HTN Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the classification of blood pressure under the new AHA guidelines.

A

Normotensive is less than 120/80, elevated is 120-129, Stage I is 130-139/80-89, Stage II is 140/90 or higher.

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2
Q

Explain the difference between masked hypertension and white coat hypertension.

A

Masked hypertension has normal office readings but higher readings at home, while white coat hypertension has higher office readings but normal readings at home.

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3
Q

What are the goals for blood pressure management for all patients?

A

The goal is to maintain blood pressure below 130/80 for all patients, regardless of age, race, or comorbidities.

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4
Q

Identify risk factors for primary hypertension.

A

Risk factors include obesity, lack of physical activity, high sodium intake, alcohol consumption, genetic predisposition, and childhood factors.

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5
Q

List some causes of secondary hypertension.

A

Causes include renal parenchymal disease, renovascular disease, primary aldosteronism, and obstructive sleep apnea.

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6
Q

What are the recommendations for physical activity to manage blood pressure?

A

Recommendations include 90 to 150 minutes of aerobic and/or dynamic resistance exercise per week and/or 3 sessions per week of isometric resistance exercises.

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7
Q

Explain the moderation of alcohol consumption in relation to blood pressure.

A

Moderation is advised, with 2 or fewer drinks daily for men and no more than 1 drink daily for women.

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8
Q

What substances should be limited or discontinued to manage blood pressure?

A

Limit or discontinue alcohol, amphetamines, antidepressants, antipsychotics, caffeine, decongestants, NSAIDs, oral contraceptives, and systemic corticosteroids.

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9
Q

What action should be taken if a patient’s ASCVD risk is less than 10%?

A

Start with healthy lifestyle recommendations and reassess in 3-6 months.

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10
Q

What should be done if a patient’s ASCVD risk is greater than 10% ?

A

Recommend lifestyle changes and initiate BP-lowering medication (1 medication); reassess in 1 month for effectiveness.

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11
Q

What should be considered if the treatment goal is not met after one month for Stage I hypertension?

A

Consider different medication or titration.

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12
Q

What is the recommended treatment for African American patients with hypertension?

A

Start with calcium channel blockers (CCB) or thiazides.

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13
Q

What combination of medications may be used if needed for African American patients?

A

Use CCB + thiazide, or CCB + thiazide + ACEI (or ARB) if needed.

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14
Q

What is the recommendation for patients requiring two medications for hypertension management?

A

Recommend healthy lifestyle changes and BP-lowering medication (2 medications of different classes).

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15
Q

What is the drug of choice for patients with osteoporosis and hypertension?

A

Thiazide or thiazide-like diuretics are the drug of choice in osteoporosis.

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16
Q

Identify the side effects associated with thiazide diuretics.

A

Side effects include photosensitivity, and caution is advised in patients with gout and diabetes mellitus.

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17
Q

What should be done for patients with a history of angioedema when switching from ACE inhibitors?

A

Patients with a history of angioedema with an ACE inhibitor can receive an ARB beginning 6 weeks after the ACE inhibitor is discontinued.

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18
Q

What precautions should be taken when prescribing beta-blockers to patients with asthma or COPD?

A

Avoid using non selective b-blocker ex propranolol

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19
Q

Explain the potential side effects of metoprolol and an alternative option.

A

Metoprolol may cause sexual dysfunction, so switching to atenolol, which has fewer side effects, is recommended.

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20
Q

What is the maximum daily dose for atenolol if symptoms persist at a lower dose?

A

If a patient is on atenolol 25 mg and symptoms still exist, the dose can be increased to the maximum daily dose of 100 mg.

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21
Q

Identify the only beta-blocker used in erectile dysfunction and its mechanism.

A

Nebivolol is the only beta-blocker used in erectile dysfunction as it is a nitric oxide producer.

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22
Q

Describe a common side effect of CCBs in patients.

A

Edema or pedal edema is (occurring more frequently in women than in men.)

23
Q

Explain the safety of antihypertensive medications during pregnancy.

A

Most antihypertensive medications, except for ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and aliskiren, can be safely continued during pregnancy.

24
Q

List second-line antihypertensive drugs that are considered safe for pregnant women.

A

Methyldopa (Aldomet) , nifdpine(adalat) and Hydralazine.

25
Describe hypertensive crises (emergency) and their characteristics.
Hypertensive crises are severe blood pressure elevations (≥ 180/110 mmHg) with target-organ damage.
26
Explain the management approach for hypertensive emergencies.
Manage hypertensive emergencies with IV drugs in an ICU, aiming to lower diastolic BP to 100-110 mmHg within 1 hour.
27
Define the management strategy for severe hypertension without acute organ damage.
Use oral drugs and resume home medications; reevaluate in 7 days.
28
How should acute heart failure and pulmonary edema be treated in hypertensive crises?
Use Nitroglycerin, Nitroprusside, Nesiritide, or Clevidipine.
29
What is the recommended treatment for acute myocardial infarction in hypertensive crises?
Use Nitroglycerin with a beta-blocker (e.g., Esmolol or Labetalol).
30
Describe the management of eclampsia and preeclampsia in hypertensive crises.
Use Nicardipine, Labetolol, and Hydralazine.
31
Explain the treatment options for cerebrovascular accidents in hypertensive crises.
Use Nicardipine and Labetolol (avoid Labetolol if low heart rate or asthma).
32
What are the preferred treatments for acute renal failure in hypertensive crises?
Use Nicardipine, Clevidipine, and Fenoldopam.
33
How should aortic dissection be managed in hypertensive crises?
Use Esmolol or Labetolol.
34
Describe the treatment options for encephalopathy and perioperative hypertension.
Use Nitroglycerin, Nicardipine, Esmolol, or Clevidipine.
35
Describe the caution associated with Fenoldepam.
Use cautiously in patients with glaucoma or a history of cerebrovascular accident.
36
Explain why sublingual drugs are not recommended for certain patients.
Risk of acute blood pressure drop and serious events (e.g., myocardial infarction).
37
Define the recommended dose and onset time for Captopril (Capoten).
Recommended dose: 6.5-50 mg; onset: 15-30 minutes.
38
Identify the primary use of Captopril in patients.
Used for heart failure and microalbuminuria.
39
List the contraindications for Clonidine.
Contraindicated in severe carotid artery stenosis.
40
What are the contraindications for Nifedipine?
Contraindicated in severe aortic stenosis and coronary artery disease.
41
Identify the potential risks of using dopamine agonists in patients with stroke symptoms.
Can cause cerebral vasodilation, risking ischemic areas.
42
Pt took rasagiline with alcohol what could happened to him and what is the preferred if medication to give?
There is dxd interaction bw rasagiline/selegiline with alchol/old cheese and liver meat that could cause increase in blood pressure , phentolamine is the DOC
43
What is pulmonary hypertension?
Its increase in mean pulmonary arterial pressure PAP>_25 mmhg at rest
44
Symptoms of pulmonary hypertension?
Dyspena chest pain syncope weakness abdominal bloating orthopenea
45
What is initially pulmonary hypertension treatment?
Supprotive care, oxygen >90% diuretic if edema warfarin inr target =2 immunizations birth control
46
What is positive vasodilator response test?
It’s when there is reduction in mpap At least 10 + mpap less than 40 when given inhaled nitric oxide / iv epoprostenol / iv adenosine.
47
What to do if there is positive response when giving vasodilator on pulmonary hypertension?
Start CCB (if tachycardia verapamil or diltiazem) (if bradycardia amlodpine)
48
Doc for class iv of pulmonary hypertension is negative vasodilator response?
Epoprostenol IV
49
What to use for low BP support?
Phenolphthalein
50
What to monitor while giving ERAs?
LEF (monthly) Nab (every 3 month) Pregnancy test (monthly)
51
Sildenafil SE?
Headache, flushing, blurry vision, dyspepsia, dysphagia
52
Doc for CTPH?
Riociguat
53