HTN-1 Flashcards

1
Q

Normal BP

A

<120/80 mmHg

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2
Q

Elevated BP

A

120-129 mmHg / ≤ 80 mmHG

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3
Q

Stage 1 Hypertension BP

A

≥ 130 mmHg systolic
OR
≥ 80 mmHf diastolic

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4
Q

Stage 2 Hypertension BP

A

≥ 140 mmHg systolic
OR
≥ 90 mmHg diastolic

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5
Q

Hypertensive Urgency / Emergency BP

A

≥ 180 mmHg systolic
OR
≥ 120 mmHg diastolic

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6
Q

What are the hypertension risk factors

A

Age
FH
Smoking
Obesity
Metabolic Syndrome
High alcohol intake
Diabetes
High sodium intake
Dyslipidemia

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7
Q

What are the two major processes that regulate BP

A

-baroreceptors and the sympathetic nervous system
-renin-angiotensin aldosterone system

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8
Q

Pathophysiology of decreased BP on alpha and beta receptors

A

decrease BP
decrease signal to brain
increase sympathetic nervous system
increase catecholamines

alpha increase peripheral resistance
beta effects heart

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9
Q

Pathophysiology of decreased BP in blood volume

A

decrease BP
decrease signal to kidneys
renin -> angio -> angio II vasoconstrictor
aldosterone increases sodium and water

results in higher blood volume

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10
Q

What are the secondary causes of hypertension

A

renal disease
Cushing’s disease
pheochromocytoma
pregnancy
sleep apnea
contraceptives
sympathomimetics
NSAIDs
steroids
SSRIs/SNRIs
cocaine
nicotine
amphetamines
licorice

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11
Q

What is the primary goal of treating hypertension

A

reduce morbidity and mortality by decreasing the risk of target organ damage

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12
Q

What are the best practices for checking BP

A

sit for 5 minutes
no caffeine
arm placement
correct cuff size
check both arms
feet flat on floor
not talking
clothing removed from where cuff placed

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13
Q

Higher CVD risk = more important to have a ______ goal and assure we get there ________

A

tighter
quickly

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14
Q

What is the CV risk for stage 1 hypertension and ASCVD or 10 year CVD risk ≥ 10%

A

high CV risk

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15
Q

What is the CV risk for stage 1 hypertension and no ASCVD and 10-year CVD risk < 10%

A

Low CV risk

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16
Q

What are the ASCVD risks

A

ACS (acute coronary syndrome) CAD (coronary artery syndrome)
PAD (peripheral artery disease)
TIA (transient ischemic attack)
Stroke
MI (myocardial infarction)
Angina (stable or unstable)
CABG or PCI/stent (coronary/arterial revascularization)

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17
Q

What calculation can you use for a patient between the ages of 40-79 to estimate risk of CV event in the next 10 years

A

American College of Cardiology Risk Calculator

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18
Q

If a patient is less than 40 and has 2 or more risk factors included in calculation (smoking, african american, HLD, DM) they are considered what kind of CV risk

A

High CV risk

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19
Q

If a patient has an elevated BP (120-129/<80) what is their recommendations

A

Start with nonpharmacologic therapy, reassess BP in 3-6 months

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20
Q

If a patient has stage 1 hypertension and a high CV risk what is their recommendation

A

-Start with nonpharmacologic and pharmacologic therapy
-Reassess BP in 1 month
-If at goal reassess 3-6 months
-Not at goal reassess for adherence and intensification of therapy

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21
Q

If a patient has stage 1 hypertension and a low CV risk what is their recommendation

A

-Start with nonpharmacologic therapy
-Reassess BP in 3-6 months
-Not at goal consider pharmacologic therapy

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22
Q

If a patient has stage 2 hypertension what is their recommendation

A

-Start with nonpharmacologic and pharmacologic therapy
-Reassess BP in 1 month
-At goal reassess 3-6 months
-Not at goal asses for adherence and consider intensification of therapy

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23
Q

Food considerations for improving BP

A

Na+ restriction
High-fiber and natural foods
Limit high saturated fats
Low-fat dairy products

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24
Q

Lifestyle consideration for improving BP

A

Exercise
Aerobic activity
Dynamic resistance
Isometric resistance
Moderate alcohol
Smoking cessation

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25
cardiac output times peripheral resistance equals
blood pressure
26
What two things effect cardiac output
cardiac (heart rate, heart contraction) volume control (renal renin-angiotension, aldosterone)
27
What two things effect peripheral resistance
sympathetic control (vasoconstrictor, vasodilator) humoral (catecholamines, prostagandins)
28
What part of the renal system is not permeable to water
distal convoluted tubule
29
What part of the renal system is not permeable to salt
thin descending tubule
30
Where are thiazide agents located
distal convoluted tubule
31
Where are loop diuretics located
thick ascending tubule
32
Where are potassium sparing agents located
collecting tubule
33
What are diuretics mechanism of action
decreases extracellular volume, enhancing sodium excretion in the urine, leading to a decrease in cardiac output
34
What is the most frequent used class of antihypertensive agents in the US
thiazide diuretics
35
Results of thiazide diuretics
high K+ secretion causing hypokalemic because K+ is not reabsorbed
36
What drug class do these belong to: hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril) chlorthalidone (hygroton) Indapamide Metolazone
thiazide diuretics
37
What is the GFR goal of kidneys
<30 ml/min
38
ACE and ARBs will ________ diuretic induced loss of K+
counteract
39
Hydrochlorothiazide primary and secondary site
primary: kidney secondary: vascular smooth muscle cells
40
What drug class do these belong to: furosemide (lasix) bumetanide (bumex) ethacrynic acid (edecrin) torsemide (demadex)
Loop diuretic (block Na/K/Cl
41
What diuretics is the highest capacity especially if renal function is not normal and has the highest capacity Na/Cl/K pump
loop diuretics (twice a day medications for hypertension, heart failure, and ascites)
42
Loop diuretics increase the urinary secretion of what ions
na cl ca mg K+
43
What drug class do these belong to: amiloride (midamor) triamterene (dyrenium)
potassium sparing channel blockers
44
What drug class do these belong to: spironolactone (aldactone) eplerenone (inspra)
potassium sparing receptor blockers
45
What class of diuretic can you not use with ACE and ARBs
potassium sparing
46
What is the function of potassium sparing channel blockers
block pore of the epithelial sodium channel (decrease volume, hyperkalemic)
47
What is the function of potassium sparing receptor blockers
steroid hormone produced by adrenal gland regulate Na+, K+, and acid/base balance in blood
48
Potassium sparing diuretics ________ transepithelial _____ transport
enhances NaCl
49
ACE inhibition
-BP is decreased due to decrease in blood volume, peripheral resistance and cardiac load -inhibit vasoconstriction and release of aldosterone which inhibits the retention of sodium and water
50
What does ACE inhibition do to bradykinin
increases it
51
What do all ACE inhibitors end in
"-pril"
52
What do ACE-I treat
chronic renal disease aldosterone (they tend to enhance the efficacy of diuretic drugs) young middle-aged Caucasians
53
Adverse effects of ACE-I
-rise in serum K+ -caution with K+-sparing diuretics, K+ supplements, NSAIDs, beta-blockers -bradykinin: dry cough, angioedema -dysgeusia -contradicted with pregnancy
54
ARBs do not inhibit ACE-mediated degradation of ___________
bradykinin
55
What do all AT1 receptor blockers end in
"-sartan"
56
What do AT1 and AT2 do
AT1: vascular, myocardial tissue, kidney, brain, and adrenal glomerulosa cells AT2: adrenal medulla, kidney, CNS
57
What are the three steps of AT1 receptor activation
Altered Peripheral Resistance (direct vasoconstriction, enhance sympathetic discharge) Altered Renal Function (increase Na+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule and distal tubule) Altered Cardiac Function (relax smooth muscle to promote vasodilation, increase salt and water secretion, reduce plasma volume decreasing cellular hypertrophy)
58
AT1 receptor blockers treatment
high angiotenstion II: volume depketion, renovascular hypertension, cardiac function, cirrhosis no bradykinin not effective in old, blacks, low-renin patients
59
Adverse effects of AT1 receptors
insignificant rise in serum K+ (hyperkalemia) contraindicated in pregnancy
60
Aliskiren hemifuramate (tekturna)
-inhibits the catalytic activity of renin producing Ang1, Ang2, aldosterone which decreases BP -systolic and diastolyic -monotherapy and combo therapy -contraindicated in pregnancy
61
When do you start two medicines for hypertension
>30 mmHg above systolic or >20 mmHg diastolic African American: >20mmHg above systolic or >10mmHG diastolic
62
What numbers of BP is a hypertension emergency
>180 systolic or >120 diastolic
63
What medicine to use for systolic heart failure (SHF/CHF)
ACE and beta blocker
64
What medicine to use for post-MI
ACE-I and beta blocker
65
What medicine to use for diabetes with albuminuria
ACE-I or ARB
66
What medicine to use for CKD with albuminuria
ACE-I or ARB
67
What medicine to use for stroke
ACE-I or ARB
68
If there are no compelling indications for hypertension what are the trifecta of choices to use
thiazide diuretics (-pine) ACE-I and ARBs Calcium Channel Blockers
69
If patients are over 60 or black what is the recommended medication class to use
thiazide or calcium channel blocker (beta blocker NOT recommended)
70
What do alpha blockers cause
orthostatic hypotension (important to titrate slow and start low)
71
Central alpha 2 agonists
Only for resistant hypertension or hypertensive emergency ADRs don't go away (adverse drug reaction) Avoid in HF Alcohol dependence ADHD ER formulation Methyldopa used in pregnancy
72
Vasodilators
Resistant HTN (systolic) Use with diuretic to decrease fluid retention
73
Moderate dose of 2 or more medications are _____ effective than high doses of one medication
more
74
Thiazides and CCBs cause ____ excretion and vasodilation
Na+
75
ACE-I and ARBs improve ____-induced edema by causing venule dilations
CCB (calcium channel blocker)
76
ACE and ARBs may improve ___________ from thiazides
hypokalemia
77
When should a follow-up be after starting/changing therapy
2-4 weeks
78
When should a follow-up be if BP is stable and controlled
3-6 months
79
Diuretics increase the excretion of electrolytes and water from the body ______ affecting protein, vitamin, glucose, or amino acid reabsorption
without
80
Diuretics are used to treat _____ and hypertension
edema
81
What is the primary target organ of diuretics where they interfere with reabsorption of ions
kindey
82
What are osmotics site of action and mechanism of action
Site: proximal tubule mechanism: osmotic effects decrease sodium and water reabsorption
83
What are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors site of action and mechanism of action
site: proximal convoluted tubule mechanism: inhibition of renal carbonic anhydrase decreases sodium bicarbonate reabsorption
84
What are thiazides site of action and mechanism of action
site: thick ascending loop and distal tubule mechanism: inhibit na/cl symporter
85
What are loop or high ceiling site of action and mechanism of action
site: thick ascending limb mechanism: inhibit na/k/cl transport system
86
What are potassium-sparing site of action and mechanism of action
site: distal tubule and collecting duct mechanism: inhibit sodium and water reabsorption by competitive inhibition of aldosterone or blockage of sodium channels
87
What are osmotics MOA
decrease na and h2o reabsorption
88
Osmotics are ______ polar and have a ______ molecular weight
highly low
89
Are osmotics secreted as charged or uncharged parent drugs
uncharged
90
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors MOA
inhibit carbonic anhydrase which decreases H+ exchange for Na+ ion in the kidney. Lose Na, HCO3, and H2O
91
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors treat what
glaucoma and acidify urine (result in metabolic acidiosis)
92
Sulfonamides are ______ and are common with all CAIs
acidic
93
Methyls improve ________
lipophilicity
94
Secondary aliphatic amines _______ water solubility
increase
95
An ionizable amino group cause ______ water solubility
higher
96
MOA of thiazides
compete for Cl- binding of Na/Cl symport which inhibits reabsorption of Na and Cl ions -> hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesia
97
In thiazides what group is important at position 6
EWG
98
In thiazides what is present at position 3 and 4
double bond to make them more active
99
In thiazides what is at position 3 to increase a longer duration of action
alkyls to increase lipid solubility
100
What is the duration of action of loops or high ceiling diuretics
short duration of action to cause excretions of ions
101
What is the only loop without sulfur
ethacrynic
102
MOA of loops
Inhibit Na/K/Cl symporter, may alter warfarin, ototoxicity with ethacrynic acid
103
Potassium Sparing side effects
do not use with ACE-I or ARBs sexual side effects due to nonselective binding receptors
104
What is present at position 9 or 11 in potassium sparing
epoxide
105
What is replaced at position 7 in potassium sparing diuretics
thioester with ester
106
What is present at position 17 in potassium-sparing diuretics
gamma lactone ring
107
What is MOA of potassium-sparing diuretics
bind to negatively charged regions of Na channel (weak bases)
108
What do ACE-I's cut
dipeptides
109
ACE needs zinc in order to do what
bind by ionic bond with amines then zinc helps dipeptide cleavage, hydrogen bond between substrate and ACE
110
ACE-I have _____ bioavailability and undergo phase 1 metabolism by ________
low esterases
111
What ring minics the C-terminal in ACE-I
N-ring
112
Large hydrophobic rings ______ potency
increase
113
___________ group is best for zinc binding in ACE-I because they shorten duration of action
sulfhydryl
114
Esterification produces orally bioavailable prodrugs in ACE-I because zinc binding to which two groups is optimal
carboxylate phosphinate
115
ACE-I are usually acidic excepts for which two drugs because they contain amines
captopril fosinopril
116
In ARBs esters need to be _______ in order to produce a free acid
hydrolyzed
117
ARBs need an _______ group
acidic and it has to be ortho
118
The tetrazole ring in ARBs need to be ______
ionized
119
Incomplete absorption in ARBs results in _____ lipid solubility and _____ bioavailability because the drug is unchanged
low low
120
Renin Inhibitors MOA
enzyme secreted by kidneys to decrease glomerular filtration rate resulting in low BP
121
What functional group do you want in renin inhibitors to mimic their sites
isopropyl