homework review t3 Flashcards

1
Q

the SI unit for exposure is

A

coulomb/kilogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Because multiple slices are acquired during CT scans, scatter dose is accounted for using

A

multiple scan average dose (MSAD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An indicator of radiation output, ______ does not represent the actual amount of radiation absorbed by the patient

A

CT Dose Index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is an example of dose modulation technique

CARE Dose
AutomA
SUREExposure
all of the above

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

true/false: Patient shielding in CT requires a 360o application

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

true/false: Dose justification is a radiation protection principle intended to ensure that doses delivered to patients are kept as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA)

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Each of the following classify as a proper radiation protection action except:
a. justifying physician orders.
b. increase distance.
c. decrease exposure time.
d. increase shielding.

A

justifying physician orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

if the pitch increases, the dose __________

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

true/false: the DLP is directly proportional to the scan length

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What technical factor determines the penetrating power of the photons coming from the X-ray tube?

A

kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the NRCP whole-body effective dose limit for occupational exposure in radiation workers is

A

50 mSv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

according to NRCP recommendations, secondary radiation barriers should contain _______ thickness of lead or the equivalent.

A

0.1-0.4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The speed with which the exam table progresses through the scanner is controlled by the _________

A

pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All of the following are true of the display field of view, EXCEPT that it:

a. is the reconstructed area seen on the image monitor
b. can be adjusted to render the area of anatomy needed
c. cannot be expanded beyond the scan area
d. affects patient dose

A

d. affects patient dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is considered a moderate or severe reaction to IV contrast?

feeling flushed
hives
nausea
vomiting

A

hives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Methylprednisolone, or Solu-Medrol, is commonly included in crash carts to

A

reduce inflammation

17
Q

One study suggests that bolus tracking can reduce patient dose by up to _____ without any loss of diagnostic quality.

18
Q

t/f: Higher slice scans equate to higher patient dose.

19
Q

t/f: Non-ionic contrast is more likely to cause serious reactions in patients than ionic contrast media.

A

false, they are less likely

20
Q

t/f: CT scans should never be performed on pregnant patients.

21
Q

All of the following are required components of informed consent EXCEPT:

a. dated signatures from the patient, provider, and witness
b. a thorough patient history
c. an explanation of procedural risks
d. effective communication between the provider and patient

A

b. a thorough patient history

22
Q

What lab test is performed to help diagnose the presence of a blood clot?

23
Q

All of the following are true of low osmolar contrast media EXCEPT:

a. it does not dissociate in solution
b. it has an osmolality 2 to 3 times higher than blood
c. it is generally less expensive than ionic contrast media
d. it has a relatively lower risk of adverse patient reactions

A

c. it is generally less expensive than ionic contrast media

24
Q

Which of the following is an indication for IV contrast?

acute stroke
renal stones
hemorrhage
appendicitis

A

appendicitis

25
Which of the following is considered a mild reaction to contrast media? nasal congestion hoarseness hypertensive urgency itching
nasal congestion
26
t/f: Contrast administration flow rates of 5 mL/s or higher require a large bore angiocatheter and mechanical power injector to be achieved.
true
27
t/f: The equilibrium phase of tissue enhancement is better known as the venous phase.
false, this is the nonequilibrium phase
28
What is the key risk factor for a patient developing contrast-induced nephropathy from IV contrast administration?
Prior history of acute kidney injury
29
What reaction to IV administered iodinated contrast media is classified as severe? a. Vomiting b. Dizziness c. Itching d. Convulsions
d. Convulsions
30
Which is not a type of negative contrast media? a. Water b. Gas c. Air d. Barium
d. Barium