Human Systems Flashcards

Question

Total peripheral resistance (TPR)

Answer 1

- is the total amount of resistance that blood faces when flowing through the vasculature of the body. Vasoconstriction increases TPR, while vasodilation decreases TPR.

Answer 2

- is the highest pressure in your arteries when your ventricles contract. This is the top number in a blood pressure reading. 120/80 → 120 mmHg is the systolic pressure.

Answer 3

- is the pressure in your arteries while the heart is relaxing between beats. This is the bottom number in a blood pressure reading. 120/80 → 80 mmHg is the diastolic pressure.

Answer 4

- is the average arterial pressure during one complete cardiac cycle. It is calculated by multiplying your cardiac output by your total peripheral resistance. MAP = CO x TPR MAP = (HR x SV) x TP

Answer 5

1) Arteries 2) Veins

Answer 6

1) Arteries 2) hydrostatic power 3) arterioles 4) drop 5) capillaries 6) interstitial fluid 7) veins

Answer 7

1) Capillaries 2) venule 3) back 4) prevents backflow 5) Pocket valves 6) skeletal muscles 7) forward

Answer 8

1) more 2) lowest

Answer 9

1) Blood clotting

Answer 10

1) positive feedback mechanism 2) platelets

Answer 11

1. Tissue damage – Damaged tissue tears blood vessel walls, exposing their collagen. 2. Platelet activation – Exposed collagen triggers platelet activation. Platelets will adhere and aggregate at the site of the tear, forming a platelet plug. 3. Thromboplastin release – Activated platelets release the tissue factor thromboplastin that converts prothrombin (inactive precursor) → thrombin (active form). 4. Formation of clot – Activated thrombin converts fibrinogen (inactive precursor) → fibrin (active form). Fibrin strands polymerize with other fibrin strands, and attach platelets to form a blood clot (hemostatic plug).

Answer 12

1) Plasma 2) WBC (leukocytes) 3) Platelets (Thrombocytes) 4) RBC (erythrocytes)

Answer 13

-contains water, proteins, nutrients, hormones, and makes up most of the blood volume. Makes up ~55% of blood volume.

Answer 14

- are our immune cells and defend against infection. The most common white blood cell is the neutrophil.

Answer 15

-are cytoplasmic cell fragments that do not have a nucleus, they are responsible for clotting. Large bone marrow cells called megakaryocytes are the precursor to platelets. Platelets release factors that help convert fibrinogen into fibrin, which creates a ‘net’ to stop bleeding. Many of the clotting factors are synthesized with Vitamin K, a deficiency in Vitamin K will lead to increased bleeding. Platelets are also immune cells that function in the innate immunity. Leukocytes and thrombocytes make up <1% of blood volume.

Answer 16

1) megakaryocytes 2) fibronogen 3) fibrin 4) Vitamin K 5) vitamin K 6) <1%

Answer 17

- are responsible for transporting oxygen attached to hemoglobin. Mature red blood cells are anucleate (they don’t have a nucleus) in order to maximize the amount of space they have to carry hemoglobin and oxygen, making them very flexible. Makes up ~45% of blood volume.

Answer 18

- Red blood cells (erythrocytes) have antigens on their surfaces. These antigens are little sugars and proteins that mark our blood as a certain type. Blood types are described as follows. ● Type A blood - has ‘A’ antigen ● Type B blood - has ‘B’ antigen ● Type AB blood - has both ‘A’ and ‘B’ antigen ● Type O blood - has neither ‘A’ or ‘B’ antigens

Answer 19

1) agglutination

Answer 20

1) Rhesus factor (Rh) 2) Rh+ 3) Rh- 4) cannot

Answer 21

1) universal donor 2) O- 3) O-

Answer 22

1) universal acceptor 2) AB+ 3) AB+

Answer 23

1) placenta 2) umbilical cord 3) pulmonary system 4) right atrium 5) foramen ovale

Answer 24

1) Umbilical Vein 2) Ductus Venosus 3) Ductus arteriosus 4) umbilical artery

Answer 25

- Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus via the umbilical cord. This differs to veins within the rest of the mother, as veins otherwise carry deoxygenated blood from the tissues.

Answer 26

- Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, allowing oxygenated blood coming from the umbilical vein to flow into the inferior vena cava and mix with oxygen-poor blood (blood is now slightly oxygen rich).

Answer 27

- Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, allowing oxygen-poor blood to leave the pulmonary artery and enter the descending aorta, preventing oxygen-poor blood from traveling to the brain.

Answer 28

- Carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. This differs from arteries within the rest of the mother, as arteries otherwise carry oxygenated blood to the tissues.

Answer 29

1) waste 2) CO2 3) right ventricle 4) ubmilical cord 5) placenta

Answer 30

- If the mother has Rh (-) blood type and the fetus has Rh (+) blood, during labor, the fetal Rh (+) blood will enter the mother’s system, and she will develop anti-Rh antibodies. This will not pose a problem in the first pregnancy, but if the mother becomes pregnant again with another Rh (+) fetus, the mother’s anti-Rh antibodies will attack the fetus, because antibodies are small enough to cross the placental barrier.

Answer 31

- is a subsystem of the circulatory system that regulates fluid levels and produces immune cells. Its components are lymph nodes, lymph vessels, adenoids (lymphatic tissue), the spleen, and the thymus.

Answer 32

1) capillaries 2) Hydrostatic Pressure 3) Oncotic pressure 4) lymphatic capillaries 5) lymph

Answer 33

1) lymph nodes 2) immune response system

Answer 34

1) No 2) skeletal muscles 3) smooth muscles 4) peristalsis

Answer 35

- influences lymph volume. If there is an increased amount of proteins (ex. albumin) within the blood vessels, water will flow into these vessels, reducing the amount of water left in the interstitial fluid and decreasing lymph volume.

Answer 36

-the exchange of gases between the outside environment and the inside of an organism.

Answer 37

- are small invertebrates that use simple diffusion for respiration due to the lack of a circulatory system. Almost all cells must be in direct contact with the environment. Environment must be moist for diffusion to happen.

Answer 38

- includes earthworms that also use simple diffusion for respiration but have a closed circulatory system. They use a slimy mucus to facilitate the transport of oxygen into their closed circulatory system.

Answer 39

- are invertebrates, such as insects and crustaceans, that have an open circulatory system with hemolymph, a fluid similar to blood. Gas exchange happens mainly through the tracheal system for insects and through book lungs for arachnids.

Answer 40

- Fish are a part of the phylum Chordata and have a closed circulatory system with blood to transport gas. Fish have gills with a large surface area for gas exchange and use countercurrent exchange to efficiently absorb oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from their blood.

Answer 41

-are located in the thoracic cavity and are covered by the rib cage. The left lung has two lobes and is smaller than the right lung, which has three lobes.

Answer 42

- covers the lungs and is a dual-layered membrane composed of the parietal layer (outer layer) and the visceral layer (inner layer).

Answer 43

- is a large skeletal muscle at the bottom of the lungs and is involved in inspiration and expiration. This is the only organ that only and all mammals have.

Answer 44

- is a fluid-filled space in between the parietal and visceral layers. This space is at a lower pressure than the atmosphere, and creates the intrapleural pressure.

Answer 45

- involves the contraction of the diaphragm (pulls lungs downwards) and the external intercostal muscles (expands the rib cage). These contractions cause the pressure of the intrapleural space to decrease and the volume of the lungs to increase, bringing air into the lungs.

Answer 46

- involves the relaxation of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles, bringing the lungs back up and closing up the rib cage through elastic recoil. This causes the pressure of the intrapleural space to increase and the volume of the lungs to decrease, driving air out of the lungs. The internal intercostal muscles can also contract during a more forced expiration, closing the rib cage even more.

Answer 47

- is the volume of air that moves through the lungs between a normal inhalation and exhalation.

Answer 48

- is the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled further after a normal inhalation is already taken in.

Answer 49

- is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled further after a normal exhalation is already released.

Answer 50

- is the minimum amount of air that needs to be present in the lungs to prevent collapse.

Answer 51

- is the entire volume of air still present in the lungs after a normal exhalation. It is also the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. FRC=ERV + RV

Answer 52

- is the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation. It is the sum of the inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.

Answer 53

- is the sum of the vital capacity and the residual volume: it is the maximum volume the lungs could possibly hold at any given time. *Refer to page 78 DAT Bootcamp*

Answer 54

1) goblet cells 2) ciliated epithelial cells

Answer 55

- is at the beginning of the throat after the nasal cavity. Under the control of the epiglottis, it diverts air and food into the larynx and the esophagus.

Answer 56

- receives air and contains the voice box. The upper respiratory tract refers to the nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx. On the other hand, the esophagus receives food and connects to the stomach.

Answer 57

- is below the larynx and has reinforced cartilage along with ciliated epithelial cells to filter air.

Answer 58

1) left and right bronchi 2) bronchioles 3) alveoli 4) type 1 5) type 2 6) surfacant

Answer 59

Nasal Cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

Answer 60

1) partial pressure 2) high 3) low 4) external respiration 5) internal respiration

Answer 61

Air → Blood → Tissues

Answer 62

Tissues → Blood → Air

Answer 63

- contain hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is tetrameric and has a heme cofactor in each of its four subunits. Heme cofactors are organic molecules that contain iron atoms, which bind oxygen. Thus, each hemoglobin can carry up to four oxygen molecules.

Answer 64

- (HbO2) transports most of the oxygen traveling in the blood.

Answer 65

- describes the process by which the binding of one oxygen molecule to hemoglobin makes it easier for others to bind due to changes in the shape of the hemoglobin polypeptide. This also works in reverse, allowing efficient unloading of oxygen in body tissues.

Answer 66

- is produced when carbon monoxide outcompetes oxygen for hemoglobin binding. Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs as a result, because oxygen can no longer be transported efficiently.

Answer 67

- (HbCO2 ) is a form of hemoglobin that transports carbon dioxide. However, carbon dioxide is much more soluble in blood than oxygen, so most of the carbon dioxide is dissolved in blood as bicarbonate anion (HCO3-).

Answer 68

- (H+Hb) is produced by H+ ions binding to hemoglobin, outcompeting oxygen and lowering oxygen binding affinity (less HbO2). On the other hand, carbon dioxide binding affinity is increased (more HbCO2).

Answer 69

- is a single peptide with one heme cofactor. It has a much higher affinity for oxygen than oxyhemoglobin and is found within cardiac and skeletal muscle cells to bring oxygen in. Also, myoglobin has a hyperbolic oxygen dissociation curve because it does not undergo cooperativity (hemoglobin’s curve is sigmoidal).

Answer 70

- reveals the relationship between the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen in the blood and the partial pressure of oxygen. Certain conditions will shift this curve either left or right.

Answer 71

- corresponds to a lowered affinity for oxygen in hemoglobin. Below are the main reasons for a right-shifted curve. Affected by: 1) decrease in pH 2) high partial pressure of Co2 3) 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) aka 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG): 4)Increased body temperature: Bootcamp Mnemonic: CADET Increase → Right shifted curve CADET, face Right! CADET = Carbon dioxide, Acid, 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate, Exercise and Temperature.

Answer 72

- a lower pH means there is a higher concentration of protons (H+), which produces reduced hemoglobin. Reduced hemoglobin (H+Hb) has a lowered affinity for binding oxygen, resulting in less HbO2

Answer 73

-more carbon dioxide is converted to bicarbonate anions (HCO3-) and protons (H+), which lower oxygen binding affinity through decreased pH.

Answer 74

- accumulates in cells that undergo anaerobic respiration as a result of the loss of oxygen. This compound decreases oxygen binding affinity so more oxygen is released from hemoglobin to fuel aerobic respiration.

Answer 75

-: correlates to more cellular respiration, which uses up oxygen and produces more carbon dioxide. Thus, hemoglobin will need to unload more oxygen for tissues to use and have decreased oxygen binding affinity.

Answer 76

- corresponds to an increased affinity for oxygen in hemoglobin. Below are the main reasons for a left-shifted curve. Affected by: 1) increased pH 2) Low partial pressure of carbon dioxide: 3) Fetal hemoglobin: 4) Decreased body temperature:

Answer 77

- fewer protons (H+) to produce reduced hemoglobin (H +Hb), so more oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) remains.

Answer 78

- less carbon dioxide is converted to bicarbonate anions (HCO3-) and protons (H+), leading to increased oxygen binding affinity through increased pH.

Answer 79

- binds oxygen better than adult hemoglobin to help give oxygen to the fetus.

Answer 80

- less cellular respiration, so hemoglobin isn’t influenced to unload more oxygen and has an increased oxygen binding affinity.

Answer 81

- hemoglobin has decreased oxygen affinity when carbon dioxide is high. Carbon dioxide is converted to bicarbonate anions and protons, which produce reduced hemoglobin (H+Hb).

Answer 82

- hemoglobin has increased carbon dioxide affinity when oxygen is low. As a result of low oxygen, reduced hemoglobin (H+Hb) levels are higher and have a greater affinity for carbon dioxide.

Answer 83

-is the main extracellular buffering system in the body. It maintains our blood pH of 7.4 and can be described by the equation below: CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ HCO3- + H+ Carbonic acid (H2CO3) Bicarbonate anion (HCO3–)

Answer 84

1) carbonic anhydrase 2)carbonic anhydrase 3) RBC

Answer 85

1. In erythrocytes (red blood cells) in the systemic circulation, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is low. As a result, carbon dioxide continuously diffuses in from the tissues, and is converted into bicarbonate and protons. Bicarbonate is able to diffuse out of the cell, however, protons (H+) cannot leave. As some bicarbonate diffuses out, this creates a positive charge within the erythrocyte, and chloride ions (Cl-) must diffuse into the blood cell to cancel out the positive charge of the protons. This process is known as the chloride shift. 2. Influx of protons causes the pH to decrease within the erythrocyte, resulting in the conversion of oxyhemoglobin into reduced hemoglobin. Reduced hemoglobin has lower affinity for O2, leading to release of oxygen which diffuses to the tissues.

Answer 86

- is the main intracellular buffer system in humans that regulates our body’s intracellular pH.

Answer 87

1. Blood travels to the lungs through bulk flow. 2. Since most of the carbon dioxide is present in the blood plasma as bicarbonate ions (HCO3-), the bicarbonate ions re-enter erythrocytes at the lungs and chloride ions leave through the reverse chloride shift. 3. The bicarbonate buffer system equation proceeds in the reverse direction, producing carbon dioxide and water. The carbon dioxide exits into the alveoli as gas while oxygen enters the blood, forming oxyhemoglobin.

Answer 88

- is located in the brain and controls the diaphragm to regulate respiratory rate. Central chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors signal to the medulla.

Answer 89

-are located in the medulla oblongata and contained within the blood-brain barrier. Since carbonic anhydrase is present in the cerebrospinal fluid, carbon dioxide is converted into bicarbonate ions and protons here. However, protons cannot exit through the blood-brain barrier. As carbon dioxide accumulates, acidity increases and is directly sensed by central chemoreceptors, which signal to the medulla oblongata to increase breathing rate.

Answer 90

- surround the aortic arch and carotid arteries. These peripheral chemoreceptors directly sense oxygen, carbon dioxide, and proton levels to signal to the medulla oblongata. When carbon dioxide is high and oxygen is low, peripheral chemoreceptors signal to the medulla oblongata to increase breathing rate.

Answer 91

-- lowered blood pH occurs due to inadequate breathing (hypoventilation).

Answer 92

- increased blood pH occurs due to rapid breathing (hyperventilation).

Answer 93

- occur as a result of imbalances in carbon dioxide, oxygen, or proton levels.

Answer 94

-harmful microorganisms that cause disease. Common diseases caused by bacterial pathogens include gonorrhea, tuberculosis, leprosy, and syphilis. Viruses can also be pathogens. Common viral infections include HIV, AIDS, influenza, measles, and herpes.

Answer 95

- white blood cells.

Answer 96

- white blood cells found mainly in the lymphatic organs (T cells, B cells, natural killer cells) that originate from the bone marrow. T cells mature in the thymus while B cells mature in the bone marrow.

Answer 97

- is the first line of defense and generates a nonspecific immune response (generalized). There are two parts: 1) External Immunity 2) Internal Immunity

Answer 98

- physical/physiological barriers preventing pathogen entry. These barriers include skin, mucous membranes, and chemical secretions.

Answer 99

- internal defenses activated by the innate immune system to neutralize pathogens that have entered. The body’s Internal immunity is composed of inflammatory response, complement proteins, phagocytic and natural killer cells.

Answer 100

- outer walls Includes: 1) skin 2) cilia 3) stomach acid 4) symbiotic bacteria If these barriers are penetrated, the rest of the immune system will kick in.

Answer 101

- consists of a thick epidermis, and dermis. Also mucous membrane to trap pathogens and lysozyme to break down bacterial cell walls. Has sebaceous glands to secrete oil (sebum) as a barrier. Sebum also has antimicrobial properties.

Answer 102

- hair-like projections in the respiratory tract that sweep away debris and pathogens.

Answer 103

- gastric acid that kills microbes due to low pH.

Answer 104

- outcompete pathogenic bacteria and fungi.

Answer 105

1) Mast Cells 2) rally signalling

Answer 106

1. Mast cells sit in the tissue in preparation for injury. 2. If there is an injury, mast cells will release histamine, which dilates blood vessels. 3. This increases blood flow and makes vessels more permeable to let immune cells into the tissues.

Answer 107

1) Swelling 2) Loss of function 3) increased heat 4) Pain 5) Redness

Answer 108

- permeable capillaries result in fluids leaking into tissues.

Answer 109

- body part with inflammation becomes less usable.

Answer 110

- increased blood flow results in a higher temperature.

Answer 111

- throbbing pain caused by swelling, which puts continuous pressure on nerve endings.

Answer 112

- increased blood flow causes redness of skin.

Answer 113

1) fever 2) brain 3) systemic response 4) higher

Answer 114

-is the process by which cells move from the capillaries to the tissues in order to fight pathogens.

Answer 115

- is the method by which cells move in response to a chemical signal. Immune cells use chemotaxis to move to the tissues.

Answer 116

-are cells in the innate immune system with specific granules in their cytoplasm.

Answer 117

1) neutrophils, 2) eosinophils, 3) basophils, 4) mast cells. Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas

Answer 118

- phagocytes in innate immunity that make up over half of all leukocytes. Neutrophils are the most common type of leukocyte found in blood and are one of the first cells to be recruited to a site of inflammation.

Answer 119

- B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells. B and T cells are part of adaptive immunity and must be activated. Natural killer (NK) cells are part of innate immunity and attack virally-infected cells + cancerous cells. NK cells use perforin (create holes) and granzyme (stimulate apoptosis) to lyse cells. B and T cells are the most common type of leukocyte found in lymph.

Answer 120

- are part of innate immunity and attack virally-infected cells + cancerous cells.

Answer 121

1) perforin 2) granzyme

Answer 122

- phagocytes in innate immunity. Monocytes are the immature form found in blood vessels and macrophages are the mature form after diapedesis. Can also act as antigen-presenting cells to activate adaptive immunity.

Answer 123

- part of innate immunity and have granules that can be released to kill pathogens, especially parasites.

Answer 124

- least numerous leukocyte; contains granules with histamine (vasodilation) and heparin (an anticoagulant to prevent blood clotting). Very similar to mast cells, except basophils circulate as mature cells while mast cells circulate as immature cells.

Answer 125

- are also part of innate immunity and scan tissues using pinocytosis (cell drinking) and phagocytosis (cell eating). They act as antigen-presenting cells like macrophages, migrating to the lymph nodes to activate adaptive immunity.

Answer 126

1) toll-like receptors (TLR’s) 2) microbes 3) phagocytosis

Answer 127

- are secreted by virally-infected cells and bind to non-infected cells to prepare them for a virus attack. Also, interferons help activate dendritic cells.

Answer 128

- are also a type of immune cell involved in activating the innate immune system. These anucleate cells regulate macrophages and dendritic cells.

Answer 129

1) complement system 2) complement cascade 3) protease activity

Answer 130

● Tags antigens for phagocytosis in a process called opsonization ● Amplifies inflammatory response Eg. binds to mast cells for increased histamine release ● Forms a membrane attack complex (MAC), which pokes holes in pathogens and lyses them

Answer 131

- is a specific immune response (targets specific antigens).

Answer 132

- is an immunogenic foreign molecule and is the target of the immune response. The epitope is the important part of the antigen that is recognized by the immune cell.

Answer 133

1) major histocompatibility complex (MHC) include: MHC Class 1 MHC Class 2

Answer 134

- is a surface molecule present on all nucleated cells, and each genetically different individual will have a different MHC I molecule.

Answer 135

1) organ transplants 2) MHC 1 3) autoimmune diseases

Answer 136

- is a surface molecule present on antigen-presenting cells (dendritic cells, macrophages) and is used to present foreign antigens to activate immune cells.

Answer 137

- control antibody-mediated immunity (humoral immunity) by managing the production and release of antibodies. They can also act as antigen-presenting cells.

Answer 138

- are located on B cells and bind to antigen epitopes either free-floating or on APCs. Each B cell has a unique BCR.

Answer 139

- describes the development of one type of BCR for every B cell. Through clonal expansion, these B cells divide into either plasma cells (antibody-secreting cells) or memory B cells (to be activated later in case of another attack).

Answer 140

- are structurally identical to BCRs but freely circulate in blood and lymph. They can tag antigens for phagocytosis, neutralize the antigen by coating it, or activate the complement system. Antibodies contain light chains and heavy chains that are linked together by disulfide bonds. In addition, the variable region recognizes different antigens while the constant region is the same for antibodies within the same class. As glycoproteins, the five classes of antibodies all contain a sugar residue that assists in attachment to other cells.

Answer 141

1) light chain 2) heavy chains 3) disulfide bonds 4) variable 5) constant

Answer 142

1) IgM 2) IgA 3) IgE 4) IgD 5) IgG

Answer 143

-- present in a pentameric form and is the largest antibody. The first antibody to be produced; activates the complement system.

Answer 144

- present in a dimeric form and found most abundantly in bodily secretions. Newborns receive passive immunity through breast milk containing IgA. Also, IgA mainly binds pathogens externally, outside of circulation.

Answer 145

- monomer that is present on basophils and mast cells as antigen receptors. When bound to an allergen, it triggers histamine release and an allergic reaction. Think Ig sneEze.

Answer 146

- monomer that we have very little information about. Only small amounts are produced.

Answer 147

- monomer that is the most abundant antibody in circulation. Also the only antibody that can cross the placenta to give fetus passive immunity. Helps the complement system to cause opsonization (tags antigens and subsequent phagocytosis).

Answer 148

- survive for a long time and lay dormant until reactivated by the same antigen that triggered the original clonal expansion. They are the key to vaccinations because vaccines cause memory B cell production for later reactivation. After reactivation, memory B cells cause massive antibody production.

Answer 149

- control cell-mediated immunity by directly acting on cells instead of sending antibodies out.

Answer 150

-are unique just like BCRs, binding only to one type of antigen per T cell. Thus, T cells also undergo clonal selection just like B cells.

Answer 151

- APC (antigen-presenting cells)

Answer 152

1) MHC I presentation 2) MHC II presentation

Answer 153

- T cells differentiate into CD8/CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic T cells), which directly kill infected cells through perforin (poke holes) and granzymes (cause apoptosis). However, T cells are different from natural killer cells because they are more specific and require antigen presentation.

Answer 154

- T cells differentiate into CD4 T cells (helper T cells), which release interleukins to boost both innate immunity and adaptive immunity. These interleukins help attract innate immune cells and increase proliferation of other T and B cells.

Answer 155

- refers to the immunity one organism gains from receiving the antibodies from another organism that already has that immunity. For example, a fetus gains passive immunity through the placenta (IgG) while a newborn gains passive immunity through breast milk (IgA). The fetus and newborn are referred to as immuno-naive because they do not yet have their own active immunity.

Answer 156

- refers to the immunity an organism gains from being infected once already by a pathogen. A vaccination introduces the antigen or pathogen in a deactivated state to stimulate active immunity, which is referred to as artificial immunity in this case and induces memory B and T cell formation.

Answer 157

- is the most basic unit of the nervous system. It has three parts: the soma (cell body), dendrites (extensions that receive signals), and the axon (sends signals out).

Answer 158

1) Axon hillcock 2) Myelin Sheath 3) Nodes of Ranvier

Answer 159

- area where the axon is connected to the cell body. Responsible for the summation of graded potentials.

Answer 160

- fatty insulation of the axon that speeds up action potential propagation by stopping ion exchange. The myelin sheath is formed by oligodendrocytes (in the central nervous system) and Schwann cells (in the peripheral nervous system). Thicker myelinated neurons fire signals faster.

Answer 161

1) oligodendrocytes 2) Schwann Cells 3) thicker Mnemonic: COPS Central NS: Oligodendrocytes Peripheral NS: Schwann cells

Answer 162

- gaps between myelin sheaths where ion exchange occurs. Propagation of the action potential occurs here, jumping from gap to gap (node to node) in a process called saltatory conduction

Answer 163

1. At resting potential, the membrane potential of the neuron is around -70mV and is maintained by Na +/K + ATPases, which pump 3 Na+ ions out and 2 K+ions in, powered by hydrolysis of one ATP. K+ leak channels are also present and help maintain resting potential through passive K+leakage. 2. When a stimulus causes threshold potential to be reached (around -55mV in neurons), voltage-gated Na+ channels open up, letting Na+ in, resulting in depolarization of the neuron. K channels are closed. 3. Next is repolarization of the neuron due to the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels, letting K+ out, and the closing of Na channels. This causes the membrane potential to become less positive since positive ions are leaving. This is the absolute refractory period- no stimulus can cause an action potential. 4. When the membrane potential becomes even more negative than the normal resting potential, this is known as hyperpolarization. This results in a relative refractory period being established, during which another action potential can be fired, but it requires a much stronger stimulus. 5. The membrane potential returns to normal resting potential through the pumping of Na+/K+ ATPases and K+ leak channels.

Answer 164

1) -70mV 2) Na+/K+ ATPase 3) 3 4) 2 5) K+ leak channels

Answer 165

1) -55mV 2) voltage-gated Na+ channels 3) closed

Answer 166

1) repolarization 2) opening 3) less 4) absolute refractory period

Answer 167

1) negative 2) hyperpolarizatoin 3) relative refractory period 4) stronger

Answer 168

-refers to the period after the initiation of the action potential during which another action potential cannot be fired no matter how powerful the stimulus is. It is due to the inactivation of voltage-gated Na+ channels after they open.

Answer 169

- refers to the period after the action potential fires during which a stronger than normal stimulus could cause another action potential to be fired.

Answer 170

- is the space between two neurons.

Answer 171

1) presynaptic 2) NT (neurotransmitters) 3) NT (neurotransmitters)

Answer 172

1. Action potential reaches the end of the presynaptic axon, causing voltage gated calcium channels to open and letting Ca2+ ions into the neuron. 2. The Ca2+ ions cause synaptic vesicles to fuse and undergo exocytosis, releasing neurotransmitters into the synapse. 3. The neurotransmitters (described in the table on the next page) bind to ligand-gated ion channels on the postsynaptic neuron, producing graded potentials (depolarizations or hyperpolarizations of the membrane). 4. These graded potentials summate at the axon hillock and an action potential will fire if the summation of graded potentials is higher than the threshold potential of neurons.

Answer 173

- is a graded potential that depolarizes the membrane. In an EPSP, excitatory neurotransmitters cause Na+ ion gates to open and let Na+ ions flow into the cell.

Answer 174

- is a graded potential that hyperpolarizes the membrane. Inhibitory neurotransmitters cause K+ ion gates to open and let K+ ions flow out of the cell. Another IPSP type allows influx of Cl-, allowing negative Cl- ions in.

Answer 175

- are non-neuronal cells in the nervous system that help support and surround neurons. They are divided into microglial cells and macroglial cells.

Answer 176

- are macrophages that protect the central nervous system (CNS).

Answer 177

1) astrocytes 2) schwann cells 3) oligodendrocytes 4) satellite cells 5) ependymal cells

Answer 178

- are the most abundant glial cell and form the blood-brain barrier. They also help recycle neurotransmitters and provide blood supply to the CNS neurons.

Answer 179

- form the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

Answer 180

- form the myelin sheath in the central nervous system (CNS).

Answer 181

- have the same functions as astrocytes but instead help PNS neurons.

Answer 182

- produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which cushions the CNS.

Answer 183

Amino Acids: Glutamate Gamma-aminobutyric acid(GABA) Glycine Amino acid derived: Epinephrine Norepinephrine Dopamine Serotonin Neuropeptides: Short chain amino acids (e.g.: substance P) Gasotransmitters: Nitric Oxide Other: Acetylcholine

Answer 184

- main excitory NT of CNS; most abundant of vertebrate NS; NT of neuromuscular junction in invertebrates

Answer 185

- inhibitory NT of the brain

Answer 186

- inhibitory NT of CNS (spinal cord, brainstem, and retina)

Answer 187

- excitatory postsynaptic NT of sympath. NS

Answer 188

- excitatory postsynaptic NT of sympath. NS

Answer 189

- excitatory postsynaptic NT of the brain; involved in reward-motivated behaviour

Answer 190

-inhibitory postsynaptic NT of the brain; involved in mood, appetite, sleep, and learning; - increases contraction of gastrointestinal tract in response to food intake

Answer 191

- diverse roles; wide range of brain functions

Answer 192

- smooth muscle relaxation; in blood vessels, it causes vasodilation which leads to decrease in BP - unlike other NT, NO is synthesized and released on demand rather than stored in vesicles

Answer 193

- excitatory NT of NJ (neuromuscular junction) in vertebrates - pre-synaptic NT of SNS/PNS - post-synaptic NT of PNS

Answer 194

- is composed of the brain and spinal cord.

Answer 195

- is composed of nerves branching off the CNS.

Answer 196

1) The forebrain develops into: a) Telecephalon ===> cerebrum b) Diencephalon ====> thalamus, hypothalamus, and pineal gland 2) The Midbrain develops into: a) Mesencephalon ====> midbrain 3) The Hindbrain develops into: a) Metencephalon ===> pons, cerebellum b) Mylencephalon ===> medulla oblongata

Answer 197

1) Frontal lobe 2) temporal lobe 3) occipital lobe 4) parietal lobe

Answer 198

- known for higher function processes such as decision making, problem solving, attention and concentration.

Answer 199

- known for speech and hearing.

Answer 200

-- known for vision.

Answer 201

- is known for spatial perception and sensation.

Answer 202

- is located underneath the occipital lobe and is responsible for the coordination of movement.

Answer 203

1) Midbrain 2) Pons 3) Medulla Oblongata 4) Reticular Formations

Answer 204

- relays senses to other parts of brain

Answer 205

-relays messages between the forebrain, cerebellum, and medulla

Answer 206

- heart and breathing rate, blood pressure, toxin sensing. Connects the cerebrum/cerebellum to the spinal cord.

Answer 207

-are neurons throughout the brainstem that are involved in cortical arousal, and consciousness.

Answer 208

- is composed of the thalamus, hypothalamus, hippocampus, and amygdala. It is responsible for emotion, memory, learning, and motivation.

Answer 209

- The “relay center” of the brain and is located between the cerebrum and the midbrain. Relays sensory and motor signals from the body to the brain.

Answer 210

- Regulates hormone secretion in the body.

Answer 211

- Responsible for memory consolidation.

Answer 212

- Responsible for the emotional reaction to certain scents.

Answer 213

1) spinal cord 2) Sensory (afferent) neurons 3) Motor (efferent) neurons 4) ventral roots

Answer 214

1) protect the CNS and have three layers called the dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater.

Answer 215

1) PNS 2) Somatic NS 3) autonomic NS

Answer 216

1) peripheral nervous system 2) mechanoreceptors 3) nociceptors 4) thermoreceptors 5) chemoreceptors 6) electromagnetic receptors

Answer 217

1) autonomic NS 2) SNS 3) PNS

Answer 218

● Release of sugar into blood for energy. ● Increase in heart rate for oxygen delivery to the brain and muscles. ● Vasodilation of skeletal blood vessels, and vasoconstriction of the digestive system. ● Dilation of bronchi and bronchioles to allow more oxygen into lungs. ● Dilation of the pupil to give the brain more visual information.

Answer 219

● Relaxation of muscles. ● Decrease in heart rate. ● Maintenance of homeostasis. ● Increase in gastrointestinal activity.

Answer 220

- is defined as a cluster of nerve bodies in the peripheral nervous system. The autonomic nervous system’s neurons are either preganglionic or postganglionic. The preganglionic neuron comes from the central nervous system and synapses with the postganglionic neuron at the ganglion.

Answer 221

→ short preganglionic nerves and long postganglionic nerves (ganglia far from effector organs)

Answer 222

→ long preganglionic nerves and short postganglionic nerves (ganglia close to effector organs)

Answer 223

1) SNS 2) Ach 3) NE/E 4) adrenal medulla 5) NE/E

Answer 224

-is an enzyme that is responsible for the breakdown of acetylcholine via hydrolysis.

Answer 225

1) Outer Ear 2) tympanic membrane 3) middle ear 4) stapes 5) cochlea 6) round window 7) semicircular canal

Answer 226

- takes in sound waves, and the tympanic membrane transfers the sound from outer ear to middle ear.

Answer 227

- is composed of three bony ossicles → the malleus, incus, & stapes. The ossicles transfer vibrations through the middle ear and amplify the signal.

Answer 228

-transfers the vibrations from the middle to the inner ear via the oval window.

Answer 229

-uses fluid and hairs to convert the mechanical signal into a neuronal signal, known as transduction.

Answer 230

- is a membrane covered opening between the middle ear and the inner ear, similar to the oval window. It helps the fluid expand and vibrate.

Answer 231

-has fluid and hairs just like the cochlea but gives information about the person’s movement. It is also the reason we get dizzy.

Answer 232

1) Cornea 2) Iris 3) Pupil 4) Lens 5) Retina 6) Fovea 7) Amacrine and bipolar cells 8) optic nerve 9) optic disk 10) sclera 11) choroid

Answer 233

- transparent; focuses light and protects the eye.

Answer 234

- controls the size of the pupil.

Answer 235

- controls how much light enters the eye.

Answer 236

- focuses images on retina.

Answer 237

- back of the eye that has photoreceptors (rods + cones).

Answer 238

-function at low levels of light and are responsible for low-light perception.

Answer 239

- function at high levels of light and are responsible for color perception.

Answer 240

- highest concentration of photoreceptors in the retina and responsible for high acuity vision.

Answer 241

- take information from rods and cones, transmitting the information to ganglion cells of the optic nerve fibers.

Answer 242

- bundle of axons that transmits visual information to the brain.

Answer 243

- the blind spot of the eye, where the optic nerve passes through to reach the brain.

Answer 244

- protective connective tissue that surrounds the eye, the “white part” of the eye.

Answer 245

- vascular connective tissue.

Answer 246

1) salty 2) sweet 3) bitter 4) sour 5) unamy

Answer 247

1) thalamus 2) gustatory cortex

Answer 248

1) olfactory receptor cells 2) olfactory cortex 3) orbitofrontal cortex Smell, also known as olfaction, is the general term for sensing odor molecules, whereas smell perception is the ability to experience a smell. While this distinction may sound minimal, it plays an important role in distinguishing different lines of research

Answer 249

1) smooth muscle 2) cardiac muscle 3) skeletal muscle.

Answer 250

- Present in organs, airways blood vessels - involuntary - 1 nucleus per cell - Not striated

Answer 251

- Present in heart - Involuntary - 1 nucleus per cell - striated

Answer 252

- present around bone - voluntary - many nuclei per cell - striated

Answer 253

- means the muscle contains sarcomeres. Smooth muscle therefore lacks sarcomeres, whereas cardiac and skeletal muscle contain them.

Answer 254

1) intercalated discs 2) desmosomes 3) gap junctions 4) ion exchange 5) electrical impulse propagation

Answer 255

1) skeletal muscles Muscle → Muscle fascicles → Muscle fibers (muscle cells) → Myofibrils (contractile protein)

Answer 256

1) sarcolemma

Answer 257

1) sarcoplasm 2) myofibrils

Answer 258

1) Epimysium 2) Perimysium 3) Endomysium

Answer 259

- The most superficial sheath. Covers the muscle itself.

Answer 260

- Covers the muscle fascicles.

Answer 261

- The deepest sheath. Covers the muscle fibers.

Answer 262

1) contract

Answer 263

- are the functional unit of muscle fibers and shorten to cause muscle contraction.

Answer 264

-are contained within sarcomeres, divided into thin actin filaments and thick myosin filaments. These filaments slide past each other to shorten sarcomeres through the sliding filament model of muscle contraction.

Answer 265

1. Action potential propagation reaches the end of a motor neuron’s axon. 2. Acetylcholine is released as a neurotransmitter between the presynaptic motor neuron and postsynaptic skeletal muscle fiber at the neuromuscular junction. 3. Acetylcholine binds to ligand - gated sodium channels, causing sodium to enter the cell, which creates graded potentials on the muscle fibers. 4. The graded potentials trigger opening of voltage-gated sodium channels, which may produce action potentials on the muscle if the stimulus is large enough.

Answer 266

1) sarcolemma 2) striated muscles 3) T-tubules

Answer 267

1) sarcoplasmic reticulum 2) releases stored calcium ions 3) depolarization

Answer 268

1) Calcium ions 2) troponin 3) tropomyosin 4) sliding filaments

Answer 269

1. Initiation: Calcium ions expose the myosin-binding-sites on actin. 2. A cocked back, high energy myosin head (containing ADP and Pi) forms a cross bridge with the actin. 3. The myosin head contracts and the power stroke occurs, bringing the myosin head back to a low energy state and releasing ADP and Pi (inorganic phosphate). As a result, the sarcomere shortens. 4. A new ATP molecule binds to myosin, causing detachment of the myosin head from the actin filament. 5. The myosin head is an ATPase, and it hydrolyzes the ATP into ADP and Pi. This causes the myosin head to re-enter a cocked back, high energy state. (Return to Step 2 if calcium ions present). 6. Termination: Neuronal signaling from motor neurons ends. The sarcoplasmic reticulum pumps calcium back into itself, and troponin brings tropomyosin back to cover myosin-binding sites on actin.

Answer 270

1) Rigor Mortis

Answer 271

1) Z lines 2) M lines 3) I band 4) A band 5) H zone **Refer to page 96 DAT Bootcamp for image**

Answer 272

-are the ends of the sarcomeres. Thin actin filaments branch from the Z lines towards the middle of the sarcomere.

Answer 273

- are the midpoints of the sarcomeres. Thick myosin filaments branch from the M lines towards the ends of the sarcomere.

Answer 274

- is the area in the sarcomere where only actin filaments are present. (Mnemonic: “I” is a thin letter, representing thin actin filaments)

Answer 275

- is the area in the sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap.

Answer 276

- is the area in the sarcomere where only myosin is present. (Mnemonic: “H” is a thick letter, representing thick myosin filaments)

Answer 277

- make up muscles; a motor unit refers to all the muscle fibers innervated by a single neuron.

Answer 278

- include only a few muscle fibers and are used in precision movement.

Answer 279

- include many muscle fibers that are innervated by a single neuron and are used in powerful movements.

Answer 280

1. Slow oxidative fibers (type I fibers) 2. Fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers (type II-a fibers) 3. Fast glycolytic fibers (type II-b fibers)

Answer 281

- dark red - aerobic - small in diameter - weak contraction strength - efficient and fatigue resistant

Answer 282

- Dark red - aerobic/anaerobic - intermediate in diameter - strong contraction strength - intermediate efficiency and fatigue resistance

Answer 283

- white - anaerobic - large in diameter - strongest contraction strength - somewhat inefficient and fatigue quickly

Answer 284

- is the contraction of a muscle fiber through motor unit stimulation. Each twitch has the same size and duration. Twitch contractions also follow the all-or-none principle, which states that a depolarization will cause all the muscle fibers to twitch if it is above threshold potential but will not cause any twitching if the depolarization is below threshold potential.

Answer 285

- same size and duration

Answer 286

1) all-or-none principle

Answer 287

1) Latent 2) Contraction 3) Relaxation

Answer 288

- action potential spreads over sarcolemma and T-tubules, signaling to sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium.

Answer 289

- formation of cross bridges as a result of calcium ions binding to troponin. H zones shrink and muscle tension increases.

Answer 290

- calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, ending cross bridge cycling and decreasing muscle tension.

Answer 291

- is the process by which twitches add up to create a larger overall contraction. 2 types: 1) Wave summation (temporal summation) 2) motor unit summation

Answer 292

- depolarizing a motor unit again during the relaxation phase. May cause tetanus, which is when the muscle fibers cannot be further stimulated due to a lack of relaxation. Twitches blend together during tetany, eventually causing fatigue (loss of muscle contraction).

Answer 293

- different motor units are stimulated at different times to produce the intended amount of muscle contraction. This is also known as the size principle of motor unit recruitment because smaller motor units are stimulated first before larger motor units come in to help.

Answer 294

1) involuntary 2) muscle tone 3) fatigue

Answer 295

1) exoskeleton 2) invertebrates 3) arthropods

Answer 296

1) Vertebrates 2) inside 3) axial skeleton 4) appendicular skeleton

Answer 297

1) Long Bones 2) short bones 3) Flat bones 4) Sesamoid Bones 5) Irregular Bones

Answer 298

- made of cortical bone (compact) and pockets of cancellous bone (spongy). Important features include the epiphysis, diaphysis, medullary cavity, metaphysis, and epiphyseal plate.

Answer 299

- end of a long bone that forms joints with other bones and contains red bone marrow for hematopoiesis (blood cell synthesis).

Answer 300

- long hollow shaft in center of bone.

Answer 301

- located within the diaphysis and contains red and yellow bone marrow (area of fat storage).

Answer 302

- similar to epiphyses and found between the medullary cavity and epiphyseal plates.

Answer 303

- “growth plate” located between epiphysis and metaphysis. Made out of hyaline cartilage and works to lengthen the diaphysis through growth and ossification.

Answer 304

- as wide as they are long and mainly provide support (eg. parts of the wrist).

Answer 305

- mainly provide protection (eg. skull).

Answer 306

- found within tendons to help muscles pull (eg. kneecap).

Answer 307

- irregularly shaped (eg. pelvis).

Answer 308

- is the dense outer layer of bone that supports the weight of our bodies. It is composed of many microstructures: 1) osteons 2) haversian canals 3) lamellae 4) lacunae 5) canaliculi 6) volkmann's canals

Answer 309

- cortical bone’s functional unit, composed of tiny multi-layered cylinders. Also known as haversian systems because they contain a haversian canal in their center.

Answer 310

- ‘tubes’ that contain blood vessels for nutrient supply.

Answer 311

- layers of the osteon.

Answer 312

- small spaces between lamellae that hold bone cells and interconnect through canaliculi.

Answer 313

- small channels that connect lacunae and the haversian canal.

Answer 314

- connect Haversian canals to the periosteum, which provides nutrients.

Answer 315

- is the spongy inner layer of bone that soaks up red bone marrow via a web of trabeculae (connective tissue that supports cancellous bone).

Answer 316

- is the process of going back and forth between the processes of ossification (bone formation) and resorption (bone loss).

Answer 317

1) osteoprogenitors 2) osteoblasts 3) osteocytes 4) osteoclasts

Answer 318

- immature precursor cells that differentiate into osteoblasts.

Answer 319

- build bone by secreting proteins and utilizing blood calcium. They mature into osteocytes after getting trapped inside the bone matrix they create.

Answer 320

- live in lacunae in osteons to maintain bone.

Answer 321

- eat and resorb bone, releasing calcium and phosphate back into the blood. Derived from monocytes.

Answer 322

1) Parathyroid hormone 2) Vit D 3) Calcitonin

Answer 323

- increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts and depressing osteoblasts. Secreted by the parathyroid gland.

Answer 324

- increases blood calcium levels by raising intestinal calcium absorption. Activated by parathyroid hormone, but provides negative feedback on PTH production.

Answer 325

- decreases blood calcium levels by depressing osteoclasts, allowing osteoblasts to build bone without competition. Secreted by parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid gland. Mnemonic: CalciTONin = “Tone it down”

Answer 326

- is the organic component of bone containing many proteins such as collagen (gives bone tensile strength).

Answer 327

- is the inorganic mineral component of bone that gives the bone density

Answer 328

1) intramembranous ossification 2) endochondral ossification

Answer 329

- bone is created directly within fibrous membranes, mainly for flat bones. Osteoblasts start by secreting osteoid, which hardens and houses osteocytes. Eventually, cortical bone is created.

Answer 330

- bone is created indirectly through a cartilage model, mainly for long bones. The cartilage model calcifies during fetal development, creating ossification centers that help form the features of long bones.

Answer 331

1) Fibrous connective tissues 2) cartilage 3) joints

Answer 332

- has a matrix made up of fibers. includes: - tendons - ligaments - periosteum - endosteum

Answer 333

- connect muscle to bone.

Answer 334

- connect bone to bone.

Answer 335

- membrane that covers cortical bone with an outer fibrous layer (vascularized) and an inner/cambium layer (collagen for attachment to cortical bone)

Answer 336

- membrane located between cortical and cancellous bone.

Answer 337

- is avascular (lacks blood vessels) and is not innervated (as opposed to bone which is highly vascular and innervated).

Answer 338

-build cartilage by secreting collagen and elastin. Includes: 1) Hyaline cartilage 2) fibrous cartilage 3) elastic cartilage

Answer 339

- slightly flexible and important in providing support and stability to joints.

Answer 340

- high rigidity and resists tension, found in intervertebral discs and knee meniscus.

Answer 341

- highly flexible and found in ears and epiglottis.

Answer 342

- are vascularized and innervated. They are found between bones. Below are types of joints: 1) Synarthroses 2) amphiarthroses 3) diathroses

Answer 343

- dense, fibrous joints that do not move.

Answer 344

- cartilaginous joints that partially move.

Answer 345

- synovial joints that fully move. Typically contain hyaline cartilage.

Answer 346

1) Endocrine 2) paracrine 3) autocrine

Answer 347

- through the bloodstream.

Answer 348

- to neighboring cells.

Answer 349

- onto the same cell that is secreting the hormone.

Answer 350

1) peptide hormones (protein hormones) 2) Steroid Hormones 3) amino acid derived hormones

Answer 351

- produced in the rough ER and made of amino acids connected by peptide bonds.

Answer 352

- binds to cell surface receptors because they cannot pass freely through the cell membrane as a result of being water-soluble (and not lipid-soluble). The process of hormone function is an indirect stimulation. The two ways the signal can be received is through intracellular secondary messengers or ligand-gated ion channels. Common secondary messengers include: ● cAMP (cyclic AMP) ● IP3 (inositol triphosphate) ● DAG (diacylglycerol) ● Calcium ions (Ca 2+)

Answer 353

1) IP3/DAG 2) calcium channels 3) ER

Answer 354

1) G protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) 2) secondary messenger 3) G protein

Answer 355

1) Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) 2) Peptide Hormone (e.g.: Epidermal Growth Factor)

Answer 356

1) second messenger system

Answer 357

- change shape upon binding to peptide hormones, allowing ions to flow across the cell membrane. No second messengers are involved.

Answer 358

- produced in the smooth ER and made up of a fused 4-ring structure. All steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol. - all hormones produced by the adrenal cortex (glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgenic steroids) and reproductive organs (progesterone, testosterone, estrogen).

Answer 359

- requires a protein carrier to travel through the bloodstream due to being lipophilic. Freely crosses the cell membrane, and binds to receptors either in the cytoplasm or the nucleus to form molecule-receptor complexes that bind to DNA, and influence gene transcription. This process is known as direct stimulation.

Answer 360

1) molecule-receptor complexes 2) direct stimulation

Answer 361

1) slow and gradual

Answer 362

- produced in rough ER and cytosol. Mainly derived from the amino acid tyrosine. - Can have properties that are similar to both peptide hormones and steroid hormones. Examples - all hormones produced by the adrenal medulla (epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are water-soluble). Also includes charged amino-acid derivatives T3 and T4 (lipid-soluble).

Answer 363

- coordinates the body’s internal environment and maintains homeostasis.

Answer 364

- is under the hypothalamus and is composed of two lobes: 1) the anterior pituitary 2) the posterior pituitary.

Answer 365

- Known as the neurohypophysis because it is made of neuronal tissue. It is a direct neuronal extension of the hypothalamus.

Answer 366

1) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH aka vasopressin) 2) oxytocin

Answer 367

- decreases urination by increasing water retention. Targets nephrons, increasing the number of aquaporins for water reuptake.

Answer 368

- causes uterine contractions during child labor and the release of milk during breastfeeding (mammary gland). Oxytocin also plays an important role in facilitating maternal behavior (drive to be a good parent).

Answer 369

- Known as the adenohypophysis, it is made of glandular tissue, and produces its own hormones. It is connected to the hypothalamus through a hypophyseal portal system, which allows for quick diffusion of hormones through a portal vein. Hypothalamic-releasing hormones are released by the hypothalamus to stimulate the anterior pituitary to release other hormones.

Answer 370

1) Adenohypophysis 2) hypothalamus 3) hypophyseal portal system 4) anterior pitituary

Answer 371

- GnRH - TRH - CRH - GRH

Answer 372

- causes release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).

Answer 373

- causes release of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

Answer 374

- causes release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

Answer 375

- causes release of growth hormone (GH).

Answer 376

- are released by the hypothalamus to inhibit the release of other hormones by the anterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary then produces its own hormones, classified as: 1) tropic hormones 2) direct hormones.

Answer 377

- target other endocrine glands for further hormone release. Important examples released from the anterior pituitary: 1) FSH 2) LH 3) ACTH 4) TSH

Answer 378

- follicle growth (females) and sperm maturation (males) in the gonads.

Answer 379

- stimulates ovulation, corpus luteum formation (females), and testosterone production (males) in the gonads.

Answer 380

- stimulates release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal gland to fight stress. This also leads to an increase in glucose levels in the body.

Answer 381

- stimulates T3 and T4 production by the thyroid gland to increase metabolism.

Answer 382

- target organs directly for effects. Important examples released from the anterior pituitary: 1) prolactin 2) growth hormones

Answer 383

- stimulates mammary gland development and increases milk production after childbirth.

Answer 384

- stimulates body cells to grow and divide.

Answer 385

1) pineal gland 2) melatonin

Answer 386

- is the largest endocrine organ and is located in front of the trachea.

Answer 387

1) T3 2) T4 3) Calcitonin

Answer 388

- released in response to TSH and increases metabolism in the body. Has a negative feedback effect on TSH secretion.

Answer 389

- performs the same actions as T3 above. However, T4 has one more iodine and gets converted into T3 upon cell uptake. It is much less potent than T3 but is more stable in the blood.

Answer 390

- secreted by parafollicular thyroid cells (C cells) to decrease blood calcium levels. Stimulates osteoblasts to use up blood calcium to build bone and inhibits osteoclasts. Also decreases calcium uptake in intestines and kidneys.

Answer 391

- describes the under-secretion of T3 and T4, resulting in reduced levels of metabolism in the body.

Answer 392

- describes the over-secretion of T3 and T4, resulting in increased levels of metabolism in the body.

Answer 393

1) hypothyroidism 2) hyperthyroidism 3) goiter 4) hypothyroidism 5) over-secretion 6) low 7) enlarging 8) hyperthyroidism

Answer 394

- is the irregular growth of the thyroid gland. Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of a goiter.

Answer 395

- secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH) which performs in the opposite way as calcitonin. It stimulates osteoclasts and decreases calcium uptake by bones. Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium levels.

Answer 396

-is a gland that contains exocrine and endocrine tissue.

Answer 397

- secretes digestive enzymes through the pancreatic duct to the small intestine.

Answer 398

- secretes glucagon, insulin and somatostatin. These three hormones are each secreted by a different cell type such as: 1) Alpha cells 2) Beta Cells 3) Delta cells

Answer 399

- secrete glucagon in response to low blood glucose levels. Glucagon raises glucose levels by stimulating the liver and fat tissue to release their glucose storages.

Answer 400

- secrete insulin in response to high blood glucose levels. Insulin lowers glucose levels by stimulating the liver, muscle, and fat tissue to store glucose.

Answer 401

-is a peptide hormone that triggers intracellular secondary messengers to increase glucose transporters along the cell membrane, leading to a decrease in blood glucose levels.

Answer 402

- secrete somatostatin, which inhibits growth hormone. It also inhibits the secretion of glucagon and insulin.

Answer 403

1) two 2) outer cortex 3) inner medulla

Answer 404

● Deals with longer term stress. ● Stimulated by secretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary. ● Releases steroid hormones. ● Produces glucocorticoids (i.e. cortisol) to raise blood glucose levels for immediate fuel during periods of long-term stress. However, this also lowers our immune response. ● Produces mineralocorticoids (i.e. aldosterone) to increase blood volume and blood pressure by raising reabsorption of Na+. Water passively gets reabsorbed with Na+ due to osmosis. ● Produces a small amount of male sex hormones (androgens).

Answer 405

● Deals with short-term stress. ● Stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system. ● Releases amino-acid derived hormones. ● Produces catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) to initiate “fight or flight” response by increasing heart rate and the breakdown of glucose. Epinephrine binds both alpha (α) and beta (β) adrenergic receptors to cause vasoconstriction (alpha) and vasodilation (beta).

Answer 406

1) LH and FSH 2) progesterone 3) estrogen 4) androgen

Answer 407

● LH - during menstrual cycle, the LH surge causes ovulation. This results in the formation of a corpus luteum, which produces progesterone and estrogen. ● FSH - stimulates follicle growth in ovaries, which results in the increased production

Answer 408

● LH - triggers testosterone production by Leydig cells. ● FSH - stimulates sperm maturation.

Answer 409

1) feedback systems

Answer 410

- the change causes the amplification of itself, forming a loop that continues to intensify. You can think of it as promoting exponential growth.

Answer 411

- the change causes the inhibition of itself, forming a loop that prevents hormone overproduction. You can think of it as promoting stability in the body.

Answer 412

***Page 106 DAT Bootcamp***

Answer 413

- is the process of breaking down large food into smaller substances for absorption by the body. - can occur via intracellular or extracellular digestion

Answer 414

= within cells (eg: amoeba pseudopods bring food inside its single cell for digestion).

Answer 415

- are temporary protrusions of the cell membrane found in protists for cell movement and feeding (e.g.: amoeba pseudopods)

Answer 416

- = outside of cells (eg: humans digest food then brings nutrients into its cell for further processing)

Answer 417

1) pancreas 2) liver 3) gallbladder

Answer 418

- mouth and anus

Answer 419

- physical breakdown of food

Answer 420

= chemical breakdown of food, using enzymes.

Answer 421

1) mouth 2) Salivary amylase 3) maltose 4) bolus

Answer 422

1) pharynx 2) trachea 3) esophagus 4) epiglottis

Answer 423

1) peristalsis 2) upper third 3) skeletal muscle 4) smooth muscle 5) mixture

Answer 424

1) cardiac sphincter 2) mechanical 3) chemical

Answer 425

1) gastric pits 2) mucous cells 3) distend 4) G cells 5) Parietal Cells 6) Chief Cells

Answer 426

- releases extremely acidic gastric juice (pH= 2; high HCl concentration).

Answer 427

- secretes gastric lipase (breaks down fats to fatty acids + glycerol) and pepsinogen (a zymogen - an inactive enzyme precursor that prevents digestion of cell itself) which activates to pepsin in acid. Pepsin cleaves peptide bonds (proteins → amino acids).

Answer 428

1) small intestine 2) pyloric sphincter

Answer 429

1) small intestine 2) 90% 3) 3 4) duodenum 5) jejunum 6) ileum

Answer 430

- secrete mucus to protect the epithelial lining from acidic chyme. Chyme also triggers the release of secretin (a hormone), which stimulates the pancreas to release basic bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the duodenum via the pancreatic duct. Secretin is released by S-cells from the duodenum

Answer 431

1) secretin 2) pancreas 3) bicarbonate ions (HCO3) 4) pancreatic duct

Answer 432

1) Cholecystokinin (CCK) 2) proteins and fats 3) small intestine 4) slows 5) stimulates 6) gallbladder 7) bile

Answer 433

- is produced by the liver and stored and concentrated by the gallbladder. Bile is important for the absorption of lipids (fats) from our diets.

Answer 434

1) pancreas 2) HCO3- 3) pancreatic amylase 4) proteases

Answer 435

1) Trypsin 2) chymotrypsin 3) zymogen 4) enteropeptidase 5) duodenum 6) trypsin 7) chymotrypsinogen

Answer 436

1) jejenum 2) ileum 3) ileocecal sphincter

Answer 437

1) villi 2) enterocytes 3) surface area 4) absorption efficiency 5) crypts

Answer 438

1) nutrients 2) blood capillaries 3) fats 4) lacteals

Answer 439

1) liver - Blood maintenance - glucose metabolism - protein metabolism Mnemonic: Liver functions - PUSH DoG Protein synthesis Urea synthesis Storage Hormone synthesis DetOxification Glucose and fat metabolism

Answer 440

● Stores blood. ● Filters and detoxifies blood coming from the digestive system via the hepatic portal system. ● Detoxifies the body by metabolizing chemicals and drugs, removing the by-products as waste via bile → intestines, and kidneys → urine. ● Destroys erythrocytes and bacteria. Kupffer cells (phagocytes) eat bacteria and break down hemoglobin in red blood cells (red) to bilirubin (yellow) for secretion in the bile.

Answer 441

● Glycogenesis - converts excess glucose into glycogen for storage in the liver (after meals). ● Glycogenolysis - breaks down glycogen to glucose for bodily use (between meals). ● Gluconeogenesis - converts glycerol and amino acids into glucose when glycogen stores are depleted.

Answer 442

● Synthesizes plasma proteins from amino acids (albumin and blood clotting factors). ● Converts ammonia (dangerous byproduct of protein metabolism) into urea (safer) for excretion.

Answer 443

1) absorption 2)cecum 3)immune 4)colon 5) rectum 6) aiding digestion 7) 99% 8) obligate anaerobes 9) microbiome

Answer 444

1. Water absorption. 2. Mineral absorption (salts). 3. Vitamin production and absorption: in a mutualistic relationship, bacteria produce vitamins B and K (absorbed), metabolize bile acid, and ferment fiber.

Answer 445

- G cells of stomach - Stimulate parietal cells to create gastric juice - Stimulate chief cells to release pepsinogen + lipase

Answer 446

- Duodenum - Stimulate pancreas to release bicarbonate to neutralize acidic chyme

Answer 447

- Duodenum - Stimulate gallbladder to release bile - Stimulate pancreas to release digestive enzymes (trypsin)

Answer 448

- Mouth - Digest carbohydrates to simple sugars

Answer 449

- Chief cells stomach - Digest fats to fatty acids

Answer 450

- Chief cells of stomach - Digest proteins to amino acids

Answer 451

- Pancreas - Digest carbohydrates to simple sugars

Answer 452

- Pancreas - Activated to trypsin and chymotrypsin in duodenum - Digests proteins to amino acids

Answer 453

- Duodenum - Trypsinogen → Trypsin

Answer 454

1) Bile acid metabolism 2) sufficient 3) impairing

Answer 455

-is the filtering out of metabolic wastes from the body’s fluids and eliminating them as urine.

Answer 456

- is the absorption and excretion of water and solutes, so an organism can maintain a proper water balance.

Answer 457

1. Marine (saltwater) fish. Marine fish are hypoosmotic to their environment. They are less salty than the surrounding saltwater. Therefore, they’re constantly losing water to their environment. As a result, marine fish: a. Constantly drink water b. Rarely urinate c. Secrete accumulated salts through their gills 2. Freshwater fish. Freshwater fish are hyperosmotic to their environment. They are more salty than the surrounding freshwater. Therefore, they’re constantly absorbing too much water. As a result, freshwater fish: a. Rarely drink water b. Constantly urinate c. Absorb salts through their gills

Answer 458

1) two 2) cortex 3) medulla 4) pelvis

Answer 459

● Regulation of blood pressure ● Regulation of blood pH ● Stimulates the generation of new red blood cells

Answer 460

- is a single, functional unit of a kidney.

Answer 461

1. Filtration 2. Reabsorption 3. Secretion 4. Excretion

Answer 462

Filtration occurs in the cortex at the renal corpuscle, which consists of the glomerulus and the Bowman’s capsule. Blood enters from the afferent arteriole into the glomerulus, which acts as a sieve. Hydrostatic pressure forces plasma through the sieve. Hydrostatic pressure from the blood is the main force driving filtration in Bowman’s capsule. Podocytes from the Bowman’s capsule surround the glomerulus to form fenestrations that allow small substances (water and solutes) to be filtered into the Bowman’s capsule while larger substances (proteins and blood cells) remain in the blood. The glomerulus exits the Bowman’s capsule via the efferent arteriole, which goes on to form the peritubular capillaries.

Answer 463

1) cortex 2) renal corpuscle 3) glomerulus 4) bowman's capsule 5) afferent arteriole 6) Hydrostatic Pressure 7) blood 8) Podocytes 9) fenestrations 10) small 11) larger 12) glomerulus 13) efferent arteriole 14) peritubular capillaries

Answer 464

Most of the reabsorption occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule through active transport. The distal convoluted tubule reabsorbs Na+ and Cl-. Glucose and amino acids are two molecules that the nephron reabsorbs almost completely. This is because of their importance in the body.

Answer 465

1) reabsorption 2) proximal convoluted tubule 3) active transport 4) distal convoluted tubule 5) Na+ 6) Cl- 7) glucose 8) amino acids

Answer 466

Urea, waste products, and drugs are secreted into the nephron by active and passive transport. The loop of Henle descends into the medulla and has selective permeability. It is surrounded by the vasa recta (capillaries running parallel to the loop of Henle). Water is reabsorbed into the blood as the filtrate travels down the descending limb (filtrate becomes more concentrated). Solutes are reabsorbed as the filtrate travels up the ascending limb (filtrate becomes less concentrated). The ascending limb is impermeable to water.

Answer 467

1) Urea 2) waste products 3) drugs 4) nephron 5) active 6) passive

Answer 468

1) loop of henle 2) medulla 3) selective 4) vasa recta

Answer 469

1) reabsorbed 2) blood 3) descending limb

Answer 470

1) solutes 2) up 3) ascending limb 4) impermeable

Answer 471

From the loop of Henle, the filtrate goes to the distal convoluted tubule. Na+ and Cl- are reabsorbed here, with water following passively. The filtrate then travels to the collecting duct, where water passively moves out and concentrates the urine. The urine travels to the renal pelvis and then to the ureter. The ureter connects the kidney to the bladder, where urine is stored. When the signal is received, urine is excreted from the bladder and the body via the urethra.

Answer 472

1) Loop of Henle 2) distal convoluted tubule 3) water 4) collecting duct 5) out 6) urine 7) renal pelvis 8) ureter 9) kidney 10) bladder 11) urine 12) bladder 13) urethra

Answer 473

1) Renin 2) angiotensinogen 3) angiotensin 1 4) Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) 5) angiotensin II 6) aldosterone 7) antidiuretic hormone 8) atrial natriuretic peptide

Answer 474

- can detect changes in blood pressure and volume. When blood pressure is low, these cells release renin.

Answer 475

- is an enzyme which acts on angiotensinogen to activate it to the form angiotensin I. - Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system (flight-or-flight) stimulates the kidney to release renin.

Answer 476

- acts on angiotensin I to convert it to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is the active hormone.

Answer 477

- has many effects in the body to increase blood pressure and volume. The most important are: ● It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex (so aldosterone levels increase). ● It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule (and water will follow the salt). ● It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor, causing vessels to constrict and thereby increasing total peripheral resistance (TPR). ● It makes the individual more thirsty: so they drink more and increase their blood liquid volume (increasing TPR).

Answer 478

1) aldosterone 2) adrenal gland cortex 3) increase 4) Na+ reabsorption 5) proximal tubule 6) vasoconstrictor 7) total peripheral resistance (TPR) 8) thirsty 9) increase

Answer 479

- is a mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex. It increases salt and water reabsorption and potassium secretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts.

Answer 480

- Released from the posterior pituitary upon stimulation from the hypothalamus. Causes aquaporins to insert into the collecting duct of the nephron and increases water reabsorption. Alcohol inhibits ADH, so less water is reabsorbed, and you urinate more.

Answer 481

- is produced by atrial cells in response to atrial distension by increased blood volume and pressure. ANP will reduce the blood volume and blood pressure.

Answer 482

● Increasing the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which is the rate at which the kidneys filter blood. ● Decreasing sodium reabsorption ● Increasing sodium excretion ● inhibiting renin and the renin angiotensin aldosterone system (RAAS).

Answer 483

1) integumentary system 2) epidermis 3) dermis 4) hypodermis 5) homeostasis 6) Vit D 7) protection

Answer 484

1) simple 2) stratified 3) squamous 4) cuboidal 5) columnar

Answer 485

1) epidermis 2) keratinocytes 3) dehydration 4) UV radiation 5) pathogens

Answer 486

1) Corneum 2) Lucidum 3) Granulosum 4) spinosum 5) Basale

Answer 487

- Corneocytes (dead keratinocytes) form the outermost, protective layer.

Answer 488

- Dead keratinocytes that are not yet fully differentiated into corneocytes. *It’s present in palms and soles.

Answer 489

- Keratinocytes secrete lamellar bodies to form a water-barrier.

Answer 490

- Important for strength (desmosomes) and immunity (Langerhans cells).

Answer 491

- Deepest layer, the basement membrane (basal lamina) separates it from the dermis. Attaches to basal lamina via hemidesmosomes. Layer of the skin that protects it from UV radiation. Precursor keratinocyte stem cells proliferate here. Light touch sensation (Merkel cells) and melanin synthesis (melanocytes) occurs here.

Answer 492

1) basal lamina 2) hemidesmosomes 3) UV radiation 4) keratinocyte 5) Merkel Cells 6) melanocytes

Answer 493

1) dermis 2) papillary dermis 3) reticular dermis

Answer 494

1) hair 2) keratin 3) erector pili

Answer 495

1) Sudoriferous (sweat) glands 2) Sebaceous glands

Answer 496

1) Eccrine Glands 2) Apocrine glands

Answer 497

- are located on the entire body surface and are important in thermoregulation.

Answer 498

- are located at specific sites and secrete into a hair follicle. They produce earwax (ceruminous) or milk(mammary), depending on their location.

Answer 499

- are located over the entire body except at the palms of hands and soles of feet. They secrete sebum (oils + wax) into a hair follicle

Answer 500

1) hypodermis 2) deepest 3) larger 4) loose connective 5) adipose 6) fat storage

Human Systems Flashcards

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