I&P Year 1 Flashcards
(444 cards)
1
Q
What are the two broad types of attachment?
A
Secure and insecure
2
Q
Are these models of attachment displayed by infants secure or insecure?
1) social competence
2) positive view on their own value and safety
3) good emotional regulation and management
4) trusting
A
Secure
3
Q
What are three examples of things that provide a barrier to secure attachment?
A
Divorce
Bereavement
Long periods of hospital care
4
Q
What are the 4 stages of attachment development?
A
1) pre attachment
2) attachment in the making
3) clear cut attachment
4) good partnership
5
Q
At what stages of life do the following stages of attachment occur?
1) pre attachment
2) attachment in the making
3) clear cut attachment
4) good partnership
A
1) 0-2 months
2) 2-7 months
3) 7-24 months
4) 24 months +
6
Q
What are the two signs of secure attachment in infants?
A
Separation distress
Stranger anxiety
7
Q
When approximately will stranger anxiety begin in infants?
A
10 months
8
Q
When approximately will separation distress begin in infants?
A
12 months
9
Q
What is trans-auditory learning?
A
Where the baby listens from the womb and learns to recognise their mothers voice
10
Q
Are avoidant and resistant attachment types of secure or insecure attachment?
A
Insecure
11
Q
What is avoidant insecure attachment?
A
Where an infant avoids contact with their mother when reunited after time apart and is okay to be left with strangers
12
Q
What is resistant insecure attachment?
A
Where an infant becomes very upset by the mother leaving as they do not trust that she will return
13
Q
How do avoidant and resistant insecure attachment continue into adult relationships?
A
Avoidant insecure makes the individual dismissive of relationships
Resistant insecure makes the individual fear rejection from a partner and has a strong desire to maintain closeness
14
Q
What factors affect how your gender is determined?
A
Learning
Social factors
Cultural factors
15
Q
What are the 4 factors that determine gender in children?
A
1) prenatal hormones
2) development of genitalia
3) which gender they’re raised as
4) gender identity
16
Q
What does DSD stand for?
A
Disorders of sexual development
17
Q
What are DSDs?
A
sexual ambiguity in genitalia
18
Q
What is the name of the organisation that supports and enhances the health and wellbeing of families affected by DSDs?
A
Accord Alliance
19
Q
What is the name of first phase of gender development?
A
Gender identity self awareness
20
Q
When does gender identity self awareness begin?
A
2-3 years
21
Q
What is the name of the second phase of gender development?
A
Gender stability
22
Q
What is the name of the third phase of gender development?
A
Gender constancy
23
Q
When does the gender constancy phase begin?
A
6 years
24
Q
True or false:
Gender is interpreted only by appearance by children under 6
A
True
25
What psychological disorders are men more likely to be treated for than women?
Drug and alcohol abuse
26
What psychological disorders are women more likely to be treated for than men?
Depression and eating disorders
27
How did Jean Piaget examine child intelligence?
He investigated how children think rather than what they know
28
What are Jean Piaget stages for cognitive development?
1) sensorimotor
2) pre-operational
3) concrete operational
4) formal operation
29
At what age do Jean Piaget 4 stages of cognitive development (below) occur?
1) sensorimotor
2) pre-operational
3) concrete operational
4) formal operation
1) birth-2 years
2) 2-7 years
3) 7-11 years
4) 11+
30
At what age does object permanence develop?
8 months
31
What does the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development involve?
Knowing the physical environment by seeing and touching it so thinking is only achieved by doing
32
How long can a baby remember something when 2 months old?
A day
33
How long can a baby remember something when 3 months old?
1 week
34
How long can a baby remember something when 6 months old?
2+ weeks
35
What age do the following cognitive functions all develop by?
1) obeying simple requests
2) pointing to objects they are told to point at
3) can follow the gesture of an adult
4) demonstrates affection
5) can recognise themselves in mirrors and photos
18 months
36
What is the self identity milestone?
When infants can recognise themselves in a mirror
37
What is a schema?
A concept or framework that organises and interprets information
38
What is the word for this:?
Interpreting our new experiences in terms of our existing schemas and fully understanding it
Assimilation
39
What is the word for this?:
Modifying an old schema to fit a new object or problem
Accommodation
40
What is centration?
A period of cognitive development where young children focus their attention one one aspect of an object, situation or problem at a time and ignore other potentially relevant aspects
41
What age does centration tend to occur?
2-7 years
42
What is the 3 mountain, 3 policemen test?
A way to see if children are aware of the way others minds work
43
What is the word to describe understanding that one feature such as a mass of clay can stay the same even though the appearance changes?
Conservation
44
At what age do children have sense of conservation?
5+
45
What is the difference between formal and concrete operation?
Concrete operation is thinking in relation to real things
Formal operation is the ability to apply logic to an abstract scenario
46
What is metacognition?
Thinking about thinking in order to reflect
47
How is IQ calculated now compared to how it used to be calculated?
Old: mental age/ chronological age x100
New: using a table of standardised age scores
48
Give 4 cognitive skills tested by the Wechsler adult intelligence test?
Verbal comprehension
Perceptual reasoning
Working memory
Processing speed
49
What is the same of the IQ test used most widely by institutions?
The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test
50
What does asymmetry of function mean in terms of brain function?
The left and right brain hemispheres do different things
51
What type of experiments have been used to help understand asymmetry of function?
Split brain experiments on epileptic patients
52
Are these functions of the left or right hemisphere?
Simple language function
Spacial and pattern abilities
Emotional recognition
Right
53
Are these functions of the left or right hemisphere?
Complex language functions
Complex logical functions
Mathematical computations
Left
54
What is phonology?
The sound system of a language
55
What is a phoneme?
All the unique sounds in a language
56
How many phonemes does English have?
40
57
What are morphemes?
The smallest meaningful units of language such as small words or prefixes
58
What does syntax mean?
The form or structure of a language using combinational rules
59
What are pragmatics?
Rules about language in social contexts
60
What is echolalia?
Repeating others words of phrases
61
At what age can infants associate objects with their name?
8-12 months
62
What is overextending in an infants language development?
When they use a single word for a group of words
63
What is telegraphic speech?
A child’s first word combinations which omit unnecessary words
64
What is the word for the type of thinking using the verbal language?
Propositional thinking
65
Describe skinners view on language acquisition
Language is learnt verbally via imitation and reinforcement so the more social input children have, the better their language development
66
Describe Chomskys view on language acquisition
Language is a biologically programmed behaviour and we are born with innate share linguistic principles
67
Describe Lenneberg’s critical period hypothesis on language development
If a language is acquired after puberty there are some aspects of a language that cannot be fully mastered
68
What is this neuropathway showing?
Primary auditory area -> wernickes area -> Broca’s area -> motor area for speech
Speaking a heard word
69
What is this neuropathway showing?
primary visual area -> Angular gurus -> Wernicke’s area -> Broca’s area -> motor area for speech
Speaking a written word
70
What is expressive aphasia caused by?
Damage to Broca’s area
71
What is receptive aphasia caused by?
Damage to Wernicke’s area
72
Describe the symptoms of expressive aphasia
Difficulty in speech including stuttering, hesitation and difficulty finding words
Comprehension is largely unimpaired
73
Describe the symptoms of receptive aphasia
Impaired comprehension
Fluent, grammatical speech that lacks content and is nonsense
74
Give the three central rights of the child
1) right to life, survival and development
2) right to health and welfare
3) right to education, leisure, culture and acts
75
Give the UN right of the child regarding family
The right to live in a family environment and have contact with both parents when possible
76
Give 6 duties of parents to their child
1) provide a home
2) protect and maintain the child
3) disciplining
4) agreeing/disagreeing to medical treatment
5) choosing and providing for the child education
6) choosing the child’s region
77
What’s the difference between authoritarian, authoritative and permissive parenting?
Authoritarian - strict rules allowing no freedom, no affection and quick to punish
Authoritative - supportive with clear limits
Permissive - lenient rules, lots of freedom
78
What is the name of the parenting style model that examines how demanding and responsive a parent is?
Maccoby and Martin’s parenting style model
79
What parenting style is used if a parent is unresponsive and undemanding?
Uninvolved
80
Describe the law on reasonable chastisement in England
Parents have the right to make choices about reasonable punishment with a smack being reasonable if it is open handed and wont leave a mark
81
Give 4 common household behavioural control methods
1) naughty step
2) positive reinforcement
3) reward charts
4) house rules
82
What percentage of families contain a married couple/civil partnership?
68%
83
What percentage of families contain a single parent?
14%
84
How does a child’s relationship with other children vary from 12 months - 12+ years?
12-18 months - spend longer looking at other children than mum
2 - imitate
5 - 6 years - sex segregated groups will form
12+ years - sex mixing begins and peer approval becomes more important
85
What is sociometry?
A research method in which students rate the social status of other students
86
What is the difference between bottom-up and top-down processing?
Bottom-up is driven by sensory input whereas top-down is driven by prior knowledge or expectations
87
Why do we have binocular disparity?
our eyes are far apart so have different fields of view
88
Give 4 examples of cues that aid our perception of depth
1) vanishing points in the distance
2) texture gradients
3) relative size
4) interpositioning
89
What is interpositioning?
the placement of one object in from of another creating the perception of depth
90
What is Gestalt?
The tendency to integrate pieces of information into a meaningful whole as our brain seeks the groupings, continuity and patterns
91
Describe the idea of perceptual constancies
When an object changes orientation or angle, it doesn't change the shape or colour despite what our sensory input says
92
What is protective filtering? (in relation to perception)
only taking in the information we need and feel safe to accept
93
Summarise Huxley's Doors of Perception
The brain protects us from being overwhelmed by irrelevant information by shutting it out and only perceiving special, useful information
94
How does having hearing loss affect your other senses?
it can decrease your other senses because you're providing more attention to trying to hear
95
What was the name of the psychologist who experimented on being sane in insane places in 1973?
Rosenhan
96
What was the mean number and range of days taken for Rosenhan's pseudo-patients to get released from hospitalisation?
19 (7-52)
97
What fraction of adults do not get enough sleep?
1/3
98
What is an insufficient amount of sleep?
Less than 7 hours per night
99
What are 4 chronic diseases that lack of sleep has been linked to?
1) obesity
2) diabetes
3) heart disease
4) mental health
100
How long does a REM cycle last for?
60-90 mins
101
What are the names given to the halves of sleep that are deep sleep and lighter sleep?
Core sleep and optional sleep
102
What is the name of the chart that shows the depth of sleep throughout a night?
Hypnogram
103
What is a circadian rhythm?
The internal process that regulates the sleep wake cycle
104
What study found that each circadian cycle lasts 25 hours?
the Bunker study
105
Describe how the bunker study concluded that a circadian cycle lasts approximately 25 hours
Subjects were placed in a bunker without time indicators and their sleep cycles shifted by an hour each night
106
What percentage of the time a foetus spends is in REM sleep?
100%
107
What are parasomnias?
Abnormal movements, dreams or behaviours during sleep
108
Give 3 ways sleep changes when you get older?
1) you sleep less
2) time spent in REM and stages 3 and 4 is reduced
3) parasomnias become rarer
109
What is the mean adult sleep duration?
7.75 hrs
110
Give 3 ways we can investigate sleep
1) assessing subject sleep quality through questionnaires
2) monitoring movements using cameras or tilt switches
3) assessing features of dreams
111
What is sleep latency?
The time taken to fall asleep
112
Give 4 examples of sleep conditions
1) insomnia
2) narcolepsy
3) sleep paralysis
4) sleep deprivation
113
What percentage of the population live with insomnia?
30%
114
Give 3 causes of insomnia
1) psychological problems like depression and anxiety
2) medical disorders and pain
3) social environment like alcohol and drugs
115
Give 4 examples of insomnia treatments
1) hypnotic drugs
2) sleep education
3) sleep hygiene
4) dealing with tension and intrusive thoughts
116
What is sleep hygiene?
Behavioural changes before bed to aid sleep
117
Give 3 symptoms of narcolepsy
1) sleep attacks
2) cataplexy
3) vivid onset dreams
118
What is cataplexy?
Sudden loss of muscle control
119
What causes sleep paralysis?
REM sleep intrusion
120
What is the name of the individual who set the world record for the longest time without sleep?
Randy Gardner
121
How long did Randy Gardner stay awake for?
264 hours (11 days)
122
Describe Randy Gardners symptoms after 2, 5 and 9 days without sleep
2 days - had trouble focussing his eyes
5 days - irritable, uncooperative, memory lapses and problems concentrating
9 days - he had fragmented thought patterns, blurred vision and severe memory lapses
123
Describe Randy Gardners first sleep after being awake for 11 days
He slept for 6.5 additional hours, 93% of which was REM sleep or stages 4 sleep
124
What is human agency?
The capacity to act independent, express power and have the ability to make choices and impose those
125
Define inequality
The systematic difference in the distribution of power, resources and opportunity in a social system
126
Give the 7 UN indicators of poverty and deprivation
1) dirty water
2) lack of sanitation
3) poor nutrition
4) lack of shelter
5) lack of essential medical care
6) information deprivation
7) no access to education
127
What is absolute poverty?
Where household income is insufficient to afford basic necessities of life such as food, shelter and clothing
128
What is relative poverty?
Where household income is a certain percentage below median income for that country
129
Define inequality in health?
The systematic variation in health status, life expectancy, mortality and morbidity between different groups
130
Give the 9 determinants of health found in The Rainbow Model
1) agriculture and food production
2) education
3) work environment
4) living conditions
5) unemployment
6) water and sanitation
7) healthcare services
8) housing
9) individual lifestyle factors
131
What is the name of the model that shows the range of health determinants?
The Rainbow Model
132
What are 4 examples of altered states of consciousness?
1) sleep and dreams
2) psychoactive drug use
3) meditation
4) hypnosis
133
What is mind-body dualism?
The philosophical viewpoint that mind and body and separate entities that do not interact
134
What is the Hard Problem?
The problem of explaining why and how we have individual instances of subjective conscious experiences
135
Who created the Hard Problem?
Chalmers 1994
136
Give 2 examples of dominant functional views of consciousness
1) monitoring
2) controlling
137
What is monitoring? (as a dominant functional views of consciousness)
Experiencing what you attend to
138
What is controlling? (as a dominant functional view of consciousness)
Planning, initiating and guiding our future actions
139
Give 2 examples of unconcious processes in perception
1) subliminal perception
2) thought supression
140
What is subliminal perception?
Perception below the threshold of conscious awareness
141
Who came up with the idea of thought suppression through his polar bear idea?
Dostoyeusky
142
What does an ironic motoring process search for?
Mental contents that signal the failure of mental control
143
Describe the Stroop effect
People are slower to name colour incongruent words as when the word and text colour don’t match, there is interference
144
What are psychedelics?
A family of drugs that alter states and produce hallucinations
145
Other than hallucinations, what 2 other responses do psychedelics cause?
Delusions and emotional changes
146
What are the two types of meditation?
1) concentrative/ one point mediation
2) open meditation
147
What are the aims of concentrative meditation?
To diminish sensory input often by repeating a mantra or relaxation movement
148
What is open meditation?
Being aware and mindful towards everything around you without expecting a response from your experiences
149
Define hypnosis
A social interaction in which a subject responds to suggestions offered by the hypnotists involving alterations no in perception, memory and voluntary action
150
What are the two views of how hypnosis works?
1) altered consciousness
2) period of focussed attention causing a state of social compliance
151
What is the difference between positive and negative hallucination?
Positive - seeing and hearing something that is not present
Negative - failing to perceive something
152
What are the two types of associative learning?
1) classical conditioning
2) operant conditioning
153
What is another term for classical conditioning?
Pavlovian conditioning
154
What is another term for operant conditioning?
Instrumental conditioning
155
What is classical conditioning?
A type of learning in which one learns to link two or more stimuli and anticipate events
156
What is operant conditioning?
A type of learning in which behaviour is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminishes if followed by a punisher
157
What terms are used to describe the formation or weakening of an association?
acquisition and extinction
158
What is temporal contiguity?
Stimuli impacts response immediately proceeding it
159
Is extinction process in associative learning the learning of a new association or the removal of an old one?
Learning of a new one
160
Give two examples of associations that are biologically advantaged
1) conditioned taste aversions
2) phobias
161
Describe the anticipatory nausea/vomiting experienced by chemotherapy patients
An association with the chemo environment and feeling in so the environment becomes a conditioned stimulus for nausea and vomiting
162
What is second order conditioning?
a new conditioned stimulus similar to a previous conditioned stimulus can elicit the same conditioned response
163
What is the law of effect?
Behaviours that are followed by good things happen more often
164
What are examples of primary and secondary rewards?
Primary - food
Secondary - money
165
What are examples of social rewards?
Smiling, nodding, verbal praise
166
What is ‘chaining’?
Reinforcing the connection of each stage of a sequence using positive reinforcement
167
Give an example of negative reinforcement
Picking up a crying baby to stop them from crying
168
What is negative reinforcement?
The escape of avoidance of an aversive event
169
When does extinction in associative learning occur?
When the reinforcement is removed
170
What is positive punishment?
An aversive stimulus or condition such as a smack
171
What is negative punishment?
Removing a pleasant stimulus
172
Describe drive reduction theory of motivation
Motivation is a result of a homeostatic push such as thirst or hunger
173
What are the 5 steps of the drive reduction theory loop?
1) biological need
2) drive
3) goal directed behaviour
4) satisfaction
5) stage of equilibrium
174
Describe the incentive theory of motivation
Behaviour being motivated on the pull of objects which have reward
175
What is taste alliesthesia?
Changed taste sensation over time
176
Which theory of motivation, the incentive or drive reduction theory has an emotional component?
incentive
177
Give a study that showed taste alliesthesia in action
Cabanac and Frankham observed how taste scores changed as candidates chewed fudge over time
178
What term describes why some foods are more resistant to alliesthesia explaining why dessert can be eaten after a big meal?
Sensory specific satiety
179
Who did the study on whether sweets were visible and in reach in an office?
Painter
180
What does hedonic mean?
Pleasure seeking
181
Give Roger and Smits explanation on food craving
When people resist and avoid palatable food this makes the desire for eating more intense
182
Give the 5 levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs from most to least important
1) physiological needs
2) safety and security needs
3) belongingness and love needs
4) esteem needs
5) self actualisation and achieving full potential
183
Which scale measures the extent to which an individual is a sensation seeker?
the Brief Sensation Seeking Scale
184
What are the 7 basic emotional states proposed by Ekman and Friesen?
Happiness
Sadness
Fear
Anger
Surprise
Disgust
Contempt
185
Which of Ekman and Friesen's 7 emotions caused a decrease in body temperature?
Fear and disgust
186
Describe pattern theory by James-Langue?
for an emotion to be experienced an event must happen, followed by a physiological state of arousal
187
Describe the cognitive theory (of emotion) by Schachter and Singer
For an emotion to be experienced, an event must happen followed by a physiological state of arousal, followed by a step of cognitive appraisal towards this arousal
188
What region of the brain is involved in fear and emotion processing?
the amygdala
189
Other than the amygdala, what structures and neurotransmitters assist in emotional regulation?
the limbic system
hypothalamus
serotonin
190
Give two ways in which emotional acquisition is determined by environment
imitation
reinforcement
191
Give the 3 factors of life that happiness relies on
1) pleasance
2) engagement
3) meaning
192
What are the stages of memory acquisition?
1) encoding
2) storage
3) retrieval
193
What is meant by encoding?
receiving and processing new information
194
Who devised the current multi-store memory model?
Baddeley
195
What 3 components make up short term memory in Baddeley's multi-store memory model?
1) short term store
2) articulatory loop
3) visio-spatial scratch pad
196
What 3 ways can information be encoded?
visually
acoustically
semantic
197
What findings came from Glanzer and Cunitz word order experiment?
participants were more likely to remember words positioned earlier and later in the list
198
What are the names of the effects that make the words at the start and end of a list easier to remember and the middle harder?
Primacy effect
recency effect
serial position effect
199
What is the average number of digits that adults can remember in a sequence?
7
200
What is chunking?
When you group information to make it easier to learn
201
Give the 3 types of long term memory
1) episodic
2) semantic
3) procedural
202
What is episodic memory?
autobiographical information about events we have personally experienced
203
What is semantic memory?
facts and general knowledge
204
What is procedural memory?
implicit memory that stores information about how to do things
205
What is eidetic imagery?
photographic memory
206
What is the name of the condition characterised by highly superior autobiographical memory?
hyperthymesia
207
what is the difference between explicit and implicit memory?
explicit - memory of facts and experiences that you can declare and consciously know
implicit - procedural memories that are subconscious often
208
Where is implicit memory stored?
basal ganglia and cerebellum
209
where is the short term memory store located?
prefrontal cortex
210
where is the long term memory store located?
TOP
211
Where does the consolidation of short term memory to long term memory take place?
the hippocampus
212
where is recall ability best utilised?
In the same context as where the encoding took place
213
What is white coat halo and why can it be dangerous?
Uniform and status of doctors making them appear trustworthy but can mean that their wrongs can be left unquestioned
214
Who led the classic shock experiment?
Milgram
215
Describe the set up for Milgram’s shock experiment
1) ordinary people were invited to ask questions to an ‘answerer’ and shock them with increasing voltage if they answer incorrectly
2) orders were given by a scientist in a white coat who would respond to any objections with “the experiment requires you to continue”
3) shock victim would beg for mercy
216
In Milgram’s shock experiment at what point did participants predict they would disobey orders?
Level 9
217
In Milgram’s shock experiment, not 1 person disobeyed until shock level …?
20
218
What percentage of participants in Milgram’s shock experiment went to the full shock?
63%
219
What is the Market Research study?
Panels of 9 people were presented with a legal case where a company was unfairly targeting a member of staff
They were asked to discuss and sign in favour of the company
Only 4/33 panels all signed the market research case
220
Give 3 factors that affect group behaviour in Latane’s law of social impact
1) number of people
2) strength/ legitimacy of others
3) immediacy
221
Describe the setup of the smoke test
Students were left alone or in a group of 3 in a waiting room and a stream of smoke entered the room. The time taken for them to report it was recorded
222
Describe the results of the smoke test
75% of those alone reported the steam within 2 minutes
In groups of 3, <13% reported in 6 minutes
223
Give 3 social processes in emergencies which explain bystander apathy
1) diffusion of responsibility
2) social definition (if others don't respond is it an emergency?)
3) audience inhibition
224
Give 3 non-social factors which determine whether we help in emergencies
1) ambiguity of situation
2) personal threat
3) one’s personality
225
What is an ‘in group’?
A social group toward which a member feels respect and loyalty
226
What is an ‘out group’?
A social group toward which a person feels a sense of competition or opposition
227
What is social inhibition?
A decrease in performance when in the presence of others usually for complex tasks
228
What is social facilitation?
Improved performance when in the presence if others, on simple and well-learned tasks
229
Describe an experiment that demonstrated both social facilitation and social inhibition
Candidates were instructed to type their name quickly and did this faster when observed
However when the task difficulty was increased, candidates weren’t faster when observed
230
Describe motivational loss in relation to the rope pulling experiment
Individuals in groups worked less than their individual potential due to social loafing
231
Give three reasons for social loafing?
1) unclear/different standards
2) output equity
3) evaluation apprehension (hiding in a group)
232
Give 3 ways organisations try to combat social loafing?
1) making individual contributions identifiable
2) keep group sizes at an appropriate level
3) emphasise individual contributions
233
What is group polarisation?
The enhancement of a groups prevailing inclinations through discussion within the group
234
What is a risky shift in group work?
The tendency for groups to make riskier decisions than individuals would
235
Why does group discussion often strengthen the average inclination of individuals?
1) persuasive arguments
2) social comparison and social desirability
3) discussion produces a commitment
236
What is a pro-social behaviour?
Any act performed with the goal of benefitting another person
237
What is the social responsibility norm?
An expectation that people will help those needing their help
238
What is the reciprocity norm?
An expectation that people will help, not hurt those who have helped them
239
What is conformity?
Adjusting out behaviour or thinking to coincide with a group standard
240
Why do we conform?
To avoid ridicule and social disapproval
241
What is deindividuation?
The loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity
242
Define an impairment?
A problem in body function or structure due to a physical loss, disease or condition
243
Describe the charity model of disability
Disabled people are treated as passive without agency and with a focus on sympathy
Disability is seen as something tragic
244
Describe the biomedical model of disability
The aim of medicine is to recent or treat impairment or return the disabled to a state of normal function.
Doctors are the experts
245
Describe the social model of disability
Rejects impairment as a cause of disability and instead says that disadvantages come from societies inability to accommodate difference
246
What is human agency?
The capacity to act independently with the expression of power and the ability to make choices and impose those choices
247
Give the 3 broad groups of social barriers to disabilities
1) environment
2) attitudes
3) organisations
248
Give 4 examples of environmental barriers to disabilities
1) inaccessible buildings
2) services
3) language
4) communication
249
Give the updated WHO-ICF definition of disability
The negative aspect of the interaction between an individual with an impairment and contextual factors
250
How does the 2010 equality act define disability?
An impairment or long term health condition of twelve months or more in duration which can include mental and physical health conditions which affect activities of daily living
251
Is there a legal requirement to disclose your disability?
No
252
What is direct discrimination?
treating someone less favourably because of their characteristics
253
What is indirect discrimination?
Rules, regulations or procedures that have the effect of discrimination
254
What is victimisation?
To punish or treat a person less favourably because that person has asserted his/her rights
255
Describe the regulations around reasonable adjustments for disabled people
All public sector services have the legal duty to make reasonable adjustments to their services so that they are accessible and effective for disabled people
256
Give the WHOs definition of quality of life
An individuals perception of their position in life in the context of the culture and value system in which they live and in relation to their goals, expectations, standards and concerns
257
Give the multi-dimensional factors that determine quality of life
1) physical health
2) psychological factors
3) personal beliefs and freedom
4) social relationships
5) level of independence
6) relation to environment
258
What nation was concluded to have the best quality of life by the Organisation of Economic Cooperation?
Norway
259
What does PROM stand for?
Patient reported outcome measures
260
What actually are PROMs?
Patient ratings of the effects of a disease, condition or treatment on their quality of life
261
What is health related quality of life?
The functional effect of a medical condition and/or its therapy on quality of life as assessed by the patient
262
Give an example of a disease where there’s a linear association between lower QoL and disease
Parkinson’s disease
263
What is the general PROM-related QoL scale?
EuroQol Group 5 dimensions scale (EQ-5D)
264
What are the 5 dimensions in the EQ-5D questionnaire?
1) mobility
2) self care
3) usual activities
4) pain
5) anxiety and depression
265
Give an example of a disease specific QoL scale
Kidney disease QoL
266
Give 3 reasons why some patients with limiting illness rate their QoL higher than healthy people
1) response shift (re-calibration of values)
2) items assessed
3) rating scale
267
What time period of pain is considered chronic?
More than 3 months
268
What fraction of people with severe pain also have clinical anxiety or depression?
2/3
269
What is the name of the condition where someone can’t experience pain?
Congenital analgesia
270
What is the traditional definition of pain?
Pain is an unpleasant and emotional experience associated with actual and potential tissue damage
271
Give a recently updated definition of pain
Pain is whatever the patient says it is and exists when they say it does
272
Give 6 common features of pain behaviour
1) complaining
2) negative facial expressions
3) reduced behavioural repetiore
4) posture changes
5) para-vocalisation
6) rubbing/ holding/ guarding
273
Give 4 examples of pain rating scales
1) pain thermometer
2) visual analogue
3) McGill pain questionnaires
4) faces pain scale
274
Describe the pain thermometer
Fixed point pain scale from 1-10 with 10 being the worst pain
275
Describe the visual pain analogue
100mm line from no pain to worst pain with non fixed marks
276
Describe the McGill Pain questionnaire
Set of detailed questions with many descriptors and increasing severities
Pain location can be labelled on a blank body
277
Why does the face pain scale only use even numbers?
So that midpoint values can be identified if a child feels though they are between two faces
278
What is the gate control theory?
The theory that the spinal cord contains a neurological gate that blocks pain signals or allows them to pass on to the brain
279
Give an example of a treatment that uses gate control theory to reduce pain
Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimualtion
280
Is there substantial evidence to support the gate control theory?
No
281
What factors affect phantom limb pain?
Changes in mood, behaviour and environment
282
What is believed to initially case phantom limb pain?
A memory of pain from amputation imprinting
283
Describe the virtual walking study
Paraplegics were shown projections of themselves walking with actors legs everyday for 10 minutes, using their arms in time with the movement
This reduced lower limb pain
284
What are the 3 traits of pain?
1) threshold
2) duration
3) quality
285
What are the three types of pain duration?
1) physical
2) acute
3) chronic
286
What are the three types of pain quality?
1) superficial
2) deep
3) referred
287
Describe the Clarke and Clarke study on pain tolerance between Nepalese and western climbers
Nepalese climbers tolerated electrical stimulation better than western climbers
288
Does anaesthetic increase pain unpleasantness or pain intensity?
Pain unpleasantness
289
Describe the results of the surgery preparation pain study?
Preparing a patient for surgery using specific information and relaxation techniques resulted in less morphine being needed days after surgery
290
Describe the nurse praise study’s results on pain?
Pain intensity experienced by a group of patients was lower when nurses praised ‘well talk’ than days when the nurses praised ‘sick talk’
291
Give the 5 stage cycle of chronic disease psychological distress
1) decreased pain tolerance
2) pain
3) anxiety
4) sleeplessness
5) irritability
292
How does the WHO define health?
A complete state of physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease
293
Describe functionalism
A framework that sees society as a complex system whose parts work together to promote solidarity and stability
294
Describe functionalisms view on illness
A sick individual is not a productive member of society. Therefore this deviance needs to be policed and this is the role of the medical profession
295
When did functionalism reach its peak?
1940s and 1950s
296
Describe Talcott Parsons’s view on sickness
Being sick means the sufferer enters a role of sanctioned deviance which disturbs the social function of society.
297
What are the rules of sick role ?
The criteria for one to be legitimately sick according to Talcott Parsons
298
Give Talcott Parsons 3 rules of sick role
1) people should not be perceived as having caused their own health problem
2) sick people must want to get well
3) sick people are expected to have their illness confirmed by a physician and follow the professionals instructions in order to become well
299
Give 3 criticisms on Talcott Parsons rules of sick role
1) it isn’t applicable to chronic illness
2) doesn’t take social backgrounds into account
3) fails to account for quality of medical care
300
What is medicalisation of deviance?
The process that changes bad behaviour into sick behaviour
301
Describe how medicalisation of deviance attitudes towards alcoholism have changed?
1) historically people who drank too much were stigmatised and blames for their alcoholism
2) more recently people who drink too much are increasingly recognised as having a genetic predisposition to addiction
302
What are the top 3 leading causes of death globally?
1) ischaemic heart disease
2) stroke
3) COPD
303
Describe how our location of death has changed over time
1) historically people died at home surrounded by family
2) now more people die in hospital due to increased medical interventions
304
What is palliative care?
an approach that improves the quality of life of patients and their families facing the problems associated with life threatening illness
305
Describe Kathryn Mannix’s attitudes to death
1) death is just a process where an individual dips in and out of consciousness until that unconsciousness becomes permanent
2) during the process the patient becomes fully relaxed
306
Describe the theoretical assisted dying bill (4)
1) it would apply to terminally ill patients in England and Wales
2) the patient must be an adult with less than 6 months to live, mentally competent, informed of the alternatives and making the choice through their own free will
3) two independent doctors would be required to agree that the patient made an informed decision with a high court judge and the case would be reviewed
4) doctors would prescribe a lethal dose of drugs to the terminally ill patients which they must administer themselves
307
What is the Royal College of Physicians stance on assisted dying?
Neutral
308
What is the BMA’s stances on assisted dying?
Neutral
309
Give 4 examples of subjective sensations associated with stress
Headache
Nausea
Fatigue
Muscle tension
310
Give 5 behaviours associated with stress
Crying
Smoking
Drinking
Eating unhealthily
Having problems concentrating
311
Give 5 health issues associated with stress
1) cardiovascular disease
2) cancer
3) colds
4) skin disease
5) depression
312
What is eustress?
Positive stress
313
Describe the Yerkes-Dodson curve relating stress and performance
A bell shaped curve shows that in high and low levels of stress performance is lower relative to moderate stress where performance is optimised
314
How does moderate pressure affect our health?
It increases our health
315
True or false, excess pressure and prolonged boredom increase ill health
True
316
What is stress?
The reaction of the body and mind to everyday challenges and demands followed by cognitive appraisal
317
What are the physiological components of the stress response?
1) sympathetic nervous system
2) adrenal cortical system
318
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome model?
1) alarm phase
2) stage of resistance
3) stage of exhaustion
319
How does an existing stress compare to a new stress in the general adaptation syndrome model?
Original stress tends to avoid the stage of resistance
Newer stresses are quicker to enter the stages of resistance and exhaustion
320
Describe the psychoimmunology of chronic stress
Chronic stress can induce and increase dysregulated pro-inflammatory responses and can decrease baseline leukocyte numbers
321
Describe the psychoimmunology of short term stress?
It increases efficacy of vaccinations and wound healing and increases resistance to some types of infection and cancer
322
Give 4 key psychological reactions to stress
1) cognitive impairment
2) anger
3) depression
323
What is apathy?
Lack of interest
324
What is learned helplessness?
The sense of powerlessness arising from trauma or persistent failure to succeed
325
What is acute stress disorder?
Exposure to a traumatic event that causes numbing, detachment and amnesia about the event for at least three days but no longer than a month following the event
326
What is PTSD?
A natural and prolonged emotional reaction to a deeply shocking an disturbing experience
327
Give 4 key features of PTSD
1) repeated re-living of traumatic events
2) persistent efforts at avoiding memories
3) persistent symptoms of hyperarousal
4) survivors guilt
328
Give an example of a charity that cares for those living with PTSD
EMDR UK (through talking therapies)
329
What is the social re-adjustment scale by Holmes and Rahe?
A list of life events listed by score out of 100 indicating the level of emotional adjustment required for a particular event
330
331
What life event was given 100 points on the social readjustment scale?
Death of a spouse
332
What are ‘hassles’?
Relatively minor daily experiences that are potentially threatening or harmful
333
What are ‘uplifts’?
Small positive events that can protect against stress
334
Describe the psychoimmunological realtionship between type A behaviour and vascular disease
Type A behaviour is a risk factor for heart disease and studies have found that those with type A personalities are at twice the risk for heart attacks
335
Give 5 traits of type A behaviour
1) scheduling activities into less and less time
2) becoming irritated when having to wait
3) thinking or doing two things at once
4) playing nearly every game to win
5) having difficulty sitting and doing nothing
336
Give the steps of the ACE pyramid from top to bottom
1) adverse childhood experiences
2) disrupted neurodevelopment
3) social, emotional and cognitive impairment
4) adoption of health risk behaviours
5) disease
6) early death
337
What does ACE (pyramid) stand for?
Adverse Childhood Experiences
338
What is appraisal?
An evaluation of the emotion-relevant aspects of a stimulus
339
Give two common features of appraisal
1) determining an events controllability
2) determining and events predictability
340
What is the primary appraisal process?
Ones perception of the demands of the event - the potential for threat, harm or challenge
341
What is the secondary appraisal process?
Analysing the available coping options and resources
342
What is re-appraisal?
Regular re-evaluation and re-labelling of primary and secondary appraisal
343
What is problem focussed coping?
Changing the situation itself through physical and/or social work
344
What is emotion focussed coping?
Changing your relation to the situation
345
Give three active forms of emotion focussed coping
1) habits such as eating, sleeping and exercise
2) managing time, priorities and delegation
3) cognitive methods such as positive thinking and imagery
346
Give 2 passive centred forms of emotion focussed coping
1) relaxation, leisure, holidays, exercise
2) distraction, denial, rumination
347
True or false?
Social support plays no role in coping with stress
False
348
What are health behaviours?
Activities that may help to prevent disease, detect disease and disability at an early stage, promote health or protect from risk of injury
349
What are the two types of health behaviours?
1) health promoting
2) avoidance of health harming
350
Give 4 examples of behavioural pathogens
1) smoking
2) drinking
3) stress
4) lack of contraception
351
Give 4 examples of behavioural immunogens
1) balanced diet
2) exercise
3) immunisations
4) screening
352
What is health promotion?
The process of enabling people to have control over and to improve their health
353
Give 4 internal factors that influence health behaviour
1) circumstances
2) knowledge and skills
3) attitudes and beliefs
4) physiology and genetics
354
Give 6 external factors that influence health behaviour
Social support
Media
Healthcare system
Social norms
Laws
Environment
355
What are fear appeals?
Giving risk information to scare people into behavioural changes
356
What is meant by the ‘it seemed like it was a good idea at the time’ intervention design?
When faced with a problem, an intervention is created without taking behavioural science into acount
357
Why are psychological factors so important when creating interventions?
They are assumed to be more modifiable than other factors such as personality
358
Give two examples of health behaviour models
1) control theory
2) COM-B theory
359
Describe the control theory of health behaviour
Individuals should set goals which can more easily be achieved with increased self monitoring, rewards and feedback
360
What are the 3 necessary conditions of COM-B theory?
1) capability
2) opportunity
3) motivation
361
What is capability in the context of COM-B theory?
The physical or psychological ability to enact the behaviour
362
What is opportunity in the context of the COM-B theory?
The physical and social environment that enables the behaviour
363
What is motivation in the context of the COM-B theory?
The reflective and automatic mechanisms that activate or inhibit the behaviour
364
True or false?
If people think that doing something is unlikely to enact change they are less likely to do it
True
365
What is the name of the model used to divide intervention no into their target necessary COM-B?
The Behavioural Change Wheel
366
Give 3 examples of interventions that target capability
Modelling ( providing an example to aspire to)
Education
Enablement ( reducing barriers)
367
Give an example of an intervention that targets opportunity
Environmental restructuring
368
Give two examples of interventions that target motivation
Incentives
Coercion (creating an expectation of cost or punishment)
369
Give the 4 Ds of psychological disorder
1) deviant
2) distressing
3) dysfunctional
4) dangerous
370
What are the documents that classify all mental health disorders?
1) ICD-11
2) DSM-5
371
What are the top 3 most prevalent mental health disorders according to the 2014 survey of mental health and wellbeing?
1) generalised anxiety disorder
2) depressive episodes
3) mixed anxiety and depressive disorders
372
Give 5 types of anxiety disorder
1) panic disorder
2) PTSD
3) generalised anxiety disorder
4) OCD
5) phobias
373
Give 3 psychological characteristics of anxiety disorders
1) racing heart
2) muscle tension
3) breathlessness
374
Give two pharmacological treatments used for anxiety disorders
1) SSRIs
2) benzodiazepines
375
Give 3 examples of psychological interventions used for anxiety disorders
1) CBT
2) education relaxation
3) learning mechanisms
376
Give the 6 stage loop that characterises panic disorders
1) physical sensation (thought or image perceived as threatening)
2) anxiety
3) physical sensation
4) catastrophic interpretation of physical sensation
5) amplification of physical sensations and anxiety
6) hypervigilance
377
What is generalised anxiety disorder?
Ongoing state of excessive worry about future events and outcomes
378
What is the root psychological cause of generalised anxiety disorder?
Intolerance of uncertainty
379
Give 5 presentations of generalised anxiety disorder
1) seeking excessive reassurance
2) list making
3) double checking
4) refusing to delegate tasks to others
5) procrastination and distraction
380
Describe the obsessive part of OCD
Someone with OCD will have their life dominated by obsessions - intrusions of thoughts, images and impulses that produce anxiety
381
Describe the compulsion part of OCD
Someone with OCD will have compulsions used to reduce anxiety form their obsessions
382
What are phobias?
Irrational fear of a specific object or situation
383
How does people with phobias avoiding the situation or object influence their phobia?
It negatively influences it because of the reduction in anxiety
384
What is agoraphobia?
Extreme fear of crowded spaces or enclosed public spaces
385
What causes agoraphobia?
The fear of panic attacks and the subsequent embarrassment
386
What is social phobia?
Social anxiety disorder is an extreme fear of embarrassment and humiliation causing avoidance of social and public activities
387
What causes the strong association between parent and child fears?
Modelling
388
What causes simple phobias such as phobias of animals or heights etc..?
Single traumas
389
What is the name of behavioural therapy that builds people up to facing their phobia through increased exposure?
Systematic desensitisation
390
What is in vitro exposure (for phobias)?
The client imagines the exposure to the phobia stimulus
391
What is in vivo exposure (in phobias)?
Exposure through real life experiences
392
What is ageism?
Discrimination based on age
393
Is dementia a disease in its own right?
no
394
Give a brief definition of dementia
The deterioration in intellectual function and social behaviour
395
Give the ICD-10 definition of dementia
A syndrome due to disease of the brain that is chronic or progressive and causes a disturbance of multiple higher cortical functions as well as deterioration in emotional control, social behaviour or motivation
396
Is consciousness affected in dementia?
no
397
Describe mild dementia
Cognitive decline limits functional activities but independent living is possible
398
Describe moderate dementia
Seriously inhibited functional activity. Familiar material is retained but independent living is not possible
399
Describe severe dementia
Complete inability to retain new information. Assistance is required for daily living
400
Give 4 examples of syndromes that cause dementia
1) Alzheimer's disease
2) Vascular dementia
3) Mixed dementia
4) Parkinson's dementia
401
What is vascular dementia?
Dementia caused by chronic hypertension
402
What is mixed dementia?
Alzheimer's and vascular dementia combined
403
Why does dementia affect more women than men?
Because women have a longer life expectancy
404
Do learning difficulties such as downs syndrome increase risk of dementia?
yes
405
Why is it harder to diagnose the elderly?
1) symptom under reporting
2) lack of self awareness
3) may not attend GP surgeries due to accessibility issues
406
What is personhood?
Identity embodied in social relationships
407
Give 6 signs and symptoms of dementia
1) struggling to remember recent events but easily recalling the past
2) finding it hard to follow conversations
3) forgetting names of friends or everyday objects
4) repeating themselves
5) feeling anxious, depressed or frustrated about forgetfulness
6) confusion in familiar environments
408
What were the 4 key factors of the PM's 2015 5 year challenge?
1) prevention
2) quality
3) research
4) social action
409
What are the 5 features of the Well pathway for dementia?
1) preventing well
2) diagnosing well
3) supporting well
4) living well
5) dying well
410
Give 2 drug groups used to improve memory
1) acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
2) NMDA receptor antagonists
411
Give an example of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
Doneprezil
412
What severity level of Alzheimer's disease are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors used for?
mild to moderate
413
Give an example of an NDMA receptor antagonist drug
mematine
414
What severity level of Alzheimer's disease are NDMA receptor antagonists used for?
moderately severe to severe
415
Give three types of depression
1) bipolar
2) unipolar
3) dysthymia
416
What is bipolar (manic) depression?
Excessive elation, talkativeness and irritability with inflated self-esteem followed by a period of crushing depression
417
What is unipolar depression?
Depression without a history of mania
418
What is dysthymia?
Persistent low grade depression
419
Give 3 core features of depression
1) pervasive low mood
2) loss of interest and enjoyment
3) reduced energy and diminished activty
420
What is anhedonia?
Loss of interest and enjoyment
421
Give Rollo May’s definition of depression
The inability to construct a future
422
Give 3 drugs used to treat depression
1) SSRIs
2) Tricyclics
3) MAOIs
423
Which neurotransmitters do depression drugs act on?
1) serotonin
2) noradrenaline
424
Are MAOIs used currently?
No because side effects are too much and there is a risk of overdose?
425
Give 2 examples of physical treatments used for depression
1) physical activity for mild depression
2) electro-convulsive therapy
426
When is electroconvulsive therapy used?
For patients with depressive disorder as a last resort
427
What is the name of the theory that acts as the basis of cognitive behavioural therapy?
Beck’s cognitive theory of depression
428
Give the three points of the cognitive trías found in Beck’s cognitive theory of depression
1) negative views about the world
2) negative views about the future
3) negative views about oneself
429
Give 3 examples of errors in logic often seen in those with depression
1) overgeneralisation
2) magnification and minimisation
3) personalisation
430
What is overgeneralisation in the context of depression?
Making large assumptions based on small events
431
What is magnification in the context of depression?
Making disasters out of small hassles
432
What is minimisation in the context of depression?
Failure to take praise
433
What is personalisation in the context of depression?
Taking all the blame
434
What type of therapy is cognitive therapy?
Talking therapy
435
How long do typical cognitive therapy sessions last?
1 hour
436
Which is more effective at treating mild to moderate depression - anti-depressants or CBT?
Just as good as each other
437
How does cognitive therapy treat depression?
It puts automatic depressogenic assumptions thoughts through reality testing, checking evidence for and against
438
What is the definition of self-harm?
Intentional self-injury or self-poisoning irrespective of motivation
439
Give 7 motivations for self harm
1) get relief from a state of mind
2) escaping an impossible situation
3) seeking help
4) frighten somebody
5) influence somebody
6) show somebody how you feel
7) show how much you love someone
440
Are rates of self-harm rising or falling?
Fallinh
441
Are rates of self-harm and suicide in young men rising or falling?
Rising
442
Are there higher rates of suicide in men or women?
Men
443
Give 5 individual influences on suicide
1) loneliness and loss
2) history of self-harm
3) substance misuse
4) mental disorder
5) physical illness
444
Give 2 social influences on suicide
1) modelling
2) availability of methods
