HTN Agents--MOA & Clinical Use Flashcards

1
Q

ACE inhibitors (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme)
suffix, MOA, clinical use, SE, monitoring, avoid, extra

A
  • Suffix: -pril
  • MOA: competitively inhibits ACE
  • Clinical use: first-line HTN; avoid in Black pts unless specific comorbidity
  • SE: cough, angioedema, hyperkalemia
  • Monitor: SCr, K+
  • Avoid: NSAIDs, in pregnancy, concomitant use of aliskiren (pts w/ DM)
  • Extra: all ACEi are prodrugs except for lisinopril & captopril; take in evening to avoid BP “dipping” overnight

  • MOA: ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II (potent vasoconstrictors)
  • Clinical use: specific comorbidity/SE like HF, CKD stage 3+, albuminuria, secondary stroke prevention
  • SE: ACE inhibitors block the degradation of bradykinin (ACE enzyme breaks down bradykinin)–the accumulation of bradykinin can cause coughing & angioedema of the lips; ACEi also inhibits aldosterone secretion (angiotensin II acts on adrenal gland to release aldosterone), which can cause hyperkalemia (aldosterone normal function is to reabsorb sodium and get rid of potassium)
  • Monitor: ACEi needs to be stopped if SCr falls by >30% (can be restarted if SCr improves); K+ needs to be monitored b/c SE of hyperkalemia
  • Avoid: bradykinin causes vasodilation (partly b/c of prostaglandins), NSAIDs block prostaglandins, which can reduce effectiveness of ACEi
  • Extra: use lisinopril & captopril in pts w/ liver disease (prodrug activation occurs in liver)
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2
Q

What drug class(es) should be used for Black patients?
1. Black pts w/ DM?
2. Black pts w/ CKD?
3. Black pts w/ HF?

A
  • Thiazide or CCB
    1. Thiazide or CCB
    2. Follow CKD guidelines: ACEi if albuminuria present or if stage 3-5
    3. Follow HF guidelines: basically ACE/ARB/ARNI, diuretics or BB
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3
Q

ARB (Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker)
suffix, MOA, clinical use, SE, monitoring, avoid

A
  • Suffix: -sartan
  • MOA: competitive antagonist at angiotensin II receptor
  • Clinical use: first-line HTN (typically used if ACEi is not tolerated); avoid in Black pts unless specific comorbidity
  • SE: hyperkalemia
  • Monitor: SCr, K+
  • Avoid: NSAIDs, in pregnancy, concomitant use of aliskiren (pts w/ DM)

  • MOA: angiotensin II acts directly on blood vessels (vasoconstriction) and adrenal gland (stimulates release of aldosterone); by blocking angiotensin II from binding to the receptors, vasoconstriction does not occur and aldosterone is not released
  • SE: aldosterone secretion is inhibited, so potassium accumulates which can cause hyperkalemia; cough & angioedema less of an issue b/c ARBs do not block the breakdown of bradykinin
  • Monitor: ARBs needs to be stopped if SCr falls by >30% (can be restarted if SCr improves); K+ needs to be monitored b/c SE of hyperkalemia
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4
Q
  1. Which organ releases angiotensinogen?
  2. Renin?
  3. ACE?
  4. Aldosterone?
A
  1. Liver
  2. Kidney
  3. Lungs
  4. Adrenal gland
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5
Q

Aldosterone Receptor Antagonist/Mineralocorticoid Receptor Antagonist (MRA)
drug(s), MOA, clinical use, SE, monitoring, avoid, extra, admin

A
  • Drugs: spironolactone, eplerenone
  • MOA: selectively blocks mineralocorticoid receptors
  • Clinical use: resistant HTN (step 3); used to reduce hypokalemia; HF
  • SE: hyperkalemia, gynecomastia (spironolactone)
  • Monitor: K+, SCr
  • Avoid: in pregnancy; RAAS agents & NSAIDs
  • Extra: do not start if K+ >5mEq/L; hold or reduce dose if K+ >5.5mEq/L or SCr >25%
  • Admin: take in AM

  • MOA: Mineralocorticoid receptors are located in the kidney, heart, blood vessels, and brain; aldosterone in heart/vasculature causes vasoconstriction, endothelial cell dysfunction, inflammation, hypertrophy, remodeling, and fibrosis; blocking the receptors can cause hyperkalemia (b/c blocks reabsoprtion of sodium), and appears to prevent myocardial and vascular fibrosis; effectiveness mostly due to heart/vasculature receptor blocking, not diuretic effect; K+ decreases risk of arrhythmias
  • SE: if gynecomastia, switch pt to eplerenone
  • Monitor: SCr (can worsen renal function)
  • Avoid: agents increase risk of hyperkalemia
  • Admin: take in AM to avoid nocturnal diuresis
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6
Q

Thiazide
drug(s), MOA, clinical use, SE, monitoring, avoid, extra, admin

A
  • Drugs: chlorthalidone, HCTZ, indapamide, metolazone
  • MOA: inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in distal convuluted tube
  • Clinical use: first-line HTN
  • SE: hypokalemia, hyperuricemia
  • Monitor: K+, SCr, uric acid
  • Avoid: pts w/ sulfa allergy, anuria, uncontrolled gout
  • Extra: more effective in pts w/ CrCl >30mL/min
  • Admin: take in AM

  • MOA: initial decr in BP due to diuretic effect, long-term lowers peripheral vascular resistance
  • Clinical use: may need another agent to balance out hypokalemia (typically potassium-sparing diuretic)
  • Extra: if pt CrCl <30mL/min then use loop diuretic
  • Admin: take in AM to avoid nocturnal diuresis
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7
Q

Renin inhibitors
drug(s), MOA, clinical use, SE, monitoring, avoid

A
  • Drug: aliskiren
  • MOA: direct inhibitor of renin
  • Clinical use: not first-line HTN (expensive)
  • SE: hyperkalemia, orthostatic hypotension, renal insufficiency, musculoskeletal effects!!!
  • Monitor: K+, SCr
  • Avoid: in pregnancy, concomitant use of ACEi/ARB in pts w/ DM

  • MOA: renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, this process is inhibited
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8
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers (Dihydropyridine)
suffix, MOA, clinical use, SE, avoid, extra

A
  • Suffix: -dipine
  • MOA: inhibits influx of Ca++ across blood vessels (only works on blood vessels)
  • Clinical use: first-line HTN (pts w/ Reynaud’s, elderly pts w/ isolated systolic HTN), angina
  • SE: reflex tachycardia, peripheral edema (dose-related), gingival hyperplasia
  • Avoid: grapefruit juice, interacts w/ CYP3A4 inducers
  • Extra: use amlodipine if CCB is needed in HF; incr risk of angina/MI in pts w/ obstructive coronary disease (specifically immediate-release)

  • MOA: Ca++ contracts, so blocking calcium from entering arteries prevents contraction/vasoconstriction, leading to vasodilation (decr BP); more potent vasodilators than NonDHP; decr afterload
  • Clinical use: works in pts w/ Reynaud’s b/c relaxes vessels which incr supply of blood and oxygen to the heart; works w/ angina b/c reduces oxygen demand in the heart
  • SE: peripheral edema is dose-related; vasodilation leads to reflex tachycardia (amlodipine does not have relflex tachycardia)
  • Extra: risk of angina/MI increased due to reflex tachycardia
  • Molecular: allosteric binding site (outside of pore), drugs cause tonic block (bind to closed channels and prevent them from opening)
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9
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers (Non-Dihydropyridine)
drug(s), MOA, clinical use, SE, avoid, extra

A
  • Drugs: diltiazem ER, verapamil ER (phenylalkylamine)
  • MOA: inhibits influx of Ca++ across blood vessels and heart (smooth and cardiac muscle); negative inotropic effects
  • Clinical use: first-line HTN, pts w/ Afib, pts w/ angina who cannot tolerate beta blocker
  • SE: bradycardia, systolic HF, constipation
  • Avoid: concomitant use of beta blockers, pts w/ heart block, grapefruit juice, CYP3A4 inducers
  • Extra: formulations are not interchangeable, extended-release preferred

  • Drugs: diltiazem (benzothiazepine) some tonic block and some frequency-dependent block; verapamil (phenylalkylamine) inhibitory effect on heart is frequency-dependent block (channel has to open for drug to enter and bind pore)
  • MOA: extracellular Ca++ triggers cardiac & vascular smooth muscles to contract, nonDHPs work on cardiac (heart) and smooth (arteries) muscles so less contraction occurs; HR and BP decreased; has ionotropic effects= slows HR and weakens heart’s contraction; antiarrhythmic (blocking of cardiac)
  • Clinical use: works w/ angina b/c reduces oxygen demand in the heart
  • SE: bradycardia b/c MOA is to slow HR
  • Avoid: concomitant use of beta blocker b/c both slow HR, could cause heart to stop, HF b/c SE of edema & pts w/ HF already have a lot of fluid built up and need to reduce it
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10
Q

Order these CCB drugs from most potent to least potent in terms of inhibiting the heart: DHP, verapamil, diltiazem

A
  1. verapamil
  2. diltiazem
  3. DHP
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11
Q

Order these CCB drugs from most potent to least potent in terms of vasodilation: DHP, verapamil, diltiazem

A
  1. DHP
  2. Verapamil
  3. Diltiazem
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12
Q

Which drug classes should patients avoid if they have uncontrolled gout?

A

Thiazides, loop, potassium-sparing
Basically diuretics increase risk of developing gout

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13
Q

Which drug classes should be taken in the morning

A

diuretics

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14
Q

Which drug classes should be taken in the evening

A

ACEi, ARB

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15
Q

Which drug classes have renal considerations

A

Thiazide & loop

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