HPM Random Facts Review Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

What should you always consider for first line pharmacotherapy of delirium?

A

Consider antipsychotic Haloperidol

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2
Q

For delirium should meds be routine or prn?

A

PRN!

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3
Q

What other drugs do we consider for escalating delirium, not responding to antipsychotics in patients who are a risk to themselves or others?

A

Rescue doses of midazolam or lorazepam in addition to antipsychotic

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4
Q

What med do you use in Lewy Body Dementia and Delirium ?

A

Quetiapine, low dose prn q4hrs

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5
Q

what are imaging signs of pneumonitis?

A

similar to pna, new focal airspace opacities

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6
Q

how can pneumonitis present clinically?

A

dry cough, SOB, likely afebrile

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7
Q

If pneumonitis is suspected, what is the work up or plan of care?

A

work up should be bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage to rule out infection, then treat with steroids

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8
Q

what symptoms of SVC are emergent requiring immediate surgical/XRT intervention for stent placement or radiation therapy?

A

AMS from cerebral edema, and stridor from central airway obstruction.

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9
Q

When do you consider a catheter for malignant pleural effusion?

A

Rapid filling in < 1 week

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10
Q

When are recurrent thoracentesis okay?

A

Slow fill > 1 month
Life span < 3 months
Low Performance Status

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11
Q

What do you use for relief of dyspnea in patients with advanced terminal disease?

A

Systemic opioids - optimally long acting with any break through controlled with short acting narcotics

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12
Q

what are risks for aspiration pneumonia

A

dysphagia, choking, coughing, excessive sedation, OSA with obesity compromising glottis closure or cough reflex during sleep

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13
Q

How does Heliox work?

A

Decrease turbulent air flow, therefore decreases airway resistance, and makes less work of breath!

Remember it’s temporary!

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14
Q

Name 4 steps to approaching hemoptysis management

A
  1. Locate the bleed
  2. Reverse any coagulopathy
  3. Bronchoscopy with interventions (ice saline, balloon tamponade, topical vasoconstrictor such as epi)
  4. if bronch fails, IR embolization/surgery
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15
Q

when can you not use Non invasive positive pressure ventilation?

A

if the patient is confused or obtunded

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16
Q

When should you use direct thrombolysis for a PE?

A

If patient is unstable, or has right heart strain

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17
Q

Which anticoagulation is perferred for active cancer and thromboembolism?

A

LMWH preferred over coumadin

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18
Q

in constipation in the cancer patient with bone mets what is the first step?

A

look for underlying cause, RULE OUT hypercalcemia prior to assuming OIC or treating.

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19
Q

When do you avoid bulk fiber?

A

If poor oral intake and or history/risk of fecal impaction

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20
Q

When is methylnaltrexone contraindicated?

A

If obstruction suspected, or for patients with any compromise of bowel integrity such as prior bowel obx.

21
Q

what is a bad side effect of methylnaltrexone?

A

bowel perforation

22
Q

what is the mechanism of methylnaltrexone?

A

Opioid antagonist that targets the mu receptors of the GI tract without crossing blood brain barrier or impairing analgesia by opioids.

23
Q

What type of agents are the following:

  1. Psyllium
  2. senna and bisacodyl
  3. docusate sodium
A
  1. Bulk forming agents
  2. increase intestinal peristalsis and secretions
  3. soften stool by increasing water penetration
24
Q

What is the best treatment for hypercalcemia

>14?

A
  1. IVF with (0.9% NaCl)
  2. Calcitonin
  3. Zoledronic acid
25
how much IVF with (0.9% NaCl) do you use for hypercalcemia?
use 2-4L/day for 2-3 days
26
How much calcitonin do you use for hypercalcemia?
4-8u/kg subQ every 6-12hours for 2-3 days
27
which bisphosphonate is best for renal insufficiency?
zoledronic acid is better than pamidronate
28
when someone has hemorrhage/hemoptysis how do you lay the patient?
Good side up! lateral decubitus position with the affected lung in the dependent position
29
When should you do surgery in metastatic bone disease?
If life expectancy >1mo
30
What areas of fracture should you consider surgical repair if life expectancy is >1mo?
Tibia, Femur, Pelvis. Spinal instability.
31
what is used to treat hypercalcemia due to lymphoma, sarcoid, or other granulmoatous diseases?
glucocorticoids
32
What can make SVC worse?
IVF
33
When do you need seizure prophylaxis in primary or secondary brain mets?
If post op from resection, up to 3 months OR If the patient has had a seizure
34
what is pharm agent contraindicated if suspected bowel obstruction?
metoclopramide - it is a prokinetic and may increase severity of symptoms. Use bowel rest! IVF, Steroids, Hyoscine, NG, venting peg or surgery
35
when do you use O2 in patients?
When they are HYPOXIC
36
The vomiting center sits in the ____.
Medulla
37
What is the receiving part of the vomiting center called?
The NTS Nucleus Tractus Solitarius
38
Where is the emitogenic signal coming from for nausea/emesis?
the DMV | Dorsal Motor Nucleus of Vagus
39
Name 4 parts of the body go to the NTS (receiving center)?
1. Higher cortical centers - increase ICP (anticipatory nausea) 2. Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (in medulla outside of BBB) - Uremia, toxins, hypercalcemia 3. GI tract (obx, stasis, mets, chemo agents/radiation) 4. Vestibular Apparatus (motion, opioids)
40
What peripheral area of nausea goes to the CTZ or to the NTS directly?
the GI tract
41
What is the most common cause of death in pts with ALS ?
Respiratory failure
42
What is a predictor of sudden death in patients with ALS?
decreased heart rate variability
43
When should you consider a PEG in pts with ALS?
If VC is >50% early in the course can stabilize weight and BMI and prolong survival if early.
44
Anticholinergic does what to the pupils?
Mydriasis - Dilates
45
what are the main presentations in Serotonin syndrome (4) ?
Hyper reflexia Hyper tonia (myoclonus) Hyper thermia Midriasis!
46
What neurotransmitter is affected in NMS?
Dopamine (dopamine becomes LOW)
47
What medications cause NMS?
Anti-psychotics like olanzapine and chlorpromazine
48
What are the main presentations in NMS?
BRADY kinesia Brady reflexia Muscle rigidity tachycardia and fever (HTN or variable)