Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HEENT > HMC Mason Review > Flashcards

HMC Mason Review Flashcards

1
Q

Thermal receptors located where?

A

Epidermis and dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cold receptors are located where?

A

Epidermis (dermis warm receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nociceptors are located everywhere except?

A

Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Muscles spindles do what?

A

Inform which muscle is contracting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Joint kinesthetic does what?

A

Inform the position of our joints while doing work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The olfactory tract projects smell to where in your brain?

A

Cerebral cortex (frontal and temporal lobe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which portion of the brain is responsible for emotional response to odors?

A

Limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What cranial nerves are involved with taste and the taste buds?

A

CN VII & IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Exophthalmus is associated with what?

A

Hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which CN’s innervate movement of the eye?

A

CN 3 (occulomotor), CN 4 (trochlear), CN 6 (abducens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CN 3 controls which muscles of the eye?

A

Controls the levator palpebrae superior is (which elevates and retracts the upper eyelid). Controls superior, inferior, medial rectus muscles and the inferior oblique muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CN 4 controls which muscles of the eye?

A

superior oblique muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CN 6 controls which muscles of the eye?

A

Controls the lateral rectus muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What color light is used for fluorescein staining

A

Cobalt blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long do you flush eyes?

A

15-30 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Complication of auricular hematoma?

A

Cartilage necrosis or cauliflower ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How to treat cauliflower ear?

A

Incision and drainage/ Aspiration > Topical antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the temperature of water for ear irrigation?

A

Body/room temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common cause of Cholesteatoma?

A

Prolonged Eustachian tube dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How to treat Cholesteatoma?

A

Surgical marsupialization of the sac or its complete removal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do you use for foreign bodies in ear?

A

Loops and scoops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do you remove living foreign body in ear?

A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When do you not irrigate the ear?

A

Don’t irrigate ear if can’t see TM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Complication of foreign bodies?

A

Perforated TM, Hearing loss, Cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 2 types of Eustachian tube dysfunction?

A

Classified as a patulous dysfunction, in which the Eustachian tube is excessively open, or dilatory dysfunction, in which there is failure of the tubes to dilate appropriately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How to treat Eustachian tube dysfunction?

A

Treat underlying cause/ reduce infection/inflammation (Sudafed, Afrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hearing loss begins at what?

A

High frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

. What are causes of hearing loss?

A

Machinery, weapons, headphones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the treatment for hearing loss?

A

Take out of environment. Do audio if needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mastoiditis is caused by what?

A

Otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What bacteria is associated with Otitis Media?

A

Most common pathogens are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Streptococcus pyogenes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do you treat otitis externa?

A

Neomycin/Polymyxin B plus hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do you treat otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin. Ceftriaxone if PCN allergy.

34
Q

How do you treat mastoiditis?

A

Ceftriaxone 2g every 24 hours

35
Q

Bacteria associated with acute otitis externia?

A

The most common of which are Pseudomonas
aeruginosa (20% to 60%) and Staphylococcus aureus (10% to 70%).

36
Q

Treatment for otitis externa?

A

Neomycin/Polymyxin B plus hydrocortisone

37
Q

Otitis externa can lead to what?

A

Otitis media

38
Q

Otitis media is normally caused by what

A

URI

39
Q

Most common pathogens of Otitis media?

A

Most common pathogens are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Streptococcus pyogenes.

40
Q

How do you treat Otitis media including allergy to PCN?

A

Amoxicillin or Augmentin. PCN allergy= Ceftriaxone or Doxy

41
Q

Complications of otitis media are what?

A

Mastoiditis or cholesteastoma

42
Q

Complications of mastoiditis?

A

Destruction of bony septa. Spread of infection.

43
Q

What causes to tinnitus and what happens to the hair cells?

A

If hairs are damaged, they may move randomly, sending electrical impulses to your brain as noise, or tinnitus. Tinnitus can also be caused by turbulence in the carotid artery or jugular vein, and temporomandibular joint problems.

44
Q

Where does perforated TM most commonly occur?

A

Pars tensa

45
Q

TM perforations occur secondary to what?

A

Barotrauma per review. TM perforations can occur secondary to middle-ear infections or as a result of barotrauma, blunt/penetrating/acoustic trauma, or, on rare occasions, lightning strikes.

46
Q

How do you treat TM perforation?

A

Spontaneous resolve

47
Q

What’s the most common nose bleed?

A

Acute, unilateral bleeding from the anterior nasal cavity

48
Q

Where do anterior nose bleeds most commonly come from?

A

Kiesselbach’s Plexus

49
Q

How do you treat a nose bleed? What’s the last resort? When do you need antibiotics?

A

Direct pressure by compression of the nares continuously for 15 minutes. Nasal decongestant. Topical decongestant (Afrin). Last resort is nasal packing or cauterization. Packing should be left in place for 48 hours and the patient should be placed on oral antibiotics.

50
Q

Nasal polyps are associated with what?

A

Asthma, allergies

51
Q

How do you treat polyps?

A

Corticosteroids (Flonase)

52
Q

How do they look in nose?

A

Pale, most commonly semitransparent, edematous, mucosally covered masses.

53
Q

What bone in nose is most common broken?

A

The nasal pyramid

54
Q

Complication of nasal trauma?

A

Septal hematoma

55
Q

How do you treat nasal trauma?

A

Tylenol, ENT if displaced

56
Q

Does everyone need antibiotics?

A

Nope

57
Q

When do you treat sinusitis with antibiotics?

A

When over 10 days symptomatic

58
Q

How do you treat sinusitis?

A

Augmentin or amoxicillin (Augmentin per review) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate

59
Q

Treatment for epiglottitis?

A

Ceftizoxime (Rocephin), 2 g IV every 8-12 hrs

60
Q

What may have a wrinkled “wet finger” appearance?

A

Leukoplakia

61
Q

Cause of leukoplackia

A

Smoking, alcohol, dentures

62
Q

Pt has muffled hot potato voice?

A

PTA

63
Q

How do you treat?

A

Ceftriaxone 2g IV QD + Metronidazole 500mg IV q6h

64
Q

How do you do needle aspiration?

A

With a 19 to 21-gauge needle passed medial to the molar and no deeper than 1cm due to the internal carotid artery lays laterally and posterior to the posterior edge of the tonsil.

65
Q

Another name for tonsillitis?

A

Step throat

66
Q

What is CENTOR criteria?

A

Fever over 38 degrees Celsius;Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy; Lack of a cough; Pharyngotonsillar exudates

67
Q

What is used for centor criteria used for?

A

strep

68
Q

What’s the treatment for strep?

A

Benzathine penicillin (Bicillin) - a Penicillin class antibiotic. Dose: 1.2 million units IM (only 1 dose)

69
Q

Most common organism for Sialadenitis?

A

Most common organism recovered from purulent draining saliva is S aureus

70
Q

What’s the treatment for sialadentitis

A

IV Antibiotics Nafcillin 2gm IV QD. MEDEVAC

71
Q

Where do tonsilloliths most occur?

A

Occur most commonly in the palatine tonsils

72
Q

Most common cause of barotrauma?

A

Flying

73
Q

How do you treat orbital fracture on ship?

A

Augmentin

74
Q

. How do you teat orbital cellulitis?

A

Augmentin

75
Q

HypopyonHypopyon is associated with what?

A

Corneal ulcers and Uveitis/Iritis.

76
Q

Treatment for auricular hematoma?

A

I & D

77
Q

Sounds like underwater is what?

A

Eustachian tube dysfunction

78
Q

Dendritic lesions are associated with what?

A

Herpetic lesions of eye

79
Q

Do you patch ulcers?

A

No

80
Q

A blowout fracture is associated with what?

A

Affects the floor or inner wall of the orbit

81
Q

Before you do anything with the eye you do what?

A

Visual acuity

HEENT (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions