Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HR Block 6 > HR block 6 part 1 > Flashcards

HR block 6 part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What cortex covers most of the cortical surface?

A

neocortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which cortex is the most primitive?

A

archicortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What cortex has 3 laminae?

A

archicortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What cortex has 6 laminae?

A

neocortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What cortex has 4 laminae?

A

paleocortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are stellate cells important for?

A

local circuit processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do pyramidal cells do?

A

provide output axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cells above and below each other perpendicular to the pial surface have ___ functional properties.

A

common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What layer do thalamic inputs go to?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where does layer 2 project to?

A

other cortical areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where does layer 3 project to?

A

opposite hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does layer 5 project to?

A

subcortical structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where does layer 6 project to?

A

feedback to thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Brodmann’s cytoarchetectonics based on?

A

histological variation in thickness and cell density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an association cortex?

A

areas that can’t be defined with a simple motor or sensory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are association fiber bundles?

A

connect cells within the same hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the superior longitudinal fasciculus connect?

A

fronto - parieto - occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the uncinate fasciculus connect?

A

temporo-frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the inferior longitudinal fasciculus connect?

A

occipito-temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What fibers connect one hemisphere to another?

A

commissural fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the major commissural fiber?

A

corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the anterior commissure connect?

A

opposite temporal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the posterior commissure connect?

A

opposite pretectal areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What fibers connect different areas of the brain?

A

projection bundles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the largest projection bundle?

A

internal capsule(thalamus-cortex cortex-thalamus cortex-brainstem/spinal cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the fornix connect?

A

hippocampus to mammilary body in the diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the hippocampus do?

A

transfer memory to long term storagespatial orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which lobe is the hippocampus in?

A

medial temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What kind of cortex is the hippocampus?

A

archicortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where is the diencephalon?

A

between brainstem and telencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the thalamus do?

A

takes inputs to the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What input that goes to the cortex bypasses the thalamus?

A

olfactory input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What bounds the thalamus laterally?

A

internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two halves of the thalamus separated by?

A

3rd ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where does the thalamic lateral geniculate nucleus project to?

A

visual cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where does the medial geniculate nucleus project to?

A

auditory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where does the thalamic ventral-posterior nuclei project to?

A

somato-sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where does the thalamic ventral anterior-ventral lateral nuclei project to?

A

premotor and motor cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where does the thalamic anterior nucleus project to?

A

cingulate gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where does the thalamic mediodorsal nucleus project to?

A

frontal association cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where does the thalamic lateral posterior pulvinar nuclei project to?

A

parietaloccipitaltemporal association cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What property of thalamic nuclei provides the EEF oscillating circuit?

A

each thalamic nuclei receives feedback from the same cortical area it projects to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What do reticular nuclei contain?

A

inhibitory interneurons that adjust thalamic signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where is CNII?

A

ventral diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where is CNIII

A

ventral midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is CN IV?

A

dorsal midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where is CN V?

A

over ventrolateral pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where is CN VI?

A

ventral medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where is CN VII?

A

lateroventral medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where is CN VIII?

A

lateral medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where is CN IX?

A

lateral medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where is CN X?

A

lateral medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where is CN XI?

A

lateral surface of cervical spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where is CN XII?

A

ventral caudal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the nuclei for CNI?

A

anterior olfactory nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the nuclei for CN II?

A

lateral geniculate nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the nucleus for CN III?

A

oculomotor nucleusedinger-westphal nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the nuclei for CN IV?

A

trochlear nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the nuclei for CN V?

A

principal sensory trigeminal nucleusspinal trigeminal nucleusmesencephalc trigeminal nucleustrigeminal motor nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the nuclei for CN VI?

A

abducens nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the 3 nuclei for CN VII?

A

facial nucleussolitary nucleussuperior salivary nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the nuclei for CN VIII?

A

vestibular nucleicochlear nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the 3 nuclei for CN IX?

A

nucleus ambiguusinferior salivary nucleussolitary nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the 3 nuclei for CN X?

A

nucleus ambiguusdorsal motor vagal nucleussolitary nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the nucleus for CN XI?

A

nucleus ambiguusspinal accessory nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the nucleus for CN XII?

A

hypoglossal nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which is the CNV nuclei?

A

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which is the CN III nuclei?

A

top yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which is the CN IV nuclei?

A

yellow second from the top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which is the CN VI nuclei?

A

yellow in middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which is the CN X nuclei?

A

purple at bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which is the Edinger-Westphal nuclei?

A

purple at top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which is the CNVIII nuclei?

A

green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which is the nucleus solitarius?

A

blue at bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In the neural tube, alar (dorsal) plate cells give rise to ___ neurons.

A

sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In the neural tube, basal palte cells (ventral) give rise to ___ neurons.

A

motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

CN nuclei are located from medial to lateral relative to functional role:

A

somatic motorvisceral motorbranchial motorvisceral sensorygeneral somatic sensoryspecial somatic sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which CN nuclei are somatic motor?

A

oculomotortrochlearabducenshypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which CN nuclei are branchial motor?

A

trigeminal motorfacialnucleus ambiguusspinal accessory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which CN nuclei are visceral motor?

A

edinger-westphalsuperior/inferior salivatorydorsal motor nucleus of vagusnucleus ambiguus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which CN nuclei are general sensory?

A

mesencephalicprincipalspinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which CN nuclei are special sensory?

A

vestibularcochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which CN nuclei is visceral sensory?

A

nucleus of the solitary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which CN are only sensory?

A

IIIVIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which CN are only motor?

A

IIIIVVIXIXII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does CNI do?

A

sense of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does CNII do?

A

vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does CNIII do?

A

eye movementspapillary constriction and accommodationmuscles of eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does CNIV do?

A

eye movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What does CNV do?

A

somatic sensation fromf ace, mouth, cornea, mastication muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What does CNVI do?

A

eye movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What does CNVII do?

A

controls facial expressiontaste from anterior tonguelacrimal and salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What does CN VIII do?

A

hearingsense of balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What does CN IX do?

A

sensation from pharynxtaste from posterior tonguecarotid baroreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does CN X do?

A

autonomic functions of gutsensation from pharynxmuscles of vocal cordsswallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What does CN XI do?

A

shoulder and neck muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does CNXII do?

A

movements of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the clinical test for CNI?

A

test smell with standard odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the clinical test for CNII?

A

measure acuity and integrity of visual field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the clinical test for CNIII?

A

test eye movementlook for ptosispupillary dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the clinical test for CNIV?

A

can’t look down when eye abducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the clinical test for CNV?

A

test sensation on facepalpate masseter muscles and temporal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the clinical test for CNVI?

A

can’t look laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the clinical test for CNVII?

A

Test facial expression plus taste on anterior tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the clinical test for CNVIII?

A

test audition with tuning forkvestibular function with caloric test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the clinical test for CNIX?

A

test swallowingpharyngeal gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the clinical test for CNX

A

test swallowingpharyngeal gag reflexhoarseness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the clinical test for CNXI?

A

test sternocleidomastoid and trapezius M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the clinical test for CNXII?

A

test deviation of tongue during protrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the prominent CN nuclei at the caudal medulla?

A

spinal nucleus of CNV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What neurologic symptoms does lesion to nucleus ambiguous present?

A

difficult swallowinghoarse voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What nuclei are present at the rostral medulla?

A

cochlearmedial and lateral vestibularsolitary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What two prominent motor nuclei are at the caudal pons?

A

abducensfacial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What CN nuclei is present at the middle pons?

A

CN V motor and sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What CN nuclei are present at the midbrain level?

A

trochlearoculomotorEdinger-Westphal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Where do mechanoreceptors go after entering the spinal cord?

A

layer 4 interneurons -> local reflexipsilateral dorsal column to ascend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What structure do DCL second order axons rise in?

A

medial lemniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What 3sensations are transmitted via DCL?

A

touchpressureproprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

DCL has ___ lateral inhibition.

A

strong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

In the dorsal column, lower limb sensations rise medial/lateral.

A

medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What vertebral level is the dorsal nucleus of Clarke?

A

thoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Where do dorsal nuclei of Clark neurons go?

A

ipsilaterally to the cerebellum via the dorsal spinocerebellar tract to inferior cerebellar peduncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What does the cuneate fasciculus carry?

A

DCL from arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Where do DCL axons first synapse?

A

dorsal column nuclei at caudal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What DCL fibers decussate at the caudal medulla level?

A

arcuate fibers to the medial lemniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

At the medulla level medial lemiscus carries mechanoceptive information from which side of the body?

A

contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

At the level of the pons, what does the medial lemniscus arm/feet orientation look like?

A

feet lateralarm medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

How does mechanoreceptor sensation frmo the head enter the brain?

A

trigeminal ganglion to ponssynapse in principal nucleus of trigeminal complexcross over to join medial lemniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Where is the second DCL synpase?

A

caudal thalamus at ventral posterior nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Where do DCL axons go after the thalamus?

A

posterior limb of the internal capsule to post-central gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are the 3 main Brodman’s areas in the post-central gyrus?

A

3a - muscle proprioceptors3b - skin1 - rapid receptors2 - deep tissue mechanoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Sacral axons enter the anterolateral tract at this position.

A

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What 2 receptors enter the dorsal horn and ascend or descend a level?

A

nociceptorsthermoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Where is the first ALS synapse?

A

dorsal horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

How does head nociception enter the ALS?

A

enter at ponstravel to caudal medulla ins pinal trigeminal tractsynapse and cross over to contralateral ALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

C fibers compose what part of the ALS?

A

paleospinothalamicdeep, aching, poorly localized pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What fibers make up the neospinothalamic ALS?

A

A delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What part of the brain processes the emotional aspect of pain?

A

anterior cingulate gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What does the spinoreticular pathway do?

A

ALS component that ends in brainstem reticular centers to mediate reflex response to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What nucleus provides analgesia?

A

periaqueductal grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Descending pathway for analgesia starts at the PAG and goes to?

A

nucleus raphe in the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What does nucleus raphe magnus do?

A

via dorsolateral fasciculussynapse at dorsal horn to activate enkephalin interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the major projection pathway from M1?

A

corticospinal (pyramidal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

pyramidal axon breakdown:% from M1% rostral to M1_% from S1

A

303040

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

How do the pyramidal tract axons reach the thalamus?

A

posterior limb of internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

How does the corticospinal tract go through the midbrain?

A

middle 1/3 of the cerebral peduncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What tract innervates the cranial motor nuclei?

A

corticobulbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Where is the red nuclei?

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

The red nuclei receives synaptic input from M1 and gives rise to __?

A

rubrospinal projections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Most red nuclei axons end __.

A

cervical levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Most corticospinal axons synapse at __.

A

Rexed’s layer interneurons (VI - VIII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Corticospinal axons usually __ flexors.

A

facilitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is the orientation of CST axons in the internal capsule from anterior to posterior?

A

face arm trunk leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What % of CST axons decussate at the medulla?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What do rubrospinal neurons regulate?

A

rate of force developmentspeed of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Where does somatosensory feedback to M1 neurons come from?

A

S1 cortex and ventral posterolateral nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What do lesions to SMA cause?

A

basal ganglia input lackingcan’t use both hands together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What atrophies in Pick’s disease?

A

frontotemporal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What degenerates in ALS?

A

alpha motorneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

List 3 symptoms of upper motor neuron injury:

A

weaknesshyperactive deep reflexBabinski’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

List 3 symptoms of lower motor neuron injury:

A

paralysisdecreased superficial and deep reflexsevere muscle atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Define spasticity:

A

increased tone and stretch reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What motor neurons does the reticulospinal tracts affect?

A

gammaextensor inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What function does the medullary reticular formation have?

A

inhibit extensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What function does the pontine reticular formation have?

A

facilitates extensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What causes spastic paralysis in upper motor neuron lesions?

A

extensor facilitationhigh gamme motor neuron input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

In spasticity, resistance is greatest for what muscles?

A

antigravity muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is Babinski’s sign?

A

After a strong stroke to the plantar surface of the foot, dorsiflexing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Where do rubrospinal axons originate?

A

red nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Where does the reticulospinal pathway originate?

A

reticular formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Where does the tectospinal pathway originate?

A

superior colliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What does the vestibule detect?

A

linear accelerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What do the semicircular canals detect?

A

angular acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What determines hair cell depolarization?

A

stereocilia bending towards kinocilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

How are semicircular canals stimulated?

A

hair cells in the ampulla are bent by fluid movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

In the utricle, kinocilia are directed __ the striola.

A

towards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

In the saccula, kinocilia are directed __ the striola.

A

away from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Which otolith organ senses horizontal movement?

A

utricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Which otolith organ senses vertical movement?

A

saccule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What are the CaCO3 crystals in the otolithic membrane?

A

otoconia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What does the lateral vestibulospinal tract do?

A

changes muscle tone in response to gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What does the medial vestibulospinal tract do?

A

gaze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Where does the lateral vestibulospinal tract receive input from?

A

utricle and saccule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Where does the medial vestibulospinal tract receive input frmo?

A

semicircular canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Where does the medial vestibulospinal tract end?

A

cervical muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Where does the lateral vestibulospinal tract end?

A

postural muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What causes Meniere’s disease?

A

liquid accumulation in inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What are the mini-gyri on the cerebellum called?

A

folia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What structure makes up the midline of the cerebellum?

A

vermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What are the two major fissures of the cerebellum?

A

primarydorsal posterolateral groove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What is the deep groove on the inferior cerebellum?

A

vallecular cerebelli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is the largest lobe of the cerebellum?

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What does the superior cerebellar peduncle contain?

A

cerebellar efferents to brainstem (especially red nucleus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Where do contralateral pontine axons enter the cerebellum?

A

middle cerebellar peduncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What does the inferior cerebellar peduncle contain?

A

cerebellar afferents from the spinal cord and lower brain stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Name the deep cerebellar nuclei from lateral to medial:

A

dentateemboliform (interposed)globose (interposed)fastigial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Where does the fastigial nucleus receive inputs from?

A

vermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Where does the interposed nuclei receive inputs from?

A

paravermal zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Where does the dentate nucleus receive inputs from?

A

cerebellar hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

List the parts of the vestibulocerebellar strip.

A

cortex of the vermisflocculonodular lobefastigial nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

List the parts of the spinocerebellar strip.

A

paravermal cortexassociated interposed nucleus

202
Q

List the parts of the pontocerebellar cortex.

A

cortex of hemisphereslateral stripdentate nucleus

203
Q

What nuclei goes to the vestibulocerebellum?

A

vestibular nuclei

204
Q

What nerve goes to the spinocerebellum?

A

trigeminal cranial nerve

205
Q

What does the vestibulocerebellum control?

A

posturebalance

206
Q

What does the spinocerebellum control?

A

movement errors

207
Q

What does the pontocerebellum control?

A

limb and hand movements

208
Q

What layer of the cerebellar cortex is the source of all efferents?

A

purkinje cell layer

209
Q

What fibers send input to the granular layers?

A

mossy

210
Q

Which cerebellar layer receives input from the inferior olivary complex?

A

Purinkje layer

211
Q

What cells do mossy fibers synapse on?

A

glomeruli

212
Q

What cells in the cerebellar cortex send excitatory signals?

A

granule

213
Q

What cells inhibit the purkinje cells?

A

basket and stellate cells in the molecular layer

214
Q

What do Golgi cells do?

A

suppress the excitation of granule cells

215
Q

What is cerebellar spatial focus?

A

lateral inhibition of Purkinje cells by basket cells

216
Q

What is cerebellar phasic quality?

A

inhibition by stellate cells of recently activated Purkinje cells

217
Q

What is cerebellar temporal resolution?

A

granule cell inhibition by Golgi cells

218
Q

Purkinje cells can remember that thye have been excited by __.

A

climbing fibers from the inferior olivary nucleus

219
Q

What NTS do Purkinje cells use?

A

GABA

220
Q

Where do all cerebellar inputs converge?

A

at the cortexaxons usually give off collaterals to deep cerebellar nuclei on the way

221
Q

What do deep cerebellar nuclei compare?

A

cortial outputs and cerebellar inputs

222
Q

Are cerebellar signals homo or contralateral?

A

homo

223
Q

What nuclei does the flocculonodular lobe receive inputs from?

A

vestibular nucleivestibular ganglion

224
Q

What tracts directly provide input to the spinocerebellum?

A

dorsal and venrtal spinocerebellum

225
Q

What nuclei sends axons into the dorsal spinocerebellar tract?

A

Clark’s nucleus (dorsalis)

226
Q

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract enters the cerebellum via?

A

inferior cerebellar peduncles as mossy fibers

227
Q

External cuneate nucleus axons travel through what tract?

A

cuneocerebellar tract

228
Q

What is the upper limb equivalent of dorsal nucleus of Clark?

A

external cuneate nucleus

229
Q

What tract does the trigeminocerebellar tract enter the cerebelum through?

A

inferior cerebellar peduncle

230
Q

What tract does the tecctocerebellar tract pass through?

A

superior cerebellar peduncle

231
Q

Pontine nuclei relay signals to the cerebellum from where?

A

ipsilateral cerebral cortex

232
Q

Where do fastigial nuclei send outputs to?

A

vestibular and reticular nuclei

233
Q

Where do interposed and dentate nuclei send axons?

A

contralateral red nucleus and thalamus

234
Q

Which peduncle decussates in the brainstem?

A

superior

235
Q

What does the superior cerebellar A supply?

A

cortex and white matterdeep cerebellar nuclei

236
Q

Where does AICA supply?

A

ventral cerebellum and dentate nucleus

237
Q

Where does PICA supply?

A

inferior cerebellumchoroid plexus of 4th ventricle

238
Q

What is caudal vermis lesion that causes unsteadingess and swaying (drunken sailor’s gait)?

A

postural ataxia

239
Q

What is lesions of the anterior lobe causing an antero-posterior sway?

A

body sway

240
Q

What is lateral lesions invovling the pontocerebellum that causes poor motor programming?

A

limb ataxia

241
Q

What is bilateral cerebellar lesions involving the dentate nucleus causing sequential movements?

A

dysdiadochokinesia

242
Q

What does cerebellar nystagmus cause?

A

periodic alternating nystagmus caused by nodulus lesions

243
Q

What causes loss of visual pursuit?

A

flocculus lesions

244
Q

What is the midbrain-pons junction called?

A

isthmus

245
Q

What is a chronic autoimmune disease characterized by AChR destruction

A

Myasthenia Gravis

246
Q

What is the major excitatory neurotransmitter?

A

glutamate

247
Q

What %age of CNS neurons use glutamate?

A

50%

248
Q

What does glutamate overload cause?

A

excitotoxicityALSstrokedrug abuseepilepsy

249
Q

What %age of CNS neurons release GABA?

A

33%

250
Q

What NTS causes smooth muscle contraction?

A

5HT

251
Q

What aa is 5HT produced from?

A

W

252
Q

What is the principal nuclei for 5HT?

A

raphe nuclei

253
Q

What is the main NTS involved with movement?

A

dopamine

254
Q

What aa is dopamine synthesized from?

A

Y

255
Q

What is the main nuclei involved in dopamine?

A

substantia nigra

256
Q

What is the principal center for noradrenergic neurons?

A

locus coeruleuscaudal raphe nuclei

257
Q

NE/Epi, which comes first?

A

NE

258
Q

What 5 components does the basal ganglia include?

A

caudateputamenglobus pallidussubthelamic nucleussubstantia nigra

259
Q

What 2 components does the striatum include?

A

caudateputamen

260
Q

What are the 3 major afferents to the striatum?

A

dopaminergic from substantia nigraglutamatergic from cortexglutamatergic from intralaminar thalamic nuclei

261
Q

What are the 3 major efferents from the striatal medium spiny neurons?

A

globus pallidus internalglobus pallidus externalreticular substantia nigra

262
Q

What do GPi/e neurons secrete?

A

GABA

263
Q

Where do GPe efferents project?

A

subthalamic nuclei

264
Q

Where do GPi and SNpr efferents project?

A

VA VL thalamic nuclei

265
Q

Which basal ganglia neurons are tonically active?

A

GPi/SNpr GABA neurons

266
Q

What brain regions tonically inhibit the VA VL thalamic neurons?

A

GPiSNpr

267
Q

Describe the direct pathway in basal ganglia signaling.

A

substantia nigra pars compacta (dopamine)+ cerebral cortex (glutamate)increase caudate/putamendecrease globus pallidus internalincrease VA VLincrease frontal cortex

268
Q

Describe the indirect pathway of basal ganglia signaling.

A

substantia nigra pars compacta (dopamine)+ cerebral cortex (glutamate)increase caudate/putamendecrease globus pallidus externalincrease subthalamic nucleiincrease globus pallidus internaldecrease VA/VLdecrease cortex

269
Q

The basal ganglia direct pathway outputs to ___ functional units.

A

specific(indirect is broad)

270
Q

What parts of the cerebral cortex do not innervate the basal ganglia?

A

visual and auditory

271
Q

How does Parkinson’s affect basal ganglia signaling?

A

decreased substantia nigra signaling to decrease excitation

272
Q

What does Huntington’s degenerate?

A

spiny striatal neurons in the indirect striatopalidal pathway

273
Q

How does Huntington’s affect basal ganglia signaling?

A

caudate/putamen inhibition of the globus pallidus external is lost and excitation of the cortex is increased

274
Q

What does pitch correspond to?

A

frequency

275
Q

What does loudness correspond to?

A

amplitude

276
Q

What is the equation for sound pressure levels?

A

dB = 20 * log (P_measured/P_reference)

277
Q

What does decibels measure?

A

sound energy

278
Q

Loudness doubles for every _ dB increase in energy.

A

10 dB

279
Q

What structures make up the outer ear?

A

concha (pinna or auricle)

280
Q

What part of the ear canal is susceptible to pain?

A

innermost bony canal

281
Q

The pinna emphasizes sound pressure of what freq?

A

2 kHz

282
Q

What are the two ways the middle ear concentrates sound pressure in air to the cochlear fluids?

A

ear drum area is 18x of the stapes footplatemiddle ear ossicles act as a lever system

283
Q

How much energy do you end up losing in the air to cochlear fluid transition?

A

50%

284
Q

What part of the ear is most susceptible to ear infections?

A

middle ear cavity

285
Q

What drains the middle ear cavity?

A

eustachian tube

286
Q

Why are the floor bones of the middle ear cavity pneumatized?

A

increase cavity volume to enhance low frequency sounds

287
Q

What attaches the malleus to the eardrum?

A

manubrium

288
Q

What holds the stapes in place?

A

annular ligament of the oval window

289
Q

What does the tensor tympani do?

A

Attaches to the malleus and cavity wall to pull the eardrum in

290
Q

What does the stapedius do?

A

Attaches to stapes and cavity wall to rotate the stapes and stiffen the ossicles so low frequency sounds are not transferred

291
Q

What A/V combo runs near the middle ear cavity?

A

internal carotid Ainternal jugular V

292
Q

Where does the eustachian tube go?

A

middle ear cavity to back of nasopharynx

293
Q

What 2 parts of the cochlea are filled with perilymph?

A

scala vestibuli and tympani

294
Q

What part of the cochlea is filled with endolymph?

A

scala media

295
Q

Where does sound energy input into the cochlea?

A

oval window (part of scala vestibuli)

296
Q

What connects the scala vestibuli and tympani?

A

helicotrema

297
Q

Where does sound energy exit the cochlea?

A

via scala tympani - round window

298
Q

What is the composition of perilymph?

A

ECF-likehigh Nalow K0 mV

299
Q

What is the composition of endolymph?

A

ICF-likehigh Klow Na+80 mV

300
Q

How is endolymph composition maintained?

A

active transport by stria vascularis

301
Q

What drugs can be ototoxic due to their effect on the stria vascularis?

A

aminoglycoside antibioticsdiuretics

302
Q

Hair cells lie on what border?

A

scala media and tympanicochlear duct

303
Q

Which hair cells are closer to the internal auditory meatus?

A

inner

304
Q

Which hair cells are covered with afferents?

A

inner hair cells

305
Q

Which hair cells are covered with efferents?

A

outer hair cells

306
Q

How many rows of inner/outer hair cells?

A

3-Jan

307
Q

Where do the stereocilia of the hair cells lie?

A

in the scala media (endolymph)

308
Q

What cels are responsible for transduction of basilar membrane vibrations?

A

inner hair cells

309
Q

What ion enters inner hair cells to cause signal tranduction?

A

K

310
Q

What intracellular inner hair cell ion changes in response to signal transduction?

A

Ca

311
Q

What produces pitch perception at low frequencies?

A

place (basilar membrane)timing (periodicity pitch)

312
Q

Each inner hair cell is innervated by how many auditory nerves?

A

20

313
Q

What is the afferent fiber response to tone burst?

A

rapid adaptation to steady state

314
Q

Define characteristic frequency:

A

Each auditory nerve fiber is tuned to a best frequency

315
Q

How does auditory two tone suppression work?

A

biomechanical changes in cochlear duct to sharpen the acoustic response

316
Q

What do the outer hair cells do?

A

receive CNS efferents to modify cochlear tuning (stiffness)

317
Q

Each contralateral brainstem efferent can innervate __ outer hair cells.

A

20

318
Q

Where do outer hair cell efferents originate?

A

contralateral medial superior olivary nuclei

319
Q

The traveling wave of vibration traves frmo the __ to the __ of the cochlea.

A

base to apex

320
Q

The base receives what type of frequencies?

A

high

321
Q

What part of the basilar membrane receives low frequency waves?

A

apex

322
Q

What does the weber test tell you?

A

separatesconduction deafness frmo sensorineural deafness

323
Q

What can cause hearing conductive loss?

A

plugged outer earinfected middle earperforated ear drumdisarticulated ossicular chainotosclreosis

324
Q

What side do ascending auditory pathways take?

A

contralateral

325
Q

Where is the first complex where inputs from both ears converge?

A

superior olivary complex

326
Q

What nerves does the medial SOC receive?

A

crossed efferents to outer hair cells

327
Q

What nerves does the lateral SOC receive?

A

uncrossed efferents to the inner hair cells

328
Q

What nerves does the labyrinthine A run with?

A

7 and 8

329
Q

The facial nerve runs along the medal middle ear cavity to emerge at what foramen?

A

stylomastoid

330
Q

The inferior colliculus is the brainstem equivalent to what?

A

auditory cortex

331
Q

What part of the thalamus projects to the auditory cortex?

A

medial geniculate body

332
Q

What fissure contains the auditory cortex?

A

sylvian fissure

333
Q

What causes presbycusis?

A

stria (cochlear power supply) atrophy

334
Q

Axons from olfactory receptors project directly to __.

A

olfactory bulb

335
Q

What is unique about olfactory receptors

A

regenerate from basal neuroblasts

336
Q

What part of the olfactory neuron has to be stimulated by odorants?

A

cilia

337
Q

What controls olfactory neuron depolarization amount?

A

odorant concentration

338
Q

What do olfactory binding proteins do?

A

bind to and help transport odorants from air to cilia

339
Q

What downstream signaling is activated by odorant binding?

A

GPCR -> cAMP -> Na channels

340
Q

What cells do olfactory afferents first synapse on?

A

mitral cells

341
Q

What cells do olfactory neurons synapse on second?

A

olfactory areas of temporal and frontal lobes

342
Q

What do periglomerular interneurons do?

A

lateral inhibition of odor

343
Q

What part of the temporal lobe do olfactory tracts go to?

A

ventromedial surface

344
Q

What makes up the primary olfactory area?

A

limen insulaeentorhinal areauncus

345
Q

The activity in one olfactory bulb affects the contralateral bulb through what?

A

anterior commissure

346
Q

What does the lateral posterior quadrant of the orbitofrontal lobe control?

A

odor recognition

347
Q

What tract goes b/w entorhinal area of temporal lobe to lateral posterior quadrant of the orbitofrontal lobe?

A

uncinate fasciculus

348
Q

What is loss of smell called?

A

anosmia

349
Q

What neural tissue is the pituitary gland attached to?

A

hypothalamus

350
Q

What do medial hypothalamic nuclei control?

A

pituitary secretions

351
Q

The lateral hypothalamic area makes up what neural structure?

A

medifal forebrain bundle

352
Q

The median forebrain bundle connects the basal forebrain with __.

A

reticular formation of the midbrain tegmentum

353
Q

What does the stria terminalis connect?

A

amyygdala and medial preoptic area

354
Q

What connects the amygdala with the lateral hypothalamus?

A

ventral amygdalofugal pathway

355
Q

Where does the mammillothalamic tract go?

A

hypothalamus

356
Q

What does the stria medullaris connect?

A

lateral preoptic and hypothalamus to habenular nuclei

357
Q

What output goes from the hypothalamus to the paramedian tegmentum?

A

mammillotegmental tract

358
Q

What 2 important structures are in the rostral hypothalamus?

A

preoptic areasuprachiasmatic nucleus

359
Q

What does the preoptic area secrete?

A

regulators of gonadotrophin secretion by anterior pituitary

360
Q

What does the suprachiasmatic nucleus do?

A

input frmo retinal axons

361
Q

What part of the brain controls the circadian clock?

A

suprachiasmatic nuclei

362
Q

What part of the brain controls heat response?

A

anterior hypothalamus

363
Q

What part of the brain controls cold response?

A

posterior hypothalamus

364
Q

What are the two magnocellular secretory nuclei?

A

paraventricular and supraoptic

365
Q

Where do PVN axons end?

A

posterior pituitary capillaries

366
Q

PVN and SON secrete what 2 molecules?

A

oxytocinvasopressin

367
Q

Which part of the pituitary secreted regulatory peptides into a capillary plexus?

A

anterior

368
Q

What 2 important structures are found in the mid caudal hypothalamus?

A

ventromedial/lateral nucleiPVN and SON

369
Q

Destroying the ventromedial hypothalamus causes __.

A

obesity

370
Q

Destryoing the lateral hypothalamus causes __.

A

starvation

371
Q

What are short term cues for feeding?

A

glc levels that regulate meal size

372
Q

What are long term cues for feeding?

A

regulate overall body weight through leptin (adipocytes)

373
Q

Leptin and insulin affect what part of the brain?

A

ARC

374
Q

list the 4 orexigenic peptides:

A

ghrelinneuropeptide YAgRPorexin A and B

375
Q

List the 8 anorexigeneic peptides:

A

leptinCCKinsulincytokinespeptide YYamylinPomCCART

376
Q

Is POMC orexigenic or anorexigenic?

A

anorexigenic

377
Q

Is ghrelin orexigenic or anorexigenic?

A

orexigenic

378
Q

How do orexigenic peptides affect feeding?

A

increase

379
Q

What important structures are in the caudal hypothalamus?

A

mammillary bodies

380
Q

What connects the cingulate gyrus with the hippocampus?

A

cingulum bundle

381
Q

How does histamine affect the brain?

A

promotes behavioral arousal

382
Q

What is a common way the hypothalamus is damaged?

A

dorsal expansion of a pituitary tumor

383
Q

What part of the tongue is most sensitive to sweet?

A

tip

384
Q

What part of the tongue is most sensitive to bitter?

A

rear

385
Q

What part of the tongue is most sensitive to salt and sour?

A

lateral surface

386
Q

Other than the tongue, what 4 other places are taste buds found?

A

palategingiviasoft palatepharynx

387
Q

What CN provides afferents to the anterior tongue?

A

VII

388
Q

What CN provides afferents for the posterior tongue?

A

IX

389
Q

What CN provides afferents for the epiglottis?

A

X

390
Q

What taste buds are found anteriorly?

A

fungiform

391
Q

What taste buds are found posteriorly?

A

circumvillate/foliate

392
Q

Are taste buds selective?

A

no

393
Q

Are olfactory receptors selective?

A

yes

394
Q

What molecule entering the cell induces taste transduction?

A

K

395
Q

What tastes are transduced via GPCR?

A

sweet, aa, bitter

396
Q

What tastes are transduced via ion channel?

A

saltsour

397
Q

What nuclei recevies taste afferents?

A

solitary

398
Q

What part of the solitary nucleus receives taste afferents?

A

rostral

399
Q

What 3 locations do axons from the rostral solitary nucleus go?

A

local connections to brainstem reticular formationparvicellular portion of the ventral posteromedial nucleus of thalamus (VPMpc)parabrachial nucleus of midbrain

400
Q

What CN rech the caudal solitary nucleus?

A

IX and X

401
Q

What nucleus relates to the conscious perception of taste?

A

ventral posteromedial nucleus (VPMpc)

402
Q

What nucleus relates to the affective and behavioral response to taste?

A

parabrachial nucleus of midbrain

403
Q

What are the 3 eyeball ayers from out to in?

A

fibrous layeruvearetina

404
Q

What composes the fibrous layer of the eyeball?

A

schleracornea

405
Q

What makes up the uvea of the eyeball?

A

choroidciliary bodyiris

406
Q

Which eyeball chamber is between the cornea and iris?

A

anterior

407
Q

What spaces is b/w the iris and lens?

A

posterior chamber

408
Q

What makes up the vitreous chamber of the eyeball?

A

b/w lens and retina

409
Q

What produces aqueous humor?

A

ciliary body

410
Q

What drain aqueous fluid from the anterior eyeball chamber?

A

Schlemm canals

411
Q

What causes glaucoma?

A

impeded outflow from the anterior chamber of the eyeball

412
Q

Is the viterous humor replaced?

A

no, it is stagnant

413
Q

What is the eyeball space called where axons leave to form the optic nerve

A

optic disc

414
Q

The optic N sheath is continuous with __ space of the brain

A

subarachnoid

415
Q

Where is the fovea centralis?

A

optical center of eye

416
Q

What part of the eyeball has the most acute vision?

A

fovea centralis

417
Q

What is the refractive power of the eye?

A

60-72 diopters

418
Q

At what part of the eye is the greatest amount of refraction?

A

air to cornea

419
Q

As objects move closer to the eye, the lens increases its power. This process is called __.

A

accommodation

420
Q

Accommodation requires what muscle?

A

ciliary M

421
Q

What is the most common visual defect?

A

loss of accommodation

422
Q

What is the loss of near vision called?

A

presbyopia

423
Q

What is emmetropia?

A

normal vision

424
Q

What is hypermetropia?

A

farsightedness (near objects are blurry because the eye has too little power or is too short)

425
Q

What is myopia?

A

nearsightedness (distant objects are blurry because the eye has too much power or is too long)

426
Q

What is an astigmatism?

A

power of eye is not the same for all axes

427
Q

What is the first layer of the retina that light passes?

A

nerve fiber layer

428
Q

What is the last retina layer that light hits?

A

photoreceptor

429
Q

What photoreceptors see colors?

A

cones

430
Q

What photoreceptors see dim light?

A

rods

431
Q

What are the two layers of synaptic transmission in the retina?

A

outer and inner plexiform

432
Q

What cells synapse at the outer plexiform layer of the retina?

A

photoreceptors with bipolar and horizontal cells

433
Q

What cells synapse at the inner plexiform layer?

A

bipolar cells with ganglion and amacrine cells

434
Q

What retinal cells use action potentials?

A

amacrineganglion

435
Q

What is the light sensitive molecule in photorecptors?

A

retinal

436
Q

What is the key event for visual transduction?

A

11-cis-retinal absorbs photon and isomerizes to all-trans form

437
Q

What part of the retina have cones?

A

fovea

438
Q

What is the purpose of having 3 types of cone cells?

A

each absorbs a different wavelength of light

439
Q

What is wrong with dichromats?

A

missing one whole group of photopigment

440
Q

Which sex is more likely to be dichromat?

A

male

441
Q

How much does the pupil diameter change to adjust light entry by 16 fold?

A

2-8 mm

442
Q

How many rod cells converge on each bipolar cell?

A

many

443
Q

How many cones converge on a cone cell?

A

one

444
Q

What do horizontal cells do?

A

emphasize response to contrast in the visual scene

445
Q

What do amacrine cells do?

A

emphasize response to movement

446
Q

The visual field extends __ degrees nasally

A

60

447
Q

The visual field extends __ degrees temporally

A

100

448
Q

The visual field extends __ degrees above

A

60

449
Q

The visual field extends __ degrees below

A

75

450
Q

The macula corresponds to central __ degrees

A

13

451
Q

The fovea corresponds to the central __ degrees

A

3

452
Q

fibers from the __ half of the retina cross at the chiasm

A

nasal

453
Q

The left optic tract comes from what part of the retina?

A

left half of each retina (R visual field)

454
Q

The R half of the CNS receives activity from the __ visual field

A

L

455
Q

Axons from the ipsilateral retina project to what layers of the LGN?

A

2 3 5

456
Q

Axons from the contralateral retina project to what layers?

A

1 4 6

457
Q

Which LGN layers receive inputs from Y type ganglion cells?

A

magnocellular layers (1, 2)

458
Q

Which LGN layers receive inputs from X type ganglion cells?

A

parvicellular layer (3 - 6)

459
Q

How to go from LGN to occipital lobe?

A

LGN -> optic radiations -> retrolenticular part of internal capsule -> occipital lobe

460
Q

Axons from the peripheral retina end at what part of the visual cortex?

A

anterior

461
Q

Axons from the foveal retina end at what part of the visual cortex?

A

posterior

462
Q

Axons from the upper retinal field synapse at what part of the visual cortex?

A

above calacrine fissure

463
Q

Axons from the lower retinal field synapse at what part of the visual cortex?`

A

below the calcarine fissure

464
Q

LGN input goes to what layer of the visual cortex?

A

layer 4

465
Q

What layer of the visual cortex sends axons back to LGN?

A

6

466
Q

What layer of the visual cortex goes to the superior colliculus?

A

5

467
Q

Where do layers 1 and 2 of the visual cortex go?

A

cortico-cortical connections

468
Q

What cells in the visual cortex respond to linear stimulus?

A

simple cells

469
Q

What does the dorsal stream communicate?

A

where pathwaymotion, representation of object locations, control of eye and arms

470
Q

What does the ventral stream communicate?

A

what pathwayform recognition and object representation

471
Q

What is stereopsis?

A

depth perception

472
Q

What are binocular depth cells stimulated by?

A

objects at different distances

473
Q

Loss ofaccommodationfor near vision with age is due to:

A

decrease in elasticity of crystalline lens

474
Q

Homonymous hemianopsia is caused by a lesion at

A

anterior portion of one optic tract

475
Q

Which ganglion cell is most responsible for pattern recognition and high visual acuity?

A

x cells

476
Q

Rods have a __ content of photopigment compared to cones

A

higher

477
Q

What photoreceptors work better in dim light?

A

rods

478
Q

After light hits photoreceptors, how does it get to optic N?

A

bipolar cells to ganglion cells

479
Q

Saccadic Movements are used for ______ types of movements

A

Fast Ballistic Movements (Target Location)

480
Q

This type of eye motion is used to track or follow a moving object

A

Smooth Pursuit Movements

481
Q

Latent Period for saccade (time) ? What occurs during this time

A

200 msec– computation of direction and distance for saccade

482
Q

Eye movement when both eyes move in same direction

A

Conjugate

483
Q

Eye movement when eyes move nasally

A

Convergence

484
Q

Eyes both move temporally

A

divergence

485
Q

These two movements are used to stabilize the eyes relative to external world thus compensating for head movements

A

vestibulo-ocular and optokinetic

486
Q

Reflex responses that prevent visual images from slipping as head position changes

A

vestibulo-optic and optokinetic

487
Q

CN III nucleus arises in ___________ and axons exit through _________

A

dorsomedial tegmentum (midbrain) —– interpeduncular fossa

488
Q

CN III remain ipsilateral or contralateral to innervate its four muscles

A

Ipsilateral

489
Q

CN IV originates in ______ and its axons exit ______

A

dorsomedial tegmentum (caudal midbrain) ———- caudal to inferior colliculus

490
Q

CN IV travels (ipsilateral or contralateral ) to innervate ______ muscle

A

Contralateral —— Superior Oblique

491
Q

CN VI nucleus is in ________ and its axons exit ________

A

dorsomedial tegmentum (pons) ——- pontomedullary junction

492
Q

CN VI run ipsilateral or contralateral ? Muscle it innervates?

A

ipsilateral —- lateral rectus

493
Q

Interconnect all of occulomotor nuclei

A

Medial Longitudinal Fasiculus

494
Q

CN III Palsy displays as :

A

affected eye moving down and outpupil is dilatedPtosis (levator Palpebrae not functioning)Diplopia (double vision)

495
Q

Causes of CN IIII Palsy

A

Diabetic NeuropathyHypertensionHead TraumaAneurysm

496
Q

CN IV Palsy Symptoms

A

Head tilted away from affected sideExtorsion of eye (difficult to see)

497
Q

CN VI Palsy Symptoms

A

Affected eye cannot abductSlight head tilt toward affected side

498
Q

Nerve fibers involved in gaze towards left side

A

(R) Superior Colliculus –Contralateral- PPRF (L) –IPSILATERAL– (L) Abducens Nuclei — (1) Ipsilateral to (L)Lateral Rectus/// (2) Contralateral (R) MLF to (R) Occulomotor Nuclei – R. Medial Rectus

499
Q

Lesion to R. abducens nerve– Effect on L/R gaze

A

Inability for R. eye to look rightLeft Gaze unaffected

500
Q

Lesion to R. Abducens Nucleus– L/R gaze effect?

A

Normal Gaze to LeftNeither eye is able to look to right

HR Block 6 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions