HNBS Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
- The vertebral foramen is largest and triangular in shape in the _____ region of the vertebral canal:
a. Cervical
c. Lumbar
b. Thoracic
d. Sacral
A
cervical
2
Q
- The fourth lumbar vertebra is characterized by:
a. Its bifid spinous process
b. Its massive body
c. Its heart-shaped body
d. Its kidney shape body
e. Its triangular lamina
A
Its kidney shape body
3
Q
- Hyoid cartilage is at the level of:
a. C3
b. C4
c. C6
d. T7 spine
e. T2 spine
A
C3
4
Q
- TRUE statements about the joint of Von Luschka,
EXCEPT
a. Involves C3-C7 vertebrae
b. Comprising of body of the superior vertebra and paired base of pedicles of the inferior vertebra
c. Total of 12 joints
d. Also known as the uncovertebral joints
e. None of the above
A
None of the above
5
Q
- It is found externally laterally from the junction of the pedicle and a lamina
a. Vertebral foramen
b. Transverse process
c. Pedicle
d. Axis
A
Transverse process
6
Q
- The specialized joint of the craniovertebral area is formed by one centrally located articulation & two facet whose axis of motion is vertical through the dens, accounting to 50% of rotation in the cervical area:
a. Atlanto-occipital joint
b. Cervical vertebral articulation
c. Atlanto-axial joint
d. None of these
A
Antlanto-axial jt
7
Q
- The adult spine is composed of how many vertebrae?
a. 37
b. 33
d. 28
e. 26
A
26
8
Q
- It limits skull and atlas rotation on the axis:
a. Transverse ligament
b. Alar ligament
c. Ligamentum flavum
d. Anterior longitudinal ligament
A
Alar ligament
9
Q
- Lumbar lordosis develops during:
a. Second to third month
b. Fifth to sixth month
c. Eight to tenth month
d. Tenth to twelfth month
A
10-12th month
10
Q
- The atlanto-occipital joint is an example of this joint
a. Ball and socket
b. Saddle
c. Condyloid
d. Trochoid
e. Hinge
A
condyloid
11
Q
- At what age does a human have the greatest amount of fluid in the intervertebral disc?
a. 1 year
b. 4 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
A
1 year
12
Q
- A bony mass is vaguely felt in the posterior midline of the neck about two finger breadths beneath the occipital protuberance. It is the:
a. inferior articular process of C1
b. spinous process of the atlas
c. spinous process of the axis
d. odontoid process
A
spinous process of the axis
13
Q
- Bone that is made up of five vertebra which unites to form one bone
a. Sacrum
b. Coccyx
c. Sacral canal
d. Sacral foramina
A
sacrum
14
Q
- The strongest extensors of the lumbar spine in strengthening up from a forward flexed bending position are the:
a. Multifidus mm
b. Gluteus maximus mm
c. Hamstring mm
d. Latissimus dorsi mm
A
multifidus
15
Q
- Which muscles make up the erector spinae?
a. Spinalis thoracis
b. Longgisimus thoracis
c. Iliocostalis lumborum
d. A and C
e. All of the above
A
e
16
Q
- Level of iliac crest:
a. L4
b. L5
c. S2
d. d. S1
A
a
17
Q
- The characteristic feature of the fifth lumbar vertebra is its:
a. Heart-shaped body
b. Rounded vertebral foramen
c. Small pedicles
d. Stout transverse process
A
d
18
Q
- The bony landmark corresponding to the xiphoid process?
a. T7
b. T10
c. T12
d. T5
A
b
19
Q
- The most limited motion in the lumbar spine is:
a. Flexion
b. Lateral bending
c. Rotation
d. Extension
e. The lumbar spine is not limited in any direction of movement
A
c
20
Q
- Intervertebral discs are located between vertebral bodies from:
a. C1 to S1
b. C1 to L5
c. C2 to L5
d. C2 to S1
A
d
21
Q
21. A classification of back pain sources caused by nerve root impingement? a. Vasculogenic b. Mechanical c. Neurogenic d. Spondylogenic e. Psychogenic
A
c
22
Q
- Also known as Bekhterev’s or Marie-Strumpell disease?
a. Spondylolisthesis
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Spondylosis
A
b
23
Q
- Lumbar spinal stenosis may be caused by:
a. Disc herniation
b. Formation of bone spurs
c. Ligamentum hypertrophy
d. Face joint hypertrophy
e. All of these
A
e
24
Q
Back pain caused by stress/strain of back muscles, tendons, ligaments and often relieved by rest:
a. Lumbar disc syndrome
b. Spondylolisthesis
c. Mechanical back pain
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
A
c
25
A postural correction program for a patient with forward head, kyphosis and increased lumbar lordosis should include all of the following
EXCEPT
a. Strengthening the scapular protractors
b. Strengthening the thoracic erector spinae muscles
c. Lengthening the short suboccipital muscles
d. Lengthening the lumbar erector spinae muscles
a
26
Pain in the neck may be due to injury of the:
a. All of these
b. Cervical vertebrae
c. Cervical nerve
d. Cervical muscles and ligaments
a
27
Partial or complete absence of both clavicles by changes in the skull and other bones?
a. None of these
b. Sprengel’s deformity
c. Klippel-Feil syndrome
d. Cleidocranial syndrome
Cleidocranial syndrome
28
Whiplash injury from a rear-end collision would tear the:
a. Posterior longitudinal ligament
b. Anterior longitudinal ligament
c. Ligamentum nuchae
d. Ligamentum flavum
Anterior longitudinal ligament
29
What is dental trismus?
a. Capsulitis of the TMJ
b. OA of the TMJ
c. Muscle spasm of the TMJ
d. The trigger point of the TMJ
Muscle spasm of the TMJ
30
Which of the following is an appropriate management for your patient with osteoporosis?
a. Vigorous stretching
b. Non-weight bearing exercises
c. Supine curl-ups and sit-ups as well as the use of sitting abdominal machines
d. AOTA
Non-weight bearing exercises
31
Tzietze’s syndrome is characterized by:
a. Cervical rib dislocation
b. Apical pleuritis of the lungs
c. Painful swelling of the costochondral junction
d. Myodynia of the pectoralis major
Painful swelling of the costochondral junction
32
32. A patient is positioned in supine with the hips flexed to 90 degrees and the knees extended. As
the patient slowly lowers her extended legs toward the horizontal, there is an increase lordosis of the low back. This finding is indicative of weakness of the:
a. Hip flexors
b. Abdominals
c. Back extensors
d. Hip extensor
Abdominals
33
33. Is the most common type of spondylolisthesis, with lack of normal continuity of isthmus:
a. Dysplastic
b. Traumatic
c. Pathologic
d. Degenerative
e. Isthmic
Isthmic
34
34. A patient was diagnosed to have spondylolisthesis with a forward displacement of his upper lumbar vertebra by 70%. He has a:
a. Grade IV spondylolisthesis
b. Grade III spondylolisthesis
c. Grade II spondylolisthesis
d. Grade I spondylolisthesis
b
35
35. A 2-month-old child presents with a mild right- sided torticollis. The best course of treatment is:
a. Stretching of the right SCM with the chin pointed to the right
b. Tenotomy of the right SCM
c. Positioning
d. Rigid cervical collar
c
36
36. True about synarthrodial joints except:
a. These joints are built to absorb shock
b. Connects bones by fibrous tissue and allows very minimal or no movement
c. It is more stable than symphysis
d. A and C
e. None of these
e
37
37. True about pure hinge joint, except:
a. A pure hinge joint permits movement in a single plane
b. It permits flexion and extension on the horizontal plane
c. Hinge joints can be found in the
interphalangeal joint
d. It is diarthrodial joint
e. B and D
b
38
38. An arthrokinematic motion where in several points in one surface is in contact with different points on the other surface?
a. Rocking
b. Spinning
c. Gliding
d. Rolling
e. a & d
e
39
In close pack position, the joint is distracted few millimeters away to permit movement:
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither
b
40
Statics and Dynamics are branches arising from what concept?
a. Biomechanics
b. Kinematics
c. Equilibrium
d. Kinetics
e. None of these
Biomechanics
41
It is a movement in which moving segment follows a circular path:
a. Circumduction
b. Curvilinear
c. Rectilinear
d. A and C
e. B and C
Circumduction
42
Joints that permit stability and mobility at the same time are so called:
a. Amphiarthodial joints
b. Synarthrodial joints
c. Diarthrodial joint
d. All of these
e. None of these
Amphiarthodial joints
43
This is a reference position of the body in a static, or non moving position.
a. Fundamental position
b. Anatomical position
c. Both
d. Neither
Anatomical position
44
XZ plane is also known as:
a. Vertical plane
b. Horizontal plane
c. Coronal plane
d. All of these
e. None of these
b
45
These are small simultaneous arthrokinematics motions that amount to only a few millimeters of translatory motion whenever full ROM is not possible:
a. Accessory movements
b. Joint play
c. Both
d. Neither
c
46
_______ is a pull or push that produces displacement:
a. Force
b. Torque
c. Friction
d. Gravity
a
47
In kinetics, if an appliance or object is attached to a body segment such as dumbbell in a hand or a cast on a leg, that object ______ the weight or pull of the gravity
a. Increases
b. Decrease
c. Either
d. Neither
increases
48
48. Where does the line of gravity pass in relation to the hip
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Inferior
d. Posterior
poterior
49
49. Examples of open chain motions include, except:
a. Deltoid acting on the GH jt. To elevate the arm
from the side
b. FDP closing the IP joints around a ball
c. Tibialis anterior dorsiflexing the ankle joint to lift the foot off the floor
d. Biceps and brachialis flexing the elbow to bring a cup to the mouth
e. None of these
none of these
50
50. Most common lever in the body:
a. First class
b. Second class
c. Third class
d. Fourth class
3rd class
51
Location of COG:
a. Slightly anterior to S2
b. Slightly posterior to S2
c. Slightly anterior to S1
d. Slightly posterior to S1
A
52
COG does not return to but seeks a new position and the body falls:
a. Stable equilibrium
b. Neutral equilibrium
c. Displacement
d. Unstable equilibrium
unstable equilibrium
53
COG of the LE:
a. Adductor brevis
b. Adductor magnus
c. Just above the knee joint
d. Popliteus
just above knee joint
54
54. Also known as trochoid joint:
a. Saddle
b. Pivot
c. Ginglymus
d. Condyloid
pivot
55
55. A person standing on balls of the feet is an example of what class of lever:
a. First class
b. Second class
c. Third class
d. Fourth class
second class
longer force arm
56
56. Slump is performed by:
a. Thoracic flexion
b. Lumbar flexion
c. Cervical flexion
d. A and B
e. A and C
D.
57
When the patient rotates the head to the affected side and pulls the chin downward, he felt a radiating pain down the arm. This is indicative of:
a. Trigger points
b. Tender points
c. Plexopathy
d. Increase intrathecal pressure
e. None of these
C.
58
In testing for the radial nerve in upper limb tension test, the shoulder must be positioned in:
a. Depressed and adduct 10 degrees
b. Depressed and abduct 110 degrees
c. Depressed and externally rotated
d. A and C
e. B and C
Depressed and abduct 110 degrees
59
Indication for cross well-leg raising test:
a. Sciatic nerve
b. Tibial nerve
c. Common peroneal nerve
d. Disc prolapse
e. None of these
Disc prolapse
60
True about valsalva maneuver except:
a. Patient may first extend the knee to a
position just short before pain is felt
b. Patient is in sitting position
c. Pain increases and rules in intrathecal pressure
d. Patient bears down as if evacuating bowels
Patient may first extend the knee to a position just short before pain is felt
61
The patient stands on one leg and extends spine while balancing on the leg. The test is repeated on the opposite leg. Positive test is indicated by pain in the back:
a. One leg standing
b. Flamingo test
c. Lumbar extension test
d. All of these
e. A and C
A and C
62
A positive stork standing test is being associated with pain at the back and
a. Spondylolisthesis
b. Spondylosis
c. Spondylolysis
d. Spondyloptosis
e. None of these
Spondylolisthesis
63
```
Position of the knee in Nachlas test method III:
I. Neutral
II. Extended
III. Flexed
IV. Adducted
```
a. I only
b. III and IV
c. II and IV
d. Only II
e. None of these
Only II
64
64. PROVOCATIVE test except:
a. Spurling’s test
b. Maximum cervical compression
c. Bakody’s sign
d. Jackson compression test
Bakody’s sign
65
65. A patient is positioned by the therapist with the cervical spine rotated to the right. The patient then extends the neck as the therapist externally rotates and extends the right upper extremity. The radial pulse is palpated in the right upper extremity by the therapist. What type of special test is this, and for what condition is it testing?
a. Adson’s maneuver – cervical disc herniation
b. Lhermitte’s sign – cervical disc herniation
c. Adson’s maneuver – thoracic outlet syndrome
d. Lhermitte’s sign – thoracic outlet syndrome
Adson’s maneuver – thoracic outlet syndrome
66
66. (+) test for Romberg's test:
a. relief of symptoms
b. prodution of pain on the UE
c. postural sway
d. electric-like sensation at the lowback
e. all of the above
C
67
67. Patient laterally flexes head to one side, and then the examiner applies downward pressure on the patient’s head. If the pain is felt on the opposite side to which the head is taken, the test is considered positive:
a. Spurling's test
b. Maximum cervical compression
c. Distraction test
d. none of these
A
68
68. Patient in supine, the legs are raised straight two inches from the table and held as long as he can. If the patient can hold the position for 30 seconds with no pain, an intrathecal pressure may be ruled out:
a. Milgram’s
b. Gaenlen’s
c. Hoover’s
d. Naffziger
A
69
69. This procedure tests the integrity of the segmental innervation of the rectus abdominis and the paraspinal mm. The patient lies a quarter sit up with arms cross over the chest. If the umbilicus is drawn up, down, or to one side, there may be asymmetrical involvement of the anterior abdominal paraspinal mm.
a. Patrick’s test
b. FABER test
c. Beevor’s test
d. Yeoman’s test
C
70
70. These low back pain maneuvers are used to test for increased intrathecal pressure except:
a. Sign of buttock test
b. Milgram’s test
c. Valsalva tset
d. Naffziger test
A
71
71. This test is for patients with radicular symptoms in history and shows radicular signs during examinations. Examiner places one hand under the patient’s chin and other hand around occiput, then slowly lifts the patient’s head. (+) result indicated by relief of symptoms.
a. Shoulder abduction test
b. Distraction test
c. Relief test
d. Bikele’s sign
e. None of these
B
72
72. All of the following special test are done with one leg stance, except:
a. Sacral fixation Test
b. Lumbar extension test
c. Flamingo Test
d. All of these
e. None of these
E
73
73. A patient comes to you with complaints of numbness and paresthesia that radiate on the left arm. To have an accurate plan, you asked the patient to rotate the head to the (L) then you pressed down straight to the head. Then you repeat it on the other side. The patient said that her symptoms were produced during the 1stmaneuver. What special test is being performed?
a. Brachial plexus compression test
b. Scalene cramp test
c. Jackson compression test
d. Bakody’s sign
e. None of these
C
74
74. You tap the area of the parotid gland overlying the masseter mm. The facial mm will contract in a twitch if blood calcium is low. This is a test of the 7th cranial nn. Which of the following best describes this special test?
a. Jaw reflex
b. Marin amat test
c. Bell’s phenomenon
d. Chvostek test
D
75
75. Lhermitte’s sign is seen in:
a. All of these
b. Disc herniation
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Spinal cord disease
e. None of these
A
76
76. Lifting a 20 kg weight with back straight and knees bent adds creates how many percentage to the disc pressure at L3 Level?
a. 5-35%
b. 40-50%
c. 75%
d. 170%
C
77
77. Capsular pattern of the lumbar spine
a. Midway between flexion and extension
b. Extension
c. Side flexion & Rotation equally limited, extension
d. Midway between rotation and flexion
C
78
78. Referred pain of the multifidus muscle is felt at:
a. Medial border of arm to medial 2 fingers
b. Adjacent to spinal column
c. Spinal column to line along medial border of the scapula
d. Lateral chest wall to lower medial border of scapula
B
79
79. This deformity is characterized by projection of the
sternum forward and downward, increasing the anteroposterior dimension of the chest
a. Pigeon chest
b. Funnel chest
c. Pectus excavatum
d. A and C
e. B and C
A
80
80. This kyphotic deformity is characterized by localized, sharp, posterior angulation that is visually structural and often results from anterior wedging of the body of one or two thoracic vertebra
a. Round back
b. Dowager’s Hump
c. Hump back
d. Flat back
C
81
81. A flat back has a decreased pelvic inclination of how many degrees
a. 5 degrees
b. 20 degrees
c. 35 degrees
d. 50 degrees
B
82
82. Dowager’s Hump results from
a. Scoliosis
b. Neurogenic low back pain
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
D
83
83. This is defined as any deviation from normal occlusion
a. Malocclusion
b. Intercuspation
c. Excursion
d. Dysfunctional asymmetry
A
84
Upon assessment of a patient’s facial profile, you observed that the chin lies behind the vertical line and the person is said to have a receding chin
a. Orthognatic
b. Retrognathic
c. Prognathic
d. Detragnathic
B
85
Which among the stages of temporomandibular disc dysfunction is the most painful stage
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
3 - CONSISTENT CLICK
1 - INCONSISTENT CLICK
2 - ANT & MEDIAL ; RECIPROCAL
4- PAINLESS
86
Referred pain pattern involving the sternocleidomastoid would be felt at, except:
a. Back and top of the head
b. Front of the ear over forehead to medial aspect of the eye
c. Posterior neck and shoulder angle side of head to eye
d. Cheek, behind the ear
C
THE REST FOR SCM
87
All of the following are signs and symptoms of cervical instability, except:
a. None of these
b. Dizziness
c. Severe headache
d. Nystagmus
e. Lump in throat
A
88
All of the following are causes of cervical nerve root lesion, except:
a. Disc herniation
b. Stenosis
c. Osteophyte formation
d. Stretching of the cervical spine
D
89
This is a type of joint which two bony components are joined directly by a ligament, cord, or aponeurotic membrane is a ____.
a. Symphysis
b. Syndesmosis
c. Diarthrosis
d. Synchondrosis
B
90
The four muscles of the abdominal wall that have respiratory functions include from deep to superficial are as follows
a. Rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis
b. Transversus abdominis, internal oblique, external oblique, rectus abdominis
c. Transversus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique, rectus abdominis
d. Rectus abdominis, internal oblique, external oblique, transversus abdominis
B
91
Structural scoliosis is an example of a musculoskeletal abnormality that can affect the chest wall biomechanics. With this type of scoliosis the musculoskeletal changes that affect ventilation and chest wall biomechanics are related to severity of the curve
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. Only the first statement is correct
d. Only the second statement is correct
A
92
92. True regarding posterior longitudinal ligament, except:
a. The PLL reinforce the anterior aspect of the intervertebral joints and to limit flexion of the vertebral column.
b. During flexion of the spine, the ligament normally is subjected to distraction.
c. Anatomically, the ligament is adjacent to the spinal cord on one side, and the disks and vertebral bodies on the other
d. The ligament works in conjunction with supraspinous, interspinous, and ligamentum flavum to limit flexion of the column and provide stability of the joints
e. None of these
A
93
93. Which of the following correctly describes a typical thoracic vertebra?
a. The spinous process slopes inferiorly and overlap the spinous process of the
adjacent inferior vertebra
b. The superior zygapophyseal facets are concave and face medially and posteriorly
c. The transverse process is long and slender and extends horizontally
d. B and C
e. All of these
A
94
94. The IV Discs are smallest in
a. Cervical
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. All have equal sizes
e. None of these
A
95
95. Collagen concentration are highest in
a. Nucleus pulposus
b. Outer annulus
c. Inner annulus
d. None of these
B
96
96. Lordosis is characterized by
a. Anterior concavity
b. Posterior concavity
c. Posterior convexity
d. A and B
e. A and C
B
97
97. Fracture classification for facial fractures
a. Le Fort Fracture
b. Garden classification
c. Salter Harris
d. Frykman Classification
A
98
98. Structures that form the nasal septum
a. Vomer and maxilla
b. Sphenoid and maxilla
c. Vomer and ethmoid
d. Ethmoid and mandible
C
99
99. This condition is characterized by erosion of the vertebral body causing it to have a uniformly flattened, wedged-shape and abnormally densed structure in radiographs
a. Vertebra plana
b. Eosinophilic granuloma
c. Calve’s disease
d. A and C
e. All of these
E
100
100. Failure of segmentation may produce two or more vertebral bodies united in a single mass of bone is called
a. Block vertebra
b. Derailed vertebra
c. Clamped vertebra
d. Univertebra
e. None of these
A
