decontamination after structure fires. - Provide assistance to the Hazardous Materials Response Team on large-scale incidents requiring mass decontamination.

Answer 276

SHRU Units provide bulk spill containment materials and Mass decontamination equipment Special Hazard Response Units - Fire Station 27 - Fire Station 31

Answer 277

Tier II Mass Decon/Spill Control Unit’s Response Objective: - Provide additional equipment necessary for mass decontamination and spill control.

Answer 278

TIER - III: Hazardous Materials Units The Hazardous Materials and Support Units provide technical expertise and specialized equipment to stabilize and mitigate all incidents involving chemical and weapons of mass destruction emergencies. Tier III Hazardous Material’s Units Response Objectives: - Implement Hazardous Materials Incident Management System - Provide technical information for the Incident Commander - Establish strategic goals and tactical objectives - Develop and implement an Incident Action Plan - Create a site-specific safety plan - Research and select appropriate chemical protective clothing ensemble - Develop site-specific decontamination plan - Medical monitoring/surveillance - Notifications - Recovery/Termination

Answer 279

Technical Decontamination Is a systematic contamination reduction corridor that is designed to be utilized for members that have been working in the hot zone. This site layout may be modified to meet the particulardecontamination requirements addressed as part of the overall site safety plan. The type and method of decontamination that is utilized should be commensurate with the hazards and properties of the chemical/agent, the work assignment, and the environment the incident occurs in. A decontamination capability shall always be established if hazardous materials response team members are entering a known or suspected contaminated environment; however, the Hazmat OIC shall have the authority to modify the set-up based on risk assessment and specific incident factors.

Answer 280

Radiological Decontamination is a specialized process that involves thorough patient frisking prior to entering and exiting the warm zone (contamination reduction corridor). Patient frisking involves Technicians utilizing hand held radiological detectors with pancake style probes to conduct a whole body survey to determine if radiological contamination is present.

Answer 281

The Hazmat Research position will be responsible for making notifications while en-route or as soon as possible. Personnel will contact and brief/update the following individuals and/or agencies: - Hazardous Materials Group paging system. - Hazardous Materials Program Manager (BCHM will notify and brief the Deputy Chief special operations for working incidents). - Hazardous Materials Services. - Virginia Emergency Operation Center. - Virginia Department of Emergency Management. - Virginia Department of Environmental Quality.

Answer 282

Is a systematic closure of the event managed by FRD personnel. There are several stages associated with terminating the incident. The termination procedure at all hazardous materials emergencies will be noted as part of the incident action plan, and shall be passed-on to the incident commander in the form of recommendations.

Answer 283

Termination procedures start at the inception of the incident by providing documentation of incident operations. Detailed documentation is required to capture the incident's history as the events evolve and to satisfy legal obligations for the FRD. The objectives of detailing a Hazardous Materials incident is to establish a flow of continuous information of all tasks performed, and identify all areas of responsibility. Accurate documentation will support and enhance all other termination procedures. At least one Hazardous Materials Response Team member will be selected by the Hazardous Materials officer to document the incident. The Hazardous Materials Response Team will note the following information as permanent record for each hazardous materials incident managed: - Pre-incident information - Site Safety Plan - Incident Action Plan - Product information - Medical concerns (short/long-term) - mechanism responsible for the incident - responsible individual/business or company - resources and agencies involved - notifications made - impact on the community (short-long term) - cost recovery information - debriefing issues - post-incident analysis - lessons learned

Answer 284

Is the process of initiating action to remove hazardous materials/waste from the incident site, clean or dispose of all contamination associated with the incident, and return the incident site to the pre-existing condition, if possible. Once the Hazardous Materials Response Team has stabilized the incident the Hazardous Materials Response Team branch officer will communicate clean up and recovery recommendations to the incident commander. The IC will determine the appropriate course of action and request the needed resources. The Hazardous Materials Response Team and/or the Fairfax County Hazardous Materials Services Section will attempt to identify the responsible party (RP) associated with the incident.

Answer 285

Include, but are not limited to, four main categories of threats (CBRNE): chemical, biological, radiological/nuclear, and explosive. A WMD event will be a dynamic and continually evolving situation that will involve multiple agencies. When responding to incidents involving WMD, there are a few key considerations common to all categories of WMD: - Unified command should be established early as is done with any major event. - Multiple events should be anticipated. - Particular attention must be paid to highly populated areas or venues, such as mass transit, sporting events, and shopping malls.

Answer 286

First responders may be targets for terrorists and terrorism events. As such, responders must be diligent in maintaining situational awareness and operational security throughout the duration of the incident. It is also important first responders be aware of the potential for secondary devices. Terrorism is defined by 28 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) as “the unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives.”

Answer 287

A key element for a terrorist is symbolism. The following are examples of high profile, highpotential terrorist targets: - Federal, state, and local government buildings; - Mass transit facilities (such as subways, airports, train stations); - Public buildings and assembly areas (examples include shopping malls, sports complexes, theaters); and - Controversial businesses (such as abortion clinics, fur retailers).

Answer 288

Any terrorist event is considered a federal crime. Every effort should be made to preserve and recognize evidence. Anything out of the ordinary should be noted for later evaluation. Incidents involving the use of WMD have the potential for injuring or killing large numbers of people. Incidents of this type are very similar to hazardous material incidents and have the potential for, or could become, a mass patient incident.

Answer 289

Size up factors - Dispatched information - Time of day - Weather - Area involved - Type and scope of the event - Number of casualties - Vapor cloud - Occupancy/location

Answer 290

Investigation may be necessary, including a reconnaissance by properly protected first responders. Use of appropriate detection and monitoring devices will be a valuable tool. Isolate and deny entry to limit the access and egress of civilians. The combined use of control zones and perimeters will protect the first responders and assist in determining the size of the event and number of victims. Request additional resources based upon situational size-up and scope of incident. Consideration should be given to the number of casualties and type of symptoms. The need for specialized resources, such as hazardous materials units, technical rescue, state and federal resources, and other specialized responders should be considered.

Answer 291

Acts of terrorism or incidents involving weapons of mass destruction have the potential to quickly overwhelm local emergency resources. In the event of a WMD, public safety agencies will be significantly challenged. These dynamic events require a strong command and control element, coordination between local/state/federal response agencies, and effective communications at all levels. These requirements are accomplished through the early and continuous use of the ICS. Use of the ICS/UCS will help facilitate safer operations for response personnel, effective achievement of strategic goals/tactical objectives, and efficient use of resources. Use of the ICS/UCS is particularly imperative in light of the multi-agency/multi-jurisdictional arena in which the incident commander must operate.

Answer 292

EMS command and control should be managed according to the NOVA Command Officer Operations Manual. Establish and identify the triage and treatment areas. Based on the size and location of the incident, multiple areas may need to be established. The EMS Branch will be responsible for overall patient triage, treatment, transportation, and tracking. The use of the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) triage system will be critical for the management of patients. The EMS Branch Director needs to ensure hospital notifications are made through Medical Communications (MEDCOM) Information concerning types of injuries, number of patients, possibility of contamination, and type of incident. There are some medications that are critical to counteracting certain WMD agents that are carried on units and available in each jurisdiction. Additionally, larger quantities of available medications may be available from the National Medical Response Team (NMRT), the Strategic National Stockpile (SNS), and hospital pharmacies. There will be time restrictions when these resources are requested. For a large number of victims, buses, private ambulances, etc. may be used for transportation. It is unlikely that transportation by helicopter will be possible if patients are contaminated. Establish a safe refuge area for green-tagged and/or ambulatory patients. Establish casualty collection point for red- and yellow-tagged patients – provide security as these can be secondary targets. Patient tracking may be difficult because of the size of the incident and the number of casualties. EMS may be responsible for establishing first responder rehabilitation; however, on large-scale incidents, this becomes a logistics function.

Answer 293

The following section covers the basic responsibilities of the first responders arriving on the scene of a suspected or confirmed WMD incident. - Ensure the safety of response personnel - Establish isolation/control/work zones. - Use proper PPE. - Implement time, distance, and shielding principles. - Minimize the number of personnel assigned to the danger area. - Fire and Rescue personnel should be aware of the possibility of secondary devices and use extreme caution when scanning the area for potential threats. - Ensure law enforcement officers have checked for secondary devices. - Ensure law enforcement officers have controlled active threats – shooters, hostile crowd, etc. - Maintain accountability of personnel. - Decontaminate and provide medical care if necessary.  Conduct a thorough and continuous size-up/hazard and risk assessment.  Continually collect intelligence and/or information regarding the incident.  Establish the incident objectives for the incident: - Life safety: o Isolate/deny entry – establish control zones. o Remove endangered victims. o Rescue viable patients. o Decontaminate. o Triage, treat, and transport patients. o Initiate public protection (evacuation and or shelter-in-place) actions. - Incident control and stabilization. - Infrastructure, environmental, and property protection. - Protect the crime scene and infrastructure. - Establish an incident action plan for implementation. - Make appropriate notifications (i.e. hospitals, agencies with statutory authority) and provide regular updates. - Develop a communications plan that provides adequate radio channels, cellular telephones, and other necessary equipment and personnel. - Participate in unified command operations with other local, state, and federal agencies. - Request additional and/or specialized resources as necessary. - Stage incoming units at a secure location. - Develop an incident command organization appropriate to manage the incident. - Ensure an outer-perimeter is established to restrict site access. - Manage public information and media interaction. - Prepare for long-term/multi-operational period operations, i.e. development of an incident action plan (IAP), rehabilitation, and replacement of staff. - Protect the crime scene and evidence.

Answer 294

In the event of a WMD event, special operations personnel will be a valuable resource to the incident commander. Special operations personnel will be able to assist the incident commander in determining levels of contamination with an explosion, determining the structural stability of buildings involved in the blast or exposed to the blast, and EOD teams will be able to assist with locating and identifying secondary devices, as well as, the disposal of any unexploded devices

Answer 295

Hazardous materials response teams will play an important role in any post explosion event. Any explosive detonation should be considered “dirty” until it can be ruled out by detection and monitoring equipment. Hazardous materials personnel should detect for the presence of radiation, chemical agents and combustible gases. Keep in mind that just because one or more of these agents are detected, it does not make it a terrorist event. Many businesses have these agents for use in their everyday processes. However, if the agents do not match the occupancy, special care should be exercised.

Answer 296

Hazardous materials personnel should also check for damaged utilities such as ruptured gas mains or service lines that could present a secondary explosion or flammability hazard

Answer 297

Hazardous materials personnel will also play a key role in the decontamination process. Following an explosion, if at all possible, victims should be decontaminated prior to transport to a medical facility. This will reduce the transfer of dust and other possible contaminates that have not been monitored for (such as asbestos, etc.)

Answer 298

Hazardous materials teams should prepare to make hot zone entry for reconnaissance, detection, and monitoring. While operating in the hot zone, hazardous materials teams should attempt to gain the following information: - Identification of type of agent. - Toxicity/concentrations (IDLH levels). - Atmospheric oxygen available. - Presence of flammable gases.

Answer 299

Based on this information hazmat personnel will select levels of (PPE) for units based on the task they are performing. Report the number of victims, their symptoms and conditions, and any other information that may be needed

Answer 300

The Hazmat Branch will be established to coordinate with the incoming specialized teams Coordinate setting-up the hot, warm, and cold zones. Determine direction of travel of plume if applicable. This will not be an exact science, but an initial plume model should be prepared in the initial stages of the event. The plume model will be constantly reevaluated throughout the incident.

Answer 301

. Coordinate and ensure that the most effective and proper decontamination is being used. This may include several decontamination sites around the incident (such as mass decontamination corridors, technical decontamination, and emergency decontamination). A separate technical decontamination corridor under the direction of the Hazmat Branch shall be established for hazardous materials team use only

Answer 302

Units can reduce levels of PPE upon a decision from the IC, in coordination with the Hazmat Branch/Group Officer, based upon the situation information obtained as specified above. Special operations hazardous materials personnel will conduct available tests to determine the agent used. If the test results are positive, hazardous materials personnel will coordinate decontamination of the victims in available shower facilities with warm water and soap. Emergency clothing packets will be provided and the victims clothing shall be "bagged." Responders shall decontaminate themselves as appropriate.

Answer 303

If a dispersion device is found, EOD personnel should attempt to disrupt or control the device. EOD personnel should also ensure that the device and the area around the device are free of booby traps. EOD personnel will most likely be the initial crime scene investigators

Answer 304

Special operations personnel will also interact with law enforcement agencies as appropriate for crime scene preservation and evidence collection. First arriving units will be able to determine the presence of radiation; however hazardous materials teams will be required to determine the level of contamination on people or patients. For an event involving radiation, special operations personnel should: - Determine control zones. - Determine levels of contamination (patient frisking). - Decontaminate patients.100 - Conduct patient frisking (post-decontamination)

Answer 305

Special operations personnel will interface with outside agencies such as the US Department of Energy, EPA, DOT and other applicable agencies. Tech rescue teams will play a vital role in assessing the structural stability of affected structures, shoring of damaged structures, rescue of trapped victims, and the use of technical search equipment. All explosions should be considered to be “dirty” until proven otherwise

Answer 306

First responders have the potential to encounter devices ranging from soda bottles to suicide bombers. Current events have shown that explosive type incidents are the most prevalent type of terrorist event. Firefighter PPE and SCBA should be donned prior to arrival on the scene and worn until the involvement of other chemical, biological, and/or radiological agents can be ruled out. If the incident is believed to be the result of a terrorist action, consideration should be given to the potential for secondary devices. Unusual packages and objects located in unusual places (at or near the front door, standpipe, hydrant) should be viewed with suspicion and avoided until confirmed as not dangerous. Command should be immediately notified. Observing the appearance and signs/symptoms of victims may indicate whether a chemical agent has been released. Monitoring of the scene by the hazardous materials team is essential to determine what chemical agent(s) were used. Immediate signs and symptoms of victims should not be used as an indication that radiological materials are involved. The use of radiological detection and monitoring equipment is necessary to make this determination. If there is a radiological agent associated with the explosive device the radiological portion of this manual shall be used in conjunction with the explosives section. In WMD incidents with contaminated mass casualties, responders can be most effective by rapidly initiating mass casualty decontamination procedures for the victims

Answer 307

All incidents involving explosives should be considered a real threat until proven otherwise. Keep in mind that any explosive device could be used as a dissemination device for other WMD materials such as radiological, chemical, and biological agents. First arriving unit officers and command staff shall gather as much information as possible from communications regarding the situation while en route to the scene. The first-arriving suppression/EMS unit should approach the scene cautiously to evaluate the situation. Consider staging a minimum of 500 feet from the site or where debris/damage is first encountered. This unit may be referred to as the reconnaissance (recon) group and radiological agents involved.

Answer 308

There is a possibility that an explosive device can also be used as a delivery device for chemical, biological, or radiological agent. Typically, however, most responders encounter trauma patients, which require normal treatment modalities and require no decontamination. The emergency responder should not assume that an explosive device presents no additional threat after the explosion. As a matter of practice, patients should be removed from the area of hazard and triage/treatment performed in an area of safety. Ambulatory patients should be directed to a safe refuge area for further assessment and possible treatment

Answer 309

Explosives can be categorized as high-order explosives (HE) or low-order explosives (LE). High-order explosive produces a deafening supersonic over-pressurization shock wave.102 Low-order explosive creates a supersonic explosion; however, it lacks the over-pressurization. It is therefore important that EMS care providers understand the differences between the two classifications, since you can anticipate different injury patterns.

Answer 310

There are four basic mechanisms of blast injuries that a responder should anticipate with explosive devices: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quandary. “Blast Wave” refers to the intense over-pressurization impulse that is created by a high-order explosive (HE). Blast injuries are characterized by anatomical and physiological changes from the direct or reflective forces impacting the body’s surface. A blast wave is defined as an over-pressurized wave, an increase pressurization that affects the body and objects the waves come in contact with. Blast waves are associated only with highorder explosives. There is another type of a blast injury called “blast wind,” which is a force of superheated air flow; these are associated with both high and low-order explosives.

Answer 311

(TICs and TIMs) and chemical warfare agents Toxic industrial chemicals (TICs) are readily available in large quantities in industrial settings, bulk storage, and in transportation. Examples of TICs are chlorine, sulfur dioxide, phosgene, anhydrous ammonia, and concentrated sulfuric acid

Answer 312

Chemical warfare agents are highly toxic and may persist in the environment from minutes to years. The persistence of these agents depends on humidity, temperature, physical state, and the type of soil and vegetation in the area Depending on the agent, human exposure can occur via skin (dermal), inhalation, ingestion of contaminated water or food, or entry through other mucous-lined areas such as the eyes, nose, and open cuts

Answer 313

The 3/30 rule, as outlined by SBCCOM (United States Army Soldier Biological Chemical Command), states the following: 3/30 RULE: All personnel must remember that self-contained breathing apparatus provides the highest level of respiratory protection. This, combined with the structural firefighting ensemble, will afford the best level of protection in the absence of chemical protective clothing. The “3/30 rule” must be considered when using structural PPE with SCBA for making immediate rescues.

Answer 314

1,000 micro-roentgen (μR) = 1milli-roentgen (mR) 1,000 milli-roentgen (mR) = 1 Roentgen (R) 1,000,000 micro-roentgen) = 1 Roentgen (R)

Answer 315

A guiding philosophy and requirement in the field of radiation safety today is the concept ALARA. ALARA stands for “As Low as Reasonably Achievable.”

Answer 316

a. Maximize distance b. Minimize exposure time c. Maximize shielding

Answer 317

Dose Limit (Whole Body) Emergency Action Dose Guidelines/Activity Performed 5 R (rem) All Activities 10 R (rem) Protecting major property 25 R (rem) Lifesaving or protection of large populations >25 R (rem) Lifesaving or protection of large populations, Only by volunteers who understand the risks

Answer 318

The “3/30 rule” states that in a situation where victims are unconscious or seizing, the structural firefighting ensemble with SCBA will provide 3 minutes of protection for the responder. If victims are conscious and moving, the structural firefighting ensemble will provide up to 30 minutes of protection for the responder ****NOT FOR CONFINED SPACE OR BELOW GRADE RESCUE ****

Answer 319

- Explosion with little or no structural damage. - Reports of a device that dispersed a mist or vapor. - Multiple casualties exhibiting similar symptoms. - Mass casualties with no apparent reason or trauma. - Reports of unusual odors, liquids, spray devices, or cylinders. - Discarded personal protective equipment.

Answer 320

Decontamination is the key factor to an overall successful response

Answer 321

performed within108 minutes of the agent exposure

Answer 322

The NOVA fire departments and hazardous material teams will use the Roentgen (R) as the standard unit to measure radiological exposure

Answer 323

1,000 micro-roentgen (μR) = 1milli-roentgen (mR) 1,000 milli-roentgen (mR) = 1 Roentgen (R) 1,000,000 micro-roentgen) = 1 Roentgen (R)

Answer 324

Is a measure of how much radiation is present. This is similar to a speedometer, the more you press on the gas the higher the reading. It is measured per hour.

Answer 325

GAMMA SODIUM IOD SCINTILLATOR

Answer 326

ranges between: 5 -- 20 μR/hr = 0.005 -- 0.2 mR/hr.

Answer 327

The less time you spend around a radiation source the less exposure you will receive. If you are in an area where the exposure rate is 60R/hr and you spend 15 minutes, your exposure will be 15 R (60R/hr divided by 4).

Answer 328

The more material between you and the source the less radiation exposure you will receive

Answer 329

Always wear structural firefighting gear, including respiratory protection. Ensure the task is worthy of the exposure (risk vs. benefit).

Answer 330

Inhalation is the most dangerous type of exposure to the body and it is the most difficult to treat. Wearing SCBA affords the greatest protection in any WMD event It is best to assume that radiation is present for any explosive or unusual incident until it can be ruled out through detection and monitoring

Answer 331

Is radiation present? Are there life safety issues?

Answer 332

every effort should be made to approach the incident from uphill and upwind. Additionally, begin the approach 300 feet from the incident or at the edge of debris field

Answer 333

If initial fire department personnel are NOT equipped with radiological dosimeters, they may conduct lifesaving operations for a maximum of 15 minutes.

Answer 334

Dosimeters record the total exposure to external gamma radiation. When wearing external dosimeters, they should be read and reported every 15 minutes. All pencil dosimeters should be zeroed prior to entry.

Answer 335

In all suspected radiation incidents, responders’ exposure to radiation must be documented. In order to ensure that responder doses are recorded

Answer 336

- Fire or explosion; - Ignition by heat, sparks, or flame; - Vapors that may explode; - Vapors that may travel; - Containers that may explode when heated or punctured; - Health hazards; - Vapors or liquid that may be toxic if inhaled, ingested, or absorbed; - Vapors and liquid that may produce burns or irritate skin and eyes; - Inhalation of vapors that may cause dizziness or nausea; - Environmental hazards that potentially endanger wildlife, streams, and rivers

Answer 337

Transportation

Answer 338

Lithium ion

HM Flashcards

(374 cards)