Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pharm 1 Exam 2 > Hu > Flashcards

Hu Flashcards

(63 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is an immunomodulator?

A

Something that affects body defense system (stimulate or suppress)

Immunomodulators can enhance or inhibit the immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are pathogens?

A

Microorganisms that can cause disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two main types of bacteria based on Gram staining?

A
  • Gram Positive
  • Gram Negative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of bacteria has a thick cell wall and stains purple?

A

Gram Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of bacteria has a thin cell wall and does not retain the stain?

A

Gram Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the three shapes of bacteria?

A
  • Cocci (Spherical)
  • Bacilli (Rod-Like)
  • Spirilla (Spiral)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define aerobic bacteria.

A

Bacteria that use O2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define anaerobic bacteria.

A

Bacteria that do not use O2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is acquired resistance in pathogens?

A

Pathogens can develop genes to survive longer in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do antibiotics work?

A

By targeting specific bacterial functions or structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the classes of antibiotics mentioned?

A
  • Penicillins
  • Cephalosporins
  • Tetracyclines
  • Macrolides
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Sulfonamides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Penicillins?

A

Bind to bacterial cell walls, allow water in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of bacteria do Cephalosporins primarily target?

A

Broad-spectrum, gram - bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Tetracyclines?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the primary use for Macrolides?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis, effective on many gram + and -.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a key characteristic of Aminoglycosides?

A

Inhibit protein synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do Fluoroquinolones inhibit?

A

Bacterial DNA synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the action of Sulfonamides?

A

Inhibit bacterial synthesis of folic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the prototype drug for the Penicillin class?

A

Penicillin G (PCN).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the adverse effects of Penicillin?

A
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Pain at site
  • Caution with CKD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Before administering a penicillin-class drug, what should a nurse check?

A

The client’s allergies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the prototype drug for Cephalosporins?

A

Cefazolin (Ancef).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are common adverse effects of Cefazolin?

A
  • Rash
  • Diarrhea
  • Superinfections
  • Pain at IV site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the prototype drug for Tetracycline?

A

Tetracycline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What should patients avoid when taking Tetracycline?
Dairy products, iron, magnesium, antacids.
26
What is the prototype drug for Macrolides?
Azithromycin (Z-Pack).
27
What are the adverse effects of Azithromycin?
* Nausea * Diarrhea * Abdominal pain * Hepatotoxicity
28
What is the prototype drug for Aminoglycosides?
Gentamicin.
29
What are the potential adverse effects of Gentamicin?
* Neurotoxicity * Ototoxicity * Nephrotoxicity
30
What is the prototype drug for Fluoroquinolones?
Ciprofloxacin.
31
What should be avoided while taking Ciprofloxacin?
Antacids and iron.
32
What is the prototype drug for Sulfonamides?
Trimethoprim–Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim).
33
What are the adverse effects of Trimethoprim–Sulfamethoxazole?
* Nausea * Vomiting * Skin rash/itch * Bone marrow suppression
34
What is the class and action of Clindamycin?
Lincosamide; inhibits protein synthesis.
35
What is the class and action of Daptomycin?
Cyclic lipopeptide; disrupts bacterial membrane potential.
36
What is the prototype drug for Glycopeptides?
Vancomycin.
37
What are the adverse effects of Vancomycin?
* Nephrotoxicity * Ototoxicity * Phlebitis
38
What should patients be educated about when taking antibiotics?
* Take the whole course of antibiotics * Take with food/milk unless contraindicated * Avoid alcohol, acidic and carbonated drinks.
39
What are the classes of drugs used for HIV?
* NRTIs * NNRTIs * NtRTIs * Protease Inhibitors * Integrase Strand Inhibitors * Entry Inhibitors
40
What is the prototype drug for NRTIs?
Zidovudine (Retrovir, AZT).
41
What are the adverse effects of Efavirenz?
* CNS effects (sleep disturbances, nightmares) * Rash
42
What is the preferred initial treatment for HIV?
Protease Inhibitors.
43
What should a patient avoid while taking Dolutegravir?
Calcium supplements 2 hours before or 6 hours after.
44
What is the duration of action for Dolutegravir?
14 hours.
45
True or False: Antibiotics cause mutations in bacteria.
False. Antibiotics do not cause mutations but can worsen resistance.
46
What are some common adverse effects of antiviral drugs like acyclovir?
Headache, hepatotoxicity, increased cholesterol/TG, depression/SI/anxiety ## Footnote SI refers to suicidal ideation.
47
Which drugs should be used with caution due to potential interactions?
Efavirenz, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, nevirapine, dofetilide ## Footnote These drugs may have significant interactions with other medications.
48
What is the pharmacokinetic profile of acyclovir?
Onset: 1–2 h, Peak: 1.5–2 h, Duration: 4–8 h ## Footnote This information is crucial for determining dosing schedules.
49
What is the recommended drug for a patient with HIV to reduce drug resistance?
Nevirapine (Viramune) ## Footnote Starting ART with Nevirapine helps minimize the risk of developing resistance.
50
What are the types of viral hepatitis?
Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C ## Footnote These are the primary types that cause liver inflammation and necrosis.
51
What is the primary treatment for chronic Hepatitis C?
Interferon and Ribavirin ## Footnote Interferon modulates the immune response while Ribavirin reduces viral load.
52
What is the significance of annual vaccination for influenza?
Prevention, especially for high-risk populations ## Footnote High-risk populations include the elderly, immunocompromised, and pregnant patients.
53
True or False: Vaccines are available for both Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B.
True ## Footnote There is no vaccine for Hepatitis C.
54
What are the pharmacologic management options for herpesvirus infections?
Acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir ## Footnote These antiviral drugs help reduce the frequency and symptoms of infections.
55
Fill in the blank: The prototype drug for treating HSV infections is _______.
Acyclovir ## Footnote Acyclovir is widely used for its effectiveness against herpes viruses.
56
What should be considered for a patient with a CD4 count <200 cell/mm3?
Increased infection risk ## Footnote A low CD4 count indicates a compromised immune system, making the patient more susceptible to infections.
57
What is the primary goal of antiviral therapy for influenza?
To reduce severity and duration of acute symptoms ## Footnote Antiviral therapy is most effective when started within 48 hours of symptom onset.
58
What are the recommended administration guidelines for acyclovir?
With food, around the clock ## Footnote This helps to maximize absorption and effectiveness.
59
What is the common presentation of herpesvirus infections?
Recurrent, blister-like lesions on skin, genitals, and mucosal surfaces ## Footnote This characteristic appearance is key to diagnosis.
60
What is the caution regarding nephrotoxic drugs when administering acyclovir?
Increased risk of nephrotoxicity ## Footnote Careful monitoring is needed to prevent kidney damage.
61
What is the mechanism of action of Ribavirin in Hepatitis C treatment?
Reduces viral load ## Footnote It is an antiviral agent that works alongside interferon.
62
What are the safety points to consider for a patient with HIV and a low CD4 count?
Increased infection risk, need for ART adherence ## Footnote ART adherence is critical in managing HIV and preventing complications.
63
What is the role of immunoglobulin prophylaxis in viral hepatitis?
Provides immediate passive immunity ## Footnote This is especially important for Hepatitis A and B exposure.

Pharm 1 Exam 2 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions