Hypertension & Acute Coronary Syndrome Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

What are the big 3 causes of chest pain?

A

Acute coronary syndrome
Pulmonary embolism
Acute aortic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is acute aortic syndrome?

A

AAA
Dissection
Rupture
Penetrating ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is acute coronary syndrome?

A

STEMI, NSTEMI, unstable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main types of hypertension?

A

Essential and secondary hypertension

Essential hypertension = cause unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What endocrine syndrome is a common cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Conn’s syndrome

Hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is stage 1, 2 and 3 hypertension

-give the clinic and the ABPM/HBPM readings

A

1 clinic >140/90, home >130/85
2 clinic >160/100, home >150/95
3 clinic sBP >180 or dBP >120 = severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is masked hypertension?

A

Clinic less than 140/90 but home readings higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is accelerated AKA malignant hypertension?

A

> 180/20 plus hypertensive retinopathy or papilledema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the white coat effect?

A

> 20 systolic or 10 diastolic difference between clinic and average home readings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In basic terms, why does hypertension predispose heart failure?

A

Heart strain due to pumping against increased resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When do you offer ABPM?

A

If clinic >140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What test would you do if you suspected Conn’s syndrome?

A

Renin aldosterone ratio blood test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line management of hypertension?

A

1st: If aged under 55 years ACEI or ARB
If aged over 55 years or black skin CCB

2nd: aged under 55: (ACEI or ARB) + (CCB or thiazide diuretic)
aged >55 or block skin: CCB + (ACEI or ARB or thiazide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the 3rd line management of hypertension?

A

ACEI/ARB + CCB + thiazide diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the 4th line management of hypertension?

A

Confirm elevated BP with ABPM
If K <4.5 add low dose spironolactone
If K >4.5 add alpha blocker or beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What stage of hypertension management is considered resistant hypertension?

A

4th line management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If blood pressure is uncontrolled on X number of drugs at optimal doses, seek expert help.. how many is X?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which antihypertensive causes angioedema as a SE?

A

ACEI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which antihypertensive causes urticaria as a SE?

A

ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which antihypertensive causes bronchospasm as a SE?

A

BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which antihypertensive causes gout as a SE?

A

Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which antihypertensive causes gingival hypertrophy as a SE?

A

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which antihypertensive causes ankle edema as a SE?

A

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which antihypertensive causes is also an antiandrogen?

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis?
ACEI | Also contraindicated in pregnancy and severe CKD
26
What is the mechanism of labetalol?
Alpha and beta blocker
27
What is the mechanism of prazosin?
A1 alpha blocker
28
What is the BP targets in hypertension?
Age under 80 clinic <140/90 | Age over 80 clinic <150/90
29
What is the effect of spironolactone and thiazide diuretics on potassium?
Thiazide diuretics case hypokalaemia | Spironolactone is potassium sparing - hyperkalaemia
30
What group of antihypertensives should be used with caution in heart failure
BB
31
Out of LDL and HDL, which is the good and bad cholesterol
LDL bad, HDL good
32
What is name of the scoring system for cardiovascular risk? At what cut off should you start primary prevention?
ASSIGN >20 (Primary prevention is to prevent an event, secondary prevention is after an event to prevent recurrence)
33
What is the mechanism of statins?
HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor
34
Xanthomata, xanthelasma and xanthoma are all presentations of dyslipidaemia - which body parts do each refer to?
Xanthomata - fingers Xanthelasma - eyes Xanthoma - joints
35
What sign can be seen in the iris of the eye in severe dyslipidaemia?
Corneal arcus
36
What food interacts with statins?
Grapefruit juice | Also alcohol, St Johns wort, clarithromycin
37
Name 4 side effects of statins
Myalgia Rhabdomyolisis Raised CK Transient raise in ALT and AST
38
What is the 1st line statin?
Atorvastatin (second line simvastatin) (statins are taken at night)
39
What blood tests should you monitor when initiating statins? And when?
At 3 months check LFTs and lipids (total cholesterol, triglycerides, HDL) Recheck at 1yr
40
In high cholesterol, what percentage reduction are you aiming for in non-HDL? What do you do if not achieved?
40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol | If not titrate dose up
41
What is the second line management of high cholesterol?
Ezetimibe
42
Put the stages of atherosclerosis in the correct order: - Atherosclerotic plaque - Normal - Fibrous plaque - Plaque rupture + thrombosis - Fatty streak
``` Normal Fatty steak Fibrous plaque Atherosclerotic plaque Plaque rupture + thrombosis ```
43
Here are the stages of atherosclerosis: normal > fatty streak > fibrous plaque > atherosclerotic plaque > plaque rupture + thrombosis Which stages are clinically silent? At which stages do you see stable angina or intermittent claudication? At which stages to do see ACS, CVAs or leg ischaemia?
Normal / fatty streak both clinically silent Fibrous plaques and atherosclerotic plaques cause stable angina and intermittent claudication Plaque rupture causes ACS, CVAs and leg ischaemia
44
How would you clinically differentiate stable and unstable angina - in terms of triggers and relief
Stable angina is relieved by rest and GTN and provoked by exercise or the cold Unstable angina occurs at rest and the pain is more intense
45
What are troponins in unstable angina?
Normal
46
How could you clinically differentiate an NSTEMI and unstable angina?
Unstable angina typically lasts under 15 minutes unlike a NSTEMI
47
What test is diagnostic of stable angina?
None - it is a clinical diagnosis | Though perform an ECG, FBC, U+Es, LFTs, a lipid profile, HbA1C and fasting glucose for the work up
48
GTN vasodilates or vasoconstricts
Vasodilates
49
During angina symptoms, after how many minutes could you repeat a dose of GTN?
After 5 minutes repeat | If pain still present 5 minutes after the repeat dose, call an ambulance
50
What is the basic pathology of unstable angina?
Plaque rupture - with a platelet rich clot on top
51
What scar does a CABG leave? What scar does percutaneous coronary intervention with balloon angioplasty leave? What vein is harvested in a CABG?
CABG - median sternotomy scar CABG harvest great saphenous vein in the leg PCI - scar at site of entry at brachial/ femoral artery
52
What 3 drugs comprise 1st line management of angina
GTN + 75mg aspirin + BB eg bisoprolol 5mg (2nd line switch BB to or add CCB eg amlodipine) (3rd line nicorandil) (Also a statin)
53
What is the difference between an STEMI and NSTEMI in terms of basic pathophysiology?
``` NSTEMI = artery open but severe narrowing STEMI = lumen blocked causing ischemia (time = muscle) ```
54
How long do symptoms last in an acute MI?
Longer than 20 mins
55
What are the ECG features of an NSTEMI?
ST segment depression T wave inversion May be normal
56
What are the ECG features of a STEMI?
>1mm elevation in 2 adjacent limb leads or >2mm elevation in 1 chest lead New LBBB T wave inversion
57
A lateral MI is due to occlusion of which vessel and where would it be seen on an ECG?
Lateral = left circumflex | aVL, I, v5, v6
58
An inferior MI is due to occlusion of which vessel and where would it be seen on an ECG?
Inferior = right coronary | aVF, II, III
59
An anterior MI is due to occlusion of which vessel and where would it be seen on an ECG? BIT CONFUSED IF LEFT CORONARY OR LAD
LEFT CORONARY OR LAD
60
When to troponins peak? When should they be measured? Why do you need to interpret troponins with caution?
Peak 12-24hr Measure at onset + repeat at 12hr Non-specific myocardial damage (also raised by PE, CKD, sepsis, myocarditis, aortic dissection)
61
What is the biggest cause of death in acute MI?
Go into v-fib
62
What is the 1st line Ix for an MI, how quickly should it be given?
12 lead ECG within 10 min of arrival | patients admitted to CCU, HDU or telemetry bed
63
What is reperfusion therapy for a MI?
PCI or fibrinolysis
64
If patients with an acute STEMI are not deemed eligible for reperfusion therapy (PCI or thrombolysis) what should they be given?
180mg ticagrelor antiplatelet + aspirin antiplatelet
65
What are the indications for angiography with PCI (cath lab) for STEMI?
If under 12hr since symptom onset and PCI available within 120mins
66
What are the indications for thrombolysis for STEMI?
If under 12hr since symptom onset and PCI not available within 120mins
67
What drugs are given adjuvant to PCI?
Prasugrel and aspirin
68
What 3 drugs is given for thrombolysis?
Streptokinase 300mg aspirin 180mg ticagrelor
69
What is initial Mx of an NSTEMI?
``` BATMAN BB Aspirin 300mg ASAP Ticagrelor Morphine Anticoagulant LMWH fondaparinux 2.5mg (not if going for angiograpy) Nitrate GTN ```
70
How do you decide if NSTEMI patients get angiography?
Use scoring system eg GRACE to predict 6 month mortality. If risk >3% angiography (immediate if clinically unstable, within 72hr if stable) If risk <3% conservative Mx without angiography unless younger patient
71
What is the conservative management for NSTEMI without angiography?
Ticagrelor + aspirin + fondaparinux
72
What is the long term management secondary prevention post heart attack?
Cardiac rehab + ACEI + dual antiplatlet therapy + statin (ACEI rampipril continue indefinitely) (Dual antiplatelet aspirin + another for 12mth) (Statin 80mg atorvastatin)
73
What are the exercise recommendations for cardiac rehab?
20-30 minutes a day to the point of slight breathlessness
74
What is the mechanism of Dressler's syndrome? How long post MI does it occur? How would it appear on an ECG?
Autoimmune 2-6wk Global ST elevation
75
Management of Dressler's syndrome?
NSAIDs
76
How soon after an MI does a VSD present? What murmur does it cause? How is it diagnosed? What is the management?
In 1st week Pan-systolic murmur Echo Surgical
77
3 wk after an MI a patient presents with fever, pleuritic chest pain and a pericardial rub - what is the diagnosis?
Dressler's syndrome | with associated pericardial effusion
78
How soon after an MI does LV free wall rupture present? What is the management
After 1-2 weeks | Urgent pericardiocentesis + thoracotomy
79
Persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure following an MI could be caused by what?
LV aneurysm
80
An early-to-mid systolic murmur following an inferoposterior MI is caused by what?
Acute mitral regurgitation