HMC 2015 exam Flashcards
(505 cards)
1
Q
Commanders will ensure what report on any suspected or confirmed malaria case is sent out as soon as possible to all required addresses whenever a malaria threat exists?
A
Disease Alert Report (DAR)
2
Q
Individuals who were treated for malaria in the past must wait how long from the date treatment was finished until they are eligible to donate blood?
A
3 years
3
Q
Individuals who visited a malaria-risk area and remained asymptomatic, but were not required to take chemoprophylaxis because of negligible risk of exposure, must wait how long until they are eligible to donate blood?
A
6 months
4
Q
Any person who is deficient in what has a risk of hemolysis associated with taking primaquine for chemoprophylaxis or treatment?
A
G6 PD
5
Q
Report suspected or confirmed malaria cases in a DAR via what precedence message?
A
Priority
6
Q
Measures consist of effective mosquito control programs of what type?
A
Anopheles
7
Q
Traditionally, malaria chemoprophylaxis has been effectively accomplished with use of chloroquine and primaquine, however, in the past several years, resistance to what has been demonstrated among malaria parasites in certain areas of the world into which Navy and Marine Corps personnel deploy or live?
A
Chloroquine
8
Q
Because malaria, in particular what type of malaria, can progress into a rapidly fatal course, the most important aspect of malaria treatment is suspecting this disease in the differential diagnosis of the patient and beginning immediate treatment?
A
Plasmodium Falciparum
9
Q
How long is the waiting time to achieve desired FAC
A
30 mins
10
Q
what are the rules for super chlorination
A
100 PPM for four hours at which time the FAC can not drop below 50 PPM. If it does drop below 50 PPM super chlorination must be repeated.
11
Q
how often do you test water in the field
A
daily
12
Q
how often is bacteriological testing done
A
weekly
13
Q
how often should temperature reading in refrigerators In the field be taken
A
at least 3 times during meal periods
14
Q
how often should refrigerator spaces be emptied and cleaned
A
weekly
15
Q
how long are fruits and vegetable
A
100ppm for 15 mins or 50ppm for 30
16
Q
Out of the Five field dishwashing Metal GI cans (approx 32 gallons) which of those contain brushes
A
GI Vat CANS 2 and 3
17
Q
Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #1?
A
collecting garbage
18
Q
Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #2?
A
prewash and will contain a hot detergent solution and a brush
19
Q
Parenteral chloroquine hydrochloride, quinidine gluconate, and quinine dihydrochloride can be used in the treatment of severe cases of malaria where the patient is exhibiting signs of central nervous system involvement, has a very high and life-threatening parasitemia, or cannot take what type of drugs?
A
Oral drugs
20
Q
What is a comprehensive hardcover textbook of clinical tropical medicine?
A
Hunter’s Tropical Medicine
21
Q
Who conducts tropical medicine research and can provide information on the epidemiology of malaria, antimalarial drug resistance, and mosquito vectors within their countries or geographic areas of research?
A
Naval Medical Research Units
22
Q
Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #3?
A
washing and will contain a hot detergent solution and a brush.
23
Q
Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #4?
A
rinsing and will contain clean hot water held at a rolling boil.
24
Q
Purpose of Field Dishwashing Metal GI CAN #5?
A
final sanitizing rinse and will contain clean hot water held at a rolling boil
25
how long are MRE's good for
48 months
26
how high can MRE's be stacked
not more than 3 pallets high
27
what is the definition of rubbish
boxes, paper, plastics
28
Minimum distance waste must be from water
100 feet
29
Minimum distance waste must be from the mess hall
100 yards
30
Minimum distance waste must be from berthing
50 feet
31
how many people will a saddle trench serve
25 people
32
how many deep pit latrines are needed per 50 people
1 deep pit latrine that seats 4 people
33
when do you burn out the wastes in a burn barrel latrine
when it is 1/3 to 2/3 full
34
how many tubes are used for a urine
6
35
how many people will one pipe accommodate in a urine soakage pit
20
36
how many men will a urine trough serve
100
37
how many people will a soakage pit serve
200
38
for a garbage disposal pit how large and how many people does it serve
4 sq feet and 4 feet deep and serves 100 people
39
how long does acclimization take
3 weeks
40
what is the optimum temperature for drinking water
50 to 60
41
when does immersion foot occur?
Trench foot occurs when feet are cold and damp while wearing constricting footwear. Unlike frostbite, trench foot does not require freezing temperatures and can occur in temperatures below 50 degrees.
42
Within the DoD, who is eligible for TRICARE?
Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Commissioned Corps of the U.S. Public Health Service, and the Commissioned Corps of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
43
When can family members of the National Guard or Reserve Member become eligible for TRICARE?
When called to active duty for more than 30 consecutive days
44
If you are an active duty service member, what are your program options?
Prime
45
If you are an active duty service member who lives and works more than 50 miles or an hour's drive from an MTF, what are your program options?
Prime Remote
46
If you are an active duty family member, what are your program options?
Prime
Standard
Extra
US Family Health Plan
47
If you are an active duty family member with an active duty service member who lives and works more than 50 miles or an hour's drive drive from MTF, what are your program options?
Prime Remote for Active Duty family members
Standard
Extra
US Family Health Plan
48
If you are a retiree and have eligible family members who are not eligible for Medicare, what are your program options?
Prime
Standard
Extra
US Family Health Plan
49
If you are a Medicare-eligible beneficiary under age 65, what your program options?
Prime
For Life
US Family Health Plan
50
If you are a Medicare- eligible beneficiary age 65 or over, what are your program options?
For Life
| US Family Health Plan
51
If you are a Congressional Medal of Honor recipient or recipient's family member , or a certain former spouse of an active or retired service member, what are your program options?
```
Prime
Standard
Extra
For Life
US Family Health Plan
```
52
What is Tricare Prime Split Enrollment?
Allows families living in separate Tricare regions to enroll in Tricare Prime together
53
What are the Tricare Prime Access Standards?
1. The wait time for an urgent care appointment will not exceed 24 hours
2. The wait time for a routine appointment will not exceed one week
3. The wait time for a specialty care appointment or wellness visit will not exceed four weeks
54
Where is Tricare Extra not available?
Overseas
55
What is Tricare for Life?
Offers Medicare-wraparound coverage to Tricare beneficiaries regardless of age, provided that are entitled to Medicare Part A and also have Medicare Part B
56
In what ways can enrollment in Tricare be achieved?
Mail or a Tricare Service Center
57
Who is required to pay an annual enrollment fee?
Retired service members and their families
Eligible former spouses
Medal of Honor recipients
58
Who administers Tricare For Life?
Wisconsin Physicians Service
59
Which two program options do not have an enrollment process?
Standard and Extra
60
What does the catastrophic cap do?
It limits the out-of-pocket expenses on annual deductibles, cost shares, and other costs.
61
At an MTF, how much medication supply can be filled if the medication is on the MTF formulary?
90 days
62
How may refills through the Mail Order Pharmacy be order?
Mail, phone, or online
63
How long does it take for medications to be delivered after receiving the prescription via the mail order pharmacy?
14 days
64
What is the Tricare Extended Care Health Option
It provides financial assistance to active duty family members who qualify based on specific mental or physical disabilities, and offers an integrated set of services, and supplies not available through the basic Tricare program
65
What is the Transitional Assistance Management Program?
It provides 180 days of transitional health benefits after leaving active duty.
66
What is Tricare Reserve Select?
Is a premium based health plan that National Guard and Reserve members who qualify may purchase
67
What are the Tricare regions?
North, South, West
68
What is a cost-share?
he maximum out of pocket expenses for which Tricare beneficiaries will pay for inpatient and outpatient care.
69
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HR colors
0 - O
1 - G
2 - Y
3 - G
4 - T
5 - B
6 - W
7 - B
8 - P
9 - R
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Oh God you got that big whale barbara pregnant retard
70
What is the NAVMED 1300/1
Overseas Screening
71
What is the NAVMED 6150/7
Health Record Receipt
72
What is the NAVMED 6600/3
Dental Health Questionnaire
73
What is the NAVMED 6630/2
Precious Metals Issue
74
What is the NAVMED 6630/3
Precious Metals Inventory
75
What is the NAVMED 6710/6
Poly prescription
76
What is the EZ 603
Dental Exam Form
77
What is the EZ 603A
Dental Exam Continuation Form
78
What is the SF 522
REQUEST FOR ANESTHESIA
79
What is the SF 515
TISSUE EXAMINATION
80
What is the DD 1289
Prescription Pad
81
What is contained in MANMED P117 CHAPTER 23
REPORTS & FORMS
82
What is contained in MANMED P117 CHAPTER 21
PHARMACY
83
What is contained in MANMED P117 CHAPTER 6
DENTAL
84
Nerve agents include the following:
Tabun (GA ), Sarin (GB), Soman (GD), GF, and VX.
85
Nerve agents are potent what?
| And smell like what
Organophosphates which stimulate muscarinic and nicotinic stimulation.
Fruity
86
Symptoms of Nerve Agent Exposure:
Muscanaric and nicotinic overstimulation:
ABD pain, diarrhea, vomiting, excessive salivation, sweating, bronchospasms, copious bronchial secretions, muscle fasciculations, weakness and respiratory distress. Seizures, tachycardia or bradycardia may be present.
87
One of the most important treatments in nerve gas exposure is...
to remove the patient from the source of the
| exposure.
88
Which vesicant has a garlic odor?
Mustard gas
89
Cyanides include the following:
Hydrogen Cyanide AC and
| Cyanogen chloride CK
90
Pulmonary Agents
Phosgene CG
91
List the Riot Control Agents
CN -Mace,
| CS and
92
which blood agent Smells like bitter almonds
AC Cyanogen Chloride
93
What are the Blister aka vesicant agents?
vesicant, Mustard Gas-HD, Nitrogen Mustard-HN, Lewisite-L, Phosgene- CX.
94
A latent period without symptoms is the hallmark of exposure to what type of agent.
Mustard Gas
95
Name a pulmonary irritant that can produce pulmonary edema when inhaled.
Phosgene
96
The cyanide antidote kit includes what?
amyl nitrite, sodium
| thiosulfate and sodium nitrite.
97
Blood agent is a...? And what is the treatment?
Systemic Poison AC, CK. Treatments include amyl nitrate ampules under gas mask, and sodium thiosulfate IV 100-200mg/kg of body weight.
98
What is AC and what does it smell like?
Cyanogen and it smells like Almonds
99
What is CK and what does it smell like?
Hydrocyanic Acid and it is an irritating odor
100
What does CG smell like?
Phosgene- smells like New mown grass
101
What is DP and what does it smell like?
diphosgene smells like new mown grass
102
NAVMED P-5041
Treatment of chemical agents casualties and convental military chemical injuries
103
Where should the location of the dump be?
75 yards (meters) downwind from the MTF and living quarters.
104
Who advises the commander on the health of the command and the adequacy of internal FSSG HSS
Group surgeon
105
Which commanders are responsible for coordinating and integrating HSS within their area of operations
Marine Corps Forces (MARFOR)
106
A MAW has how many Marine aircraft groups (MAGs)
Four
107
Each Surgical Company contains 60 beds and how many operating rooms?
3
108
A MAW has how many Marine aircraft groups (MAGs)?
4
109
The United States is a signatory to the Geneva Conventions of what
year and has directed its military forces to abide by its articles?
1949
110
Temporary casualty holding facilities and services are used to hold
sick, wounded, and injured personnel for a limited time, usually not
to exceed what time frame?
72 hours
111
What provide rapid peacetime response teams of pre-identified medical department personnel trained to augment elements of the
operating forces?
MMARTs
112
The T-AH is designed to receive patients primarily by what means?
Helicopter
113
What FSSG is a supply operation directly responsible to the FSSG supply battalion commanding officer
Med Log Co, Supply Battalion
114
Fleet surgical teams (FSTs) are HSS augmentation teams assigned to the fleet CINCs. Combined, the Pacific and Atlantic fleets have how many teams that are considered the fleet CINC's assets in both
peacetime and wartime?
Nine
115
A unit's what includes items necessary for basic support of the Organization?
Table of Equipment (T/E)
116
ATF ships suitable for use as CRTSs are what classes
LHD, LHA, and LPH
117
The total T/E and AMALs/ADALs are designed to support a MEF in an estimated worst case scenario for a period of combat of how long?
60-days
118
What have the largest medical capability of any amphibious ship in the ATF?
CRTSs
119
HSS logistics is normally a Service responsibility. However, in
joint operations, what system may be designated to provide central
logistical support to all participating Services in the combatant
CINC's area of responsibility?
Supplementary Integrated Medical Logistics Manager (SIMLM)
120
The primary role of a beach evacuation station is to evacuate
assault force casualties to designated what?
CRTSs
121
During the movement phase of amphibious operations, who has overall
responsibility for HSS services to embarked personnel?
Commander, Amphibious Task Force (CATF)
122
Medical material and supplies are protected under the law of land
warfare and the what?
Geneva Conventions
123
What is the BUMEDINST 6440.5C Health Services Augmentation Programs (HSAP) Purpose?
To issue policy and procedure guidelines for active duty Navy Medical Department personnel assigned to augment operational platforms and/or units during contingency or wartime situations.
124
who Directs, coordinates, and monitors the execution of the HSAP.
Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery
125
BUMED
Ensures coordination of official Navy message takers from higher authority.
126
Provides recommendation or nominations for commanding officers, executive officers, and command master chiefs for Navy medical platforms.
BUMED
127
BUMED
Provides input to N093 regarding augmentation platform personnel fill rates and training for the Joint Quarterly Readiness Report.
128
BUMED
Establishes guidelines for developing Deployment Support Centers (DSC) at sourcing commands.
129
NAVMED
Monitor capability of sourcing commands to meet augmentation requirements, gender ratio, and training status via Expeditionary Medicine Platform Augmentation Readiness and Training System (EMPARTS).
130
Assist sourcing commands within their areas of responsibility (AOR) with filling platform assignments to the maximum extent possible and support BUMED in managing shortfalls and residual personnel.
NAVMED
131
Employ global sourcing as a mitigating strategy within their perspective AOR to source shorfalls
NAVMED
132
NAVMED
Conduct quarterly readiness reviews using EMPARTS.
133
Provide HSAP assists visits, technical guidance, and administrative support to activities within their AOR when requested.
NAVMED
134
NAVMED
Provide assistance, as needed, to soucing commands in establishing HSAP augments.
135
Annually review the HSAP policy and procedures manuals.
NAVMED
136
Commanding Officers of Sourcing Commands (COSC)
Appoint in writing, a command readiness officer (CRO) or plans, operations, and medical intelligence (POMI) officer to address operational readiness issues
137
Command Readiness Officer (CRO )or POMI plans, operations, and medical intelligence officer.
Maintain knowledge of platform requirements as reflected in CUIC (component Unit Identification Code) billets and AMDs
138
CRO
Update EMPARTS to maintain readiness status of HSAP personnel.
139
CRO
Use the HSAP to ensure deployable personnel complete administrative requirements within 30 working days of reporting.
140
CRO
Conduct entry and exit interviews for staff personnel executing PCS orders and coordinate with contingency offices and military personnel (MILPERS) departments to ensure database files are correctly annotated.
141
Assign all qualified residual personnel to vacant platform billets.
CRO
142
CRO
Appoint in writing an operational support officer (OSO).
143
Operational support officer (OSO)
Familiar with policies and procedures governing the HSAP, DSC, and local readiness programs.
144
OSO
Able to assume readiness officer or POMI officer functional responsibilities, including HSAP responsibilities for sourcing commands.
145
Past deployment history
personnel will not deploy for a minimum of 6 months following the end of their last deployment.
146
Deployment history
personnel will not deploy earlier than 6 months from their report date. personnel may participate in pre-deployment or inter-deployment training beginning 60 days after reporting.
147
Navy Medical Personnel
complete administrative readiness requirements within 30 days of check-in
148
Navy Medical Personnel
Update and report results of delinquent administrative requirements to the POMI/OSO within 15 days of notification of change in A- or T- status.
149
CRO additional responsibilities
Establishes a DSC and develop a local policy and procedures manual implementation of DSC and execution of HSAP.
150
Coordinates with manpower officer/staff to ensure appropriate CUIC billets
CRO
151
Manning priority is based on contingency support requirements in this order:
1.Marine Forces (MARFOR)
2.Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ship (CRTS)
3.Forward Deployment Preventive Medicine Unit (FDPMU)
4.Expeditionary Medical Facility
5.Construction Battalion Unit (CPU)
6/Hospital Ships (T-AH)
7.Outside Continental United States (OCONUS) MTF
8. Blood Processi
152
Marine Forces (MARFOR)
HSAP billets assigned to USMC units will be filled with qualified personnel up to staffing goal (minimum of 80 percent peacetime and 95 percent wartime)
153
Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ships
Medical platform of 84 personnel each that provide up to Level 2 HSS (health services support)
154
In support of Naval Mobile Construction Battalions (NMCB) that provide up to Level 1 HSS. All Hospital Corpsman will be assigned NEC 8404 for assignment to NMCB.
Construction Battalion Units (CBU)
155
EMF
Provide Level 3 HSS
| CO's designated by BUMED
156
OCONUS MTF (USNAVHOSPs Yokosuka, okinawa, and Guam)
Provide up to Level 4 HSS
157
Hospital Ships (T-AH)
Provide Level 3 HSS. Ships owned by Military Sealift Command (MSC) and operated by civilian mariners. T-AH MTF CO and XO are nominated by BUMED.
158
Forward Deployment Preventive Medicine Unit (FDPMU)
Provide task organized preventive medicine services beyond the organic capability of the supported force.
159
Designated by the CO, Navy Environmental Health Center.
FDPMU OIC
160
Blood Program Unit (BPU)
In support of Armed Services Whole Blood Processing Laboratory (ASWBPL) and Blood Donor Centers (BDCs) whose staff increases during contingencies.
161
Personnel Readiness
| Personnel will report to gaining command with the following:
* ID Tags
* Armed Forces ID Cards (CAC)
* DD 2766, Deployment Medical Records
* Copy of NAVPERS 1070/604, Enlisted Qualifications History
* NAVPERS 1070/602W, Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data Worksheet
* SGLI
162
Combatant Commander (COCOM)
Responsible for travel and TAD expenses for the duration of the deployment.
163
How many SORTS Categories are there?
5 C1-C5
164
C1
Full wartime mission ready
165
C2
Capable of undertaking the bulk of its wartime mission, minor deficiencies reported.
166
C3
Capable of undertaking a major portion of its wartime mission, major deficiencies.
167
C4
Unit is unable to perform its wartime mission unless it it provided additional resources or training.
168
C5
Unit is not able to perform its wartime mission and it is not mission capable.
169
T-AH
Mercy Class Hospital Ships
170
Embarked Military Force
EMF
171
Routine Deployable
Two FDPMU maintain ready FDPMU status on a 6 month rotating basis. Ready to deploy within days.
172
Surge Ready
Two FDPMU deployed within 30 days
173
Two FDPMU deployed within 60 days of notification.
Emergency Surge
174
CRO (command readiness officer)
Officer identified by the command, generally from operations office, who is responsible for monitoring and advising the commander on operational readiness.
175
EMPARTS (Expeditionary medicine platform augmentation, readiness, and training system)
Web-based automated information system used to track the readiness status of BSO 18 personnel.
176
Operational Support Officer (OSO)
Formerly known as the Reserve Liaison Officer (RLO); coordinates Reserve utilization within sourcing command
177
infectious waste also called
regulated medical waste
178
containers
lined with plastic bags, labeled or color coded
179
anatomical pathology waste
double wall corrugated boxes or equivalent rigid container with double plastic bags
180
limited storage of non-pathological waste
7 days without refrigeration
181
transportation infx waste
refer to federal, state and local laws, regulations and sofa
182
treatment infx waste
destruction, incineration, inactivation by heat, chemicals or radiation without disintegration cells
183
sterilization infx waste
121 C (250 F) for at least 90 minutes, 15 psi
184
approval infx waste
bureau of medicine and surgery (med-04) approval required before purchase/lease of
185
pathological waste disposal
incineration/cremation
186
microbiology waste disposal
sanitary landfill
187
sharps waste disposal
steam sterilization/incineration
188
bulk blood waste
sanitary sewer/landfill
189
disinfecting spills
epa approved disinfectant or bleach diluted with 1:10 clear water
190
federal regs
maintain shipping paperwork/manifests for 2 years after rmw was accepted by waste carrier
191
pathological waste storage
refrigerated and kept frozen if more than 24 hours
192
frozen storage of pathological waste
no more than 30 days
193
segregation
separating infectious waste from noninfectious wast at its point of origin
194
sterilization testing
bacillus stearothermophilus spore strips
195
sterilize infectious waste before
compacting or grinding
196
Adenovirus
1 dose, po.
197
HBV(Hep B recombinant)
0,1,6 months
198
JE Vaccine
0,7,30 days
199
Plague
3 doses, 1ml at 0, .2ml at 1-3 months after, .2ml 3-6 months after second dose.
200
Rabies
5 doses, 0,3,7,14,28 days
201
Typhoid (VICPS)
1 dose every 2 years
202
Varicella
2 doses 0 and 4-8 weeks
203
Avoid pregnancy ____ months after varicella and ____ months after all other vaccines
1 month and three month
204
Pneumococcal vaccine should be routinely given to personnel over age ____
65
205
Anthrax
0,2 week,4 week, 6 month, 12 months, 18 months.
206
Commanders, COs, and OICs ensure
all personnel under their jurisdiction receive required immunizations
207
Who is responsible to maintain international, federal, state, and local records of all required immunizations?
Commanders, COs, and OICs
208
Who must be immediately available when immunizations are being given?
any person who is basic cpr certified
209
If someone presents with a hypersensitivity to an immunization, what is done?
They are deferred, adn then referred to an allergy specialist.
210
What does ACIP stand for?
U.S. Public Health Service Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices.
211
Recruits receive what shots?
- adenovirus types 4 and 7
- influenza
- mmr
- meningococcal
- oral polio virus
- tentanus-diptheria
212
When deploying or traveling to high risk areas personnel may receive?
- JE vaccine
- meningococcal
- typhoid
213
What precautions must a female take if she is given a live virus vaccine?
avoid becoming pregnant for 3 months
214
What is VAERS?
Vaccine Adverse Reporting System
215
What makes a reaction adverse?
Hospitalization is required or more than 24 hrs of duty is lost.
216
Who grant immunization waivers for Navy and Marine Corps personnel?
Chief, BUMED
217
Adenovirus types 4 and 7
administered orally and simultaneously on a one time basis to recruits
218
When is the flu season?
October to March, in the Northern Hemisphere
219
what prevention counseling is given
mosquito avoidance, personal protective measures and chemoprophylaxis
220
During what period of duty must personnel have documentation of a TST?
Excess of 30 days when first entering duty.
221
For periodic screenings, to whom screenings do NOT apply to?
A)Active Duty and Civil Service
B)Ready Reservists
C)Health Care Workers
D)Medical/Dental facility workers(not MEDICAL staff)
B) Ready Reservists
222
Who can recommend annual screenings in certain high risk overseas duty
Navy Environmental and Preventive Medicine Unit
223
For Triennial Screening, which personnel only need a screening every 3 years.
Active Duty and Reserve shore based personnel in the U.S. that are in low risk areas.
224
During which appropriate times should periodic testing be done?
1) Physical Exams
2) Receipt of PCS orders
3) Review of medical records
4) Reporting for A.D. training
225
Within how long should a TST be done before separation?
Within 1 year period before separation.
226
When entering/separating from Naval Service, when should a chest x-ray be done for TB screening?
When diagnosis or evaluation of suspected TB.
227
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When are chest x-rays indicated?
A)Newly identified TB reactor
B)Active disease is suspected
C)Previous TB reactor with known contact with disease
D)All of the above
```
D)All of the above
228
What is the preferred method or test for a PPD injection?
Mantoux test
229
What type of syringe and size of needle should be used for administration?
1 ml TB syringe with .1ml intervals and fitted with a 25-gauge 5/8in needle.
230
For PPD administration, what is NOT to be used as a form of administration?
hypodermic jet injector.
231
What is the preferred dose and strength used for a PPD administration?
1ml of intermediate strength (5 TU)
232
After PPD administration into the forearm and no wheal appears on skin can indicate_____
PPD was injected subcutaneously. Another PPD test should be administered on the second
233
How should the induration be measured?
In millimeters at the widest transverse diameter of forearm
234
What should NOT be entered if measurements are less than 5mm?
"non significant" or "zero" or similar phrases. "zero mm" is what needs to be entered if no induration.
235
If a measurement is between zero and 14mm after 72hrs, what should be documented?
"not read" on SF 601
236
If measurement is greater than 15mm after 72hrs, but before or on the 10th day, what actions must be done?
Manage person as a TB reactor since results are significant.
237
What should be done if the rate of newly identified reactors are greater than 2.5% among any group tested?
Consider searching for an active case of TB in the command.
238
What does BCG vaccination stand for?
Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
239
The prevention of STDs is based on five major concepts what are they?
1) Education 2) detection 3) effective dx and tx 4) partner notification 5) Immunization of persons at risk for vaccine preventable STDs
240
AD PT will be screened for HIV how
per SECNAVINST 5300.30 AD pt will be screened at a minimum of every two years and 12 months within transfer to overseas location.
241
Women sexually active age 25 and younger shall have regular well woman exams how often?
Annually per CDC STD prevention and protocols.
242
How many Naval HIV tx facilities are there?
Three- NMC Bethesda, Portsmouth, and San Diego
243
What is ESSENCE?
Early Notification of Community based epidemics- is a tool for local use to ascertain growth and spread of particular syndromes.
244
Importance of Med surveillance
Surveillance information is critical in both preparing for and responding to public health emergencies.
245
Syndromic Surveillance
is critical in identifying emerging or re-emerging infectious diseases that pose a substantial risk of a significant number of human fatalities or severe disabilities.
246
What is the minimum staffing for ESSENCE monitoring?
ESSENCE monitoring requires a min of two MTF staff members to check ESSENCE at least once each routine workday.
247
Navy Marine Corps Public Health Center (NMCPHC) conducts analysis of ESSENCE how often?
Shall conduct quarterly analysis of ESSENCE data to maintain situational awareness of long term trends and identify areas for improvement.
248
NMCPHC shall provide reports to Navy Medicine Regional Commanders when?
NMCPHC shall provide reports monthly describing MTF monitoring compliance.
249
MER analysis is performed when?
Annually and published quarterly to examine navy and marine corps trends.
250
Definition of "outbreak"
An outbreak is defined as the occurrence, in a community or region, of cases of an illness or other health related events in excess of normal expectancy.
251
HIPAA act of ____
Health insurance Portability Accountability Act of 1996
252
MERs sent via message must be IDd by what report symbol?
NAVMED 6220-3 in the subject line
253
Routine Reports must be submitted within how many days?
30
254
Urgent Reports must be submitted within how many days?
24 hours (1 day) to the responsible NEPMU
255
How long must routine QA program related documents be maintained in a secure location?
Five (5) years before disposal
256
How long must QA program related documents related to a potentially compensable event and JAG investigation be maintained in a secure location?
Minimum of two (2) years or as long as needed thereafter.
257
What are the eight (8) program objectives in summary?
1) Systematically monitor services 2) Identify, assess, and decrease risk. 3) Justify resources needed to exceed acceptable standards of PT care. 4) Communicate important QA info to effect clinical decision making at all levels. 5) Integrate, track, and trend QA information. 6) Support credentials review and privileging activities. 7) ID edu and training needs. 8) Gain and sustain compliance with Joint Commission accreditation standards.
258
Program minimums include:
1) Program objectives 2) Organization and responsibilities. 3) Scope of QA program and customer input. 4) required QA functions including what is to be done by whom and when. 5) Information flow and review needs. 6) Annual review of program. 7) Methodology by which data is generated.
259
what is a Nosocomial Infection?
An inpatient acquired infection not present or incubating at the time of admission. It is considered Nosocomial if the infection becomes apparent 72 or more hours after admission.
260
What is a potentially compensable event? (PCE)
An event or outcome during the process of med or dental care in which the pt suffers lack of improvement, injury, illness of severity greater than ordinarily experienced by pt with similar proc or illness.
261
When was the QA program originally issued?
1984 for MTF and 1987 for DTF. The CNO and the Commandant are committed to providing the highest quality medical and dental care to DON beneficiaries.
262
What is Joint Publication 4-02
HEALTH SERVICE SUPPORT-
HSS has three joint functions: sustainment, movement and maneuver, and protection. HSS promotes, improves, conserves or restores health within a military system.
263
What is MCWP 4-11.1
HEALTH SERVICE SUPPORT OPERATIONS-
HSSO is a process that deliver on demand to the warfighter a healthy, fit, and medically ready force. The mission is to minimize the effects that wounds, injuries, and disease have on units' effectiveness, readiness, and morale with the use of Prev Med.
264
What is NAVMED P-5041
TX OF CHEMICAL WARFARE AGENT CASUALTIES AND CONVENTIONAL MILITARY CHEMICAL INJURIES
265
What is NAVMED P-5042
TX OF BIOLOGICAL WARFARE AGENT CASUALTIES
266
What is MANMED CHAPTER 6
DENTAL CORPS-
| Navy Dental Corps was est by provisions of an act August 22, 1912.
267
What is MANMED CHAPTER 21
PHARMACY OPERATION AND DRUG CONTROL
268
What is MANMED CHAPTER 23
FORMS, REPORTS, AND RECORDS
269
What is NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1
DECEDENT AFFAIRS MANUAL
270
What percent of combat fatalities occur forward of medical care?
90% * Half of these casualties bleed to death,1/5 from extremity trauma (10%-15% of all deaths).
271
What is the most effective and preferred method of hemorrhage control?
Direct pressure at site of injury
272
If direct pressure fails to stop the hemorrhage, it signifies?
Deep, massive, or arterial injury, and will require surgery or advanced hemostatic agents. Apply direct pressure to the wound for how long before looking to see if it is effective. At least 5 minutes * Impaled foreign bodies should not be removed because profuse bleeding may occur.
273
What are the negative factors of bandages?
A Bandage Does Not Equal Direct Pressure! A bandage may wick blood from the wound without stopping the bleeding. A bandage hides ongoing bleeding.
274
what method of hemostasis is more likely to cause additional injury than to control bleeding?
Blind clamping
275
how long may it take to provide hemostasis when compressing at a pressure point?
20 minutes.
276
What is the pressure point and artery for the lower arm?
Axilla
| Axillary
277
What is the pressure point and artery for the thigh?
Below the groin crease
| Femoral
278
What is the pressure point and artery for the leg?
Behind the knee
| Popliteal
279
Application of a tourniquet for longer than _____ will increase limb loss.
2 hours
280
What may be used to clamp a vessel if the damage is easily identified?
Hemostat
281
What are the possible pitfalls of MAST? (Military Anti-Shock Trousers)
1. Protracted MAST use leads to compartment syndrome and ischemic limbs
2. Respiratory compromise due to diaphragmatic elevation
3. Increased torso bleeding
4. requires close monitoring in aircraft's due to pressure changes
282
What may reduce pelvic bleeding besides stabilization of pelvic fracture with MAST garment?
Wrapping the pelvis tightly with a wide strap (such as a folded sheet)
283
Open torso injuries. If direct pressure does not stop the hemorrhage, consider doing what method?
inserting a balloon tamponade with a (Foley) catheter into the wound, and then with balloon inflated pulling back to compress the bleeding site.
284
What must be asses before and after applying a dressing or bandage?
Neurological status and circulation of extremity
285
What four things should you remember concerning Coagulopathy?
1. Keep patient warm (above34°C).
2. Use warm fluids.
3. Use crystalloid fluids sparingly.
4. Transfuse with fresh whole blood
286
what two agents are recommended by the US Tactical Combat Casualty Care Committee?
1. HemCon
| 2. QuikClot
287
Pressure must be applied for how long at the bleeding site, after application of a hemostatic dressing?
3-5 minutes
288
What is Q fever?
Bacteria named Coxielle burnetii. Highly resistent to heat.
289
What is the reservoir for Q fever?
Sheep, dogs, cattle, cats
290
How is Q fever transmitted?
Usually via aerosols
291
What are some signs and symptoms of atypical pneumonia?
fever, fatigue,chills, sweats,myalgia
292
approximately 33 percent of Q fever will develop what?
Acute hepatitis
293
What is a pre-exposure prophylaxis for Q fever?
A formalin inactivated whole cell vaccine, which provides exposure for 5 years.
294
What is a post-exposure medication for Q-fever?
Tetracycline 500 mg PO every 6 hours for 5 days. or doxy 100 mg every 12 hours for 5 day. effective if begun 8-12 days
295
What are treatment meds for Q fever?
Administer 100 mg doxycycline orally every 12 hours for at least 2 days after patient is afebrile or 500 mg tetracycline every 6 hours for at least 2 days.
296
What are the reservoir for Tularemia?
Rabbits, hares, rodents
297
Francisella Tularensis is limited to what hemisphere?
Northern Hemisphere
298
How are Tularemia transmitted?
By arthropod vectors such as: ticks and deer flies or direct contact with infected animals.
299
What are the signs and symptoms of Tularemia?
Acute pneumonia, fever, chest tightening, coughing .
300
What are some post-exposure prophylaxis for Tularemia?
Doxycycline 100 mg po every 12 h
| Tetracycline 500 mg orally every 6 hours for 2 weeks, or cipro 500 mg every 12 hours for 2 weeks
301
When administering streptomycin for Tularemia what is the dose?
7.5 to 10mg per kg IM every 12 hours for 10-14 days
302
When administering Gentamycin for Tularemia, what is the dose?
3 to 5 mg per kg IV daily for 10-14 days
303
When administering Ciprofloxacin for Tularemia what is the proper dose?
400 mg IV every 12 hours then switch to oral cipro 500 mg every 12 hours after the patient
304
How are Anthrax transmitted?
contact with infected animals, ingesting contaminated meat or Inhaling spores during the processing of wool for textiles.
305
Cutaneous anthrax accounts for more that what percent of all anthrax cases?
90%
306
What are some signs of Cutaneous
Painless necrotic ulcer with black eschar and local edema
307
What are some post exposure chemoprophylaxis for anthrax?
All personnel exposed to aerosolized Anthrax should be administered ciprofloxacin 500mg tabs orally every 12 hours for 60 days
308
What are some signs and symptoms of Anthrax?
Fever, Malaise, cough,. also improvement for 3 days then acute respiratory symptoms
309
What are some treatments for anthrax
Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV every 12 hours.
| Doxycycline 200 mg IV loading dose followed by 100mg IV every 12 hours
310
What are the 4 members of Brucellosis?
Melitensis, abortus,suis,canis
311
What are the Reservoirs for Brucellosis?
sheep,goats,cattle swine, dogs and cayotes
312
How are Brucellosis transmitted?
inhalations, ingestion or inoculations
313
What is the most common symptoms of Brucellosis?
Bone and Joint disease
314
Cardiovascular problems presents only 2% of Brucellosis but accounts for the most?
Death
315
How are Brucellosis treated?
Doxy 200 mg and Rifampin 600 mg daily for 6 weeks or Doxy 200 mg daily for 6 weeks and streptomycin 1 gm Intramuscularly daily for 2 weeks.
316
True or False Brucellosis is not communicable from person to person
True
317
What are the reservoir for Melioidosis?
soil and water throughout the world between 20 degrees north and south latitudes
318
True or False Acute pulmonary disease is the most common form of melioidosis.
True
319
Case fatality rate for acute septicemic disease exceeds ?
90 %
320
What is another name for Plague?
Yersinia pestis
321
What is the primary reservoir for plague?
Rodents
322
How are Plague transmitted?
Via infected fleas from rodents to humans, dog or cat to humans.
323
What are some signs and symptoms of plague?
Acute onset of fever and prostration with acute painful lymphadenitis draining the site of the fleabite
324
Bacillus anthracis appears as what under the microscope during dx?
Encapsulated, aerobic, Gram positive, spore forming, rod shaped bacterium.
325
what are the four systems that Bacillus Anthracis can effect?
Skin/cutaneous which is most common, Respiratory rare, GI - rare in the rear, and Oropharyngeal which is least common
326
Cutaneous Anthrax sx
Usually start within 1 day, localized itching followed by 1) papular lesions that turn vesicular 2) subsequent black eschar within 7-10 days.
327
Cutaneous Anthrax Tx
Cipro 500 mg po q12hr
328
Rickettsial (spotted & Typhus Fevers) appears as what under the microscope during dx?
gram negative bacteria, pink-red cocci
329
Transmission of Rickettsial is done by?
ectoparasites such as fleas, lice, mites, and ticks by scratching infected feces into the skin or by inhaling their terd dust. Don't inhale ectoparasite terd dust.
330
When is Rickettsial transmission likely?
More likely during spring and summer.
331
What is the incubation period for
Rickettsial has a 5-14 day incubation period.
332
Geographically where is Rickettsial most common?
Mediterranean, Southern Euro, Africa, India, Israel, Thailand, and Australia. HOWEVER ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER OR RICKETTISA PARKERI IS FROM THE AMERICAS.
333
Clinical presentation of Rickettsial?
Common symptoms develop 1-2 weeks into infection and include fever, headache, malaise, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Rocky mountain fever may be fatal in 20-60% of untreated cases.
334
Clinical diagnosis of Rickettsial
PCR- Polymerase chain reaction- DNA basically, skin biopsy of rash or eschar, or EDTA - unclotted blood- to identify specific cells.
335
Treatment of Rickettshial?
Standard CDC regimen consists of 200mg of Doxycycline daily for 3-14 days. For children 2.2 mg/kg body weight per dose admin twice daily orally or IV for children under 100lb. Antibiotics of the tetracycline class have a high degree of efficacy and low toxicity in the tx of Ricketts
PATIENTS SHOULD BE TREATED FOR AT LEAST THREE DAYS AFTER THE FEVER SUBSIDES!!
336
Hepatitis A
Ingestion of fecal matter from persons with Hep A. Incubation period is 15-50 days. Rarely fatal. IgM Anti HAV test for acute infection to properly diagnose.
337
Hepatitis B
Contact with infectious blood, semen, and other fluids through birth, sexual contact, needles/syringes/or other drug equipment, needle sticks, tattoos. Incubation period is 45-160 days. Specific Test include: HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc for acute only.
338
Hepatitis C
Contact with blood of an infected person through sharing of contaminated needles, syringes, or other IV drug equipment use. Incubation period is 14-180 days. Specific test are not currently available for acute infection
339
Symptoms for Hepatitis (ALL) include:
Fever, Fatigue, Loss of appetite, Nausea, Vomiting, Abdominal pain, Gray colored stool, Joint pain, jaundice.
340
Hepatitis A Vaccine schedule?
2 doses given 6mos apart
341
Hepatitis B vaccine schedule?
3 doses given 6 mos apart
342
Yellow fever belongs to what Genus?
Flavivirus.
343
How is Yellow Fever transmitted?
YF is transmitted primarily through the bite of infected Aedes or Haemagogus mosquitoes.
344
Yellow fever has _____ transmission
3- Jungle - Sylvatic, Intermediate - Savannah, and urban.
345
Jungle or Sylvatic transmission of YF:
between nonhuman primates and mosquito in the forest. then from infected mosquito to humans.
346
Intermediate or Savannah transmission of YF:
transmission of virus from mosquitoes to humans living or working in border areas. again from monkey to mosquito to humans.
347
Urban Transmission of YF:
involves human to urban mosquitoes, primarily Aedes Aegypti.
348
Symptoms of Yellow Fever:
Incubation period is usually 3-6 days in which patients have no illness or only mild illness. Initial symptoms include, fever, chills, severe headache, back pain, general body aches, nausea, and vomiting, fatigue, and weakness with initial improvement of symptoms. After brief remission or improvement of hours to days, 15% of cases progress or develop high fever, jaundice, bleeding, and eventually shock and failure of organs.
349
Treatment of Yellow Fever:
No specific treatments have been found to benefit patients with yellow fever. AVOID ASPIRIN AND NSAIDS!!!
350
Lab Evaluation: for YF
M-IgM and G-IgG, RNA, RT-PCR Reverse Transmission Polymerase Chain Reaction.
351
Mosquito for
YF
malaria
```
YF= Adese egypti
Malaria = anopheles
```
352
TB mask
N-95
353
fraternization instruction
OPNAVINST 5370.2
354
Seperation Instruction
MILPERSMAN 1900-1999 PERS 832
355
AUTOCLAVE
3 MINUTES AT 270 DEGREES
356
WHERE IS "COPY TO" LINE IN MEMO
UNDERNEATH SIGNATURE LINE ALIGNED TO LEFT HAND SIDE
357
Signa
to write, a word used to introduce the signature in a prescription; - mark write label
358
Tricare extra
fee-for-service plan available to all beneficiaries (except active duty service members) in the U.S
can use non network porvider
359
AC =
hydrogen cyanide abbreviation
360
lewisite
vesicant blister agent
361
Blood agents
```
Cyanogen chloride (CK)
Hydrogen cyanide (AC)
Arsine (SA)
```
362
MER reportable events within 30 days
Gonorrhea Chlamydia syphilis(latent)
363
Anthrax frequency and dosage
.5 ml 0,1,6,12,18 and 12 month boosters
364
navmed 6470/1
EXPOSURE TO IONIZING RADIATION
365
Jelly fish sting can cause cardiac collapse
3 minutes
366
MER go thru
SMDR maybe SMO
367
12 mm TB reaction after 72 hours =
"Not read"
368
ORM risk matrix
An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability
369
What is the minimum pay grade for a commanding officer to appoint IN WRITING as a DAPA?
E-6
370
SAPR instruction
SECNAVINST 1752.4
371
3 zones sexual harrassment
R Y G
372
secondary expenses
Secondary expenses are those expenses incurred for services and supplies for the funeral and interment service. The following expenses may be applied to the interment allowance. The family is responsible for any expenses that exceed that allowance. Burial in a private cemetery – reimbursable up to $4,850, plus transportation for the remains. Burial in a national cemetery – reimbursable up to $3,450, plus transportation for the remains..
373
primary Expenses
- The military service annually contract with CONUS mortuaries/funeral homes to provide, at a fixed rate and at no cost to the family, the embalming, dressing and casketing of remains of active duty members.
374
max money for remain not found
(A maximum of $3,000 reimbursable for costs of a memorial service for a member whose remains are not recovered).
375
retired escort
retains retire pay, all else same as AD
376
perry quote
"We have met the enemy and they are ours. Two ships, two brigs, one schooner and one sloop. Yours with great respect and esteem"
377
types of ships
Ships of the line, frigates, sloops of war
378
Incident of Sex harrassment reported within how long?
72 hours
379
three p's
Praise, Performance, and Problems
380
SIG signa
SIG is a standard part of a written prescription that specifies directions for use of the medicine.
381
superscription
The superscription section (above the ℞ sign, hence the name) contains the date of the prescription and patient's name and address;
382
inscription
The inscription specifies the ingredients and quantities of the medication;
383
subscription
The subscription section contains dispensing directions to the pharmacist, possibly including compounding instructions or quantities.
384
SIG
The SIG section contains directions to the patient on how and when to take the medicine prescribed (see SIG, below).
385
schedule 2 refills authorized?
high potential for abuse
386
Form for lost or stolen controlled meds
DEA 106
387
unannounced CSIB inspection when
quarterly or every 3 months
388
kerlex
6510
389
A CACO is the official representative of which of the following?
1. CNO
2. CO
3. SECNAV
4. Chaplain
SECNAV
390
Primaquin in G6PD causes
hemalysis
391
P-117 CH 15
physical exam
392
p-117 CH 23
reports
393
p-117 ch 21
pharmacy
394
pallegra
folic acid
395
gross autopsy details can be obtained by
NOK written request
396
PHS 731
yellow immunization form
397
OTC program authorized by
CO?
398
tetracycline treats
acne
399
Otitis media treatment
sulfisoxazole
400
Spinal blocks
thoracic
401
what type of block is a ring
nerve
402
Hepatitis with 28 day incubation period
Hep A
403
periodontitis
tooth elongation
404
decreased ADH aka vasopressin results in
Diabetes insipidous
405
lymphadenapthy fpund in what plague
bubonic
406
missing ships movement ucmj
ART 87
407
quid pro quo
this for that
408
% hypochlorite solution
5.25%
409
wartime submarine
project seapower work hostile enviroment
410
how long to submit report on eval?
2 years
411
QA records
2 years
412
MRE's good for
48 months
413
SECNAV - M5210.1,
SECNAV - M5210.1, Department of the Navy (DON), Navy Records Management Program, Records Management Manual
414
SF 502
clinic narrative
415
SF 515
tissue exam
416
SF516
OP report
417
SF 509
progress notes
418
What are the three fundamental
pillars on which United States
military strategy rests?
Deterrence, forward defense,
| and alliance solidarity
419
7th fleet
pacific
420
decon kit
m256A1
421
SOFA
status of forces agreement
422
R-status, C-status
remember
423
silver nitrate
batteries insecticides
424
telling subordinate to delegate task instills
confidence
425
near miss
A near-miss is defined as an event or
situation that could have resulted in harm to a patient,
if it had reached the patient..
426
metal cans hit deck enough to wake patient out of excitement stage?
stage 2 no
427
stages of anasteshia
induction
excitement
surgical
danger
428
document binnacle list on
SF 600
429
temp record
no original copies
430
primary pharmacy text
remington
431
Caudal
umbilicus to the toes
432
saddle block
spinal
433
Epidural
epidural
434
p5010 ch 1
Food sanitation
435
p5010 ch 8
entomology
436
p5010 ch 9
ground forces
437
p5010 ditty
Frank likes very small apples while watching everyone go
438
SSIC ditty
Military tests require luck and masterchief Frakers outstanding study guide for career enhancing goals
439
CG - and what does it smell like
phosegene new mown hay
440
HR ditty
Oh god you got that fat white bitch pregnant retard
441
AC = what does it smell like
almonds
442
HBV FREQ
0,1,6 MONTHS
443
JEV FREQ
0,7,30 DAYS
444
PNUMOCCOCAL ROUNTINELY GIVEN OVER AGE WHAT
65
445
Chest xray in TB reactor indicated
all the above
446
WHAT IS BACILLARY DYSENTERY
SHIGELLOSIS-BACTERIAL DISEASE TO DISTAL SMALL INTESTINE AND COLON WITH LOOSE STOOLS OF SMALL VOLUME, FEVER, NAUSEA, VOMITING, TENESMUS
447
LENGTH OF SHIGELLOSIS INFECTION
NORMALLY SELF LIMITING AT 4-7 DAYS.
448
Occurence of shigellosis
600K DEATHS PER YEAR (2/3 CHILDREN UNDER 10). OCCURE IN CROWDING WITH POOR HYGIENE
449
mode of transmission of shigellosis
Fecal oral transmission
450
RESERVOIR FOR SHIGELLOSIS
humans
451
SYMPTOMS OF SMALLPOX
SUDDEN RASH, FEVER, MALAISE, H/A, PROSTRATION ,BACK PAIN, ABDOMINAL PAIN, VOMITING
452
SMALLPOX INCUBATION
COMMONLY 10-14 DAYS WITH 2-4 DAYS AFTER FOR RASH ONSET
453
MODE OF TRANSMISSION FOR SMALLPOX
RESPIRATORY, CONJUNCTIVA, PLACENTA
454
INFECTIOUS AGENT OF SMALLPOX
VARIOLA VIRUS
454
UCMJ ARTICLE that prevent self incrimination
Article 31
455
Most destructive stored food pest
Rice weevil
456
When does person under age 18 not need signature on SF 522?
When married to AD or is AD themself
457
Amyl nitrate used in what CBR agents
Hydrogen cyanide & cyanogen chloride
458
Example vomit agent
Adamsite
459
Flash blindness from nuclear blast at night can last how long?
60 minutes
460
Form # CPO EVAL
1610/27
461
3 PFA failures in 4 yrs gets what action on eval?
Not recommend retention
462
Birthday of CPO
1APR 1893
463
When embarking disembarking small boat vessel, Senior Officer______________
Last onboard embarking First ashore when disembarking
464
Phenobarbital indicated for________
Insomnia & siezures
465
How many officers on CSIB inventory board
3 members, 1 has to be officer
466
When can Rx be phoned into navy pharmacy?
In emergency or extreme situation
467
When ordering supplies what pub do you use
P-485
468
Used in tx of fungal infx of hair skin nails
Griseofulvin
469
Who approves destruction of expired drugs
C.O.
470
NOT a factor in selecting site for urinal
Design
471
What type Dz is rabies?
Zoonotic
472
What area on oral mucosa?
Leukoplakia
473
In reference to STA-21, how long does member have to get bachelors degree?
36 months
474
Dz associated with Wilson Edison test
Malaria(test for presence of chloroquine in urine, thus confirming compliance with chemoprophylaxis)
475
Tx for beri-beri
Thiamine
476
What vaccination do recruits NOT recieve
Typhoid
477
For for lost or theft of controlled substance
DEA form106
478
Who is normally selected as triage officer
Dental officer
479
How long after leaving malaria endemic environment can one donate blood
3 yrs
480
Which publication contains information about special duty physicals
MANMED
481
What Dz is a concern for all healthcare workers
HBV
482
If that patient presents 10 days after TB test with 16 mm of induration how was this documented?
Not read
| Then another PPD placed in other arm
483
What disease is a concern for all healthcare workers
HBV
484
FMF HM's are separated into what 2 groups
Logistics and support
485
Med BN has how many Companies?
3
486
Lead lined wall surrounding an x-ray room offer protection under what principal
Shielding
487
Who is the primary address see when submitting and MER
Responsible NEPMU
488
If malaria prophylaxis is taking and you do not travel to a malaria endemic area how soon may you donate blood
1 yr
489
What happens to Optar when it's the fourth quarter and you still have funds left over
Funds are balanced and they disappear
490
How often are AMAL's inventoried?
Annually
491
What platoon is not part of MED BN
Preventative Med Plt
492
What would not be considered infectious waste
2x2 used for venipuncture
493
Who can make changes to control substance bulk stock
Commanding officer
494
QA reports are submitted when
15 January every year
495
If the water table is high in the soil is Rocky what type of the train would you put into place
Burn barrel
496
MANMED P-5010 chapters
```
Frank - Food safety
Likes -Living spaces
Very - Ventilation
Small - Swimming pools
Apples - ashore water
After. -afloat water
Watching - wastewater
Everyone. -entomology
Go. -Ground forces
```
497
How many scheduled drugs are there?
5
498
What schedule are drugs with no acceptable medical use and a very high abuse potential
Schedule 1
499
What schedule are drugs have acceptable medical use which are considered to have very high abuse potential
Schedule 2
500
What schedule are drugs having acceptable medical use which I considered to have a lessening degrees of abuse potential
Schedule 3, 4, & 5
501
Schedule two drugs shall be filled within how many days of the date originally written
7
502
True or false schedule two drugs shall not be refilled
True
503
Poly prescription form
NAVMED 6710/6
504
DOD RX FORM
DD 1289
