IB Biology I Flashcards
(232 cards)
1
Q
What is a polar molecule?
A
A molecule with a partial positive charge on one end and a partial negative charge on the other end.
2
Q
How does polarity and hydrogen bonding relate?
A
Polarity allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with each other, leading to unique properties.
3
Q
What properties of water does the polarity of water molecules allow for?
A
- Cohesion
- Adhesion
- High specific heat
- High heat of vaporization
- Solvent properties
4
Q
Explain the thermal property of water.
A
Water can absorb a lot of heat before its temperature changes significantly.
5
Q
Give two examples of how water’s thermal property is important to life.
A
- Regulates temperature in organisms
- Stabilizes climate by moderating temperature
6
Q
Distinguish between cohesion and adhesion.
A
Cohesion is the attraction between water molecules; adhesion is the attraction between water molecules and other substances.
7
Q
What two general substances can water dissolve?
A
- Ionic compounds
- Polar molecules
8
Q
Why can water dissolve these substances?
A
Water’s polarity allows it to surround and interact with charged and polar molecules.
9
Q
Distinguish between hydrophilic and hydrophobic.
A
Hydrophilic substances interact well with water; hydrophobic substances do not.
10
Q
What are the modes of transport of glucose, amino acids, cholesterol, fats, oxygen, and sodium chloride in blood?
A
- Glucose: soluble in water
- Amino acids: soluble in water
- Cholesterol: transported with lipoproteins
- Fats: transported with lipoproteins
- Oxygen: bound to hemoglobin
- Sodium chloride: soluble in water
11
Q
Distinguish between metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism.
A
- Metabolism: all chemical reactions in a cell
- Catabolism: breakdown of molecules for energy
- Anabolism: synthesis of complex molecules
12
Q
Distinguish between a dehydration reaction and a hydrolysis reaction.
A
- Dehydration reaction: joins molecules by removing water
- Hydrolysis reaction: breaks molecules by adding water
13
Q
What type of reaction forms a disaccharide?
A
Condensation (dehydration) reaction.
14
Q
What are the 4 types of macromolecules?
A
- Carbohydrates
- Lipids
- Proteins
- Nucleic acids
15
Q
How many bonds does carbon form?
A
Four covalent bonds.
16
Q
Why is it important that carbon can have 4 bonds?
A
It allows carbon to form a variety of complex organic molecules.
17
Q
What elements are found in carbohydrates?
A
- Carbon
- Hydrogen
- Oxygen
18
Q
What functional groups are found in carbohydrates?
A
- Hydroxyl groups
- Carbonyl groups
19
Q
Examples of hexose sugars and pentose sugars.
A
- Hexose sugars: glucose, fructose, galactose
- Pentose sugars: ribose, deoxyribose
20
Q
Give 3 examples of disaccharides with their function.
A
- Sucrose: energy source
- Lactose: sugar in milk
- Maltose: energy source
21
Q
Which monomers compose each below?
1. Sucrose
2. lactose
3. maltose
A
- Sucrose: glucose + fructose
- Lactose: glucose + galactose
- Maltose: glucose + glucose
22
Q
What kind of reaction forms a disaccharide?
A
Condensation (dehydration) reaction.
23
Q
Give 3 examples of polysaccharides with their function.
A
- Starch: energy storage in plants
- Glycogen: energy storage in animals
- Cellulose: structural component in plant cell walls
24
Q
Which monosaccharide composes Starch, Glycogen & Cellulose?
A
Glucose!
25
What are the elements found in lipids?
* Carbon
* Hydrogen
* Oxygen
26
What are 4 examples of lipids?
* Triglycerides
* Phospholipids
* Steroids
* Waxes
27
What is the monomer of a lipid?
Fatty acids and glycerol.
28
Difference between Cis & Trans fats.
Cis fats have hydrogen atoms on the same side; trans fats have them on opposite sides.
29
Distinguish between unsaturated and saturated fatty acids.
* Saturated: no double bonds
* Unsaturated: one or more double bonds
30
What kind of reaction joins monomers to form a protein?
Condensation reaction.
31
What are the major functions of proteins?
* Enzymatic activity
* Structural support
* Transport
* Defense
* Signaling
* Movement
* Regulation
* Storage
32
Distinguish between primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures of proteins.
* Primary: amino acid sequence
* Secondary: alpha helices and beta sheets
* Tertiary: three-dimensional folding
* Quaternary: multiple polypeptide chains
33
What is meant by the denaturing of proteins?
Loss of protein structure and function due to environmental changes.
34
What factors can lead to the denaturing of a protein?
* Temperature
* pH
* Salinity
35
What is the optimal environment for a protein?
The specific conditions (pH, temperature) under which a protein functions best.
36
What elements are found in nucleic acids?
* Carbon
* Hydrogen
* Oxygen
* Nitrogen
* Phosphorus
37
What is the monomer of a nucleic acid?
Nucleotide.
38
What is the structure of a nucleotide?
A phosphate group, a sugar, and a nitrogenous base.
39
Give examples of two nucleic acid polymers.
* DNA
* RNA
40
What are the 3 major types of carbohydrates?
* Monosaccharides
* Disaccharides
* Polysaccharides
41
What are the 4 major types of lipids?
* Triglycerides
* Phospholipids
* Steroids
* Waxes
42
Compare and contrast hydrolysis and condensation/dehydration reactions.
* Hydrolysis: breaks down molecules by adding water
* Condensation: builds molecules by removing water
43
What happens during the S phase of interphase?
DNA replication occurs.
44
What is the significance of the S phase in mitosis?
It ensures that each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes.
| (Quality Control)
45
What is nondisjunction?
Failure of chromosomes to separate properly during cell division.
46
What are 3 human disorders caused by nondisjunction?
* Down syndrome
* Klinefelter syndrome
* Turner syndrome
47
Distinguish between cytokinesis in plants and animals.
* Plants: cell plate formation
* Animals: cleavage furrow formation
48
What are cyclins?
Proteins that regulate the cell cycle.
49
What are the 4 categories of cyclins?
* G1 cyclins
* S cyclins
* G2 cyclins
* M cyclins
50
How do proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes relate to cyclin activity?
Proto-oncogenes promote cell division; tumor suppressor genes inhibit it.
51
How do tumors and cancer relate to cyclin activity?
Abnormal cyclin activity can lead to uncontrolled cell division and cancer.
52
What is a nucleosome?
A unit of DNA wrapped around histone proteins.
53
What is the purpose of nucleosomes?
To package DNA into a compact structure.
54
What is meant by homologous chromosomes?
Chromosomes that have the same genes at the same loci but may have different alleles.
55
How many homologous pairs of chromosomes are there in humans?
23 pairs.
56
What is the abbreviation of diploid?
2n.
57
What is the abbreviation of haploid?
n.
58
What is a gene?
A segment of DNA that codes for a specific protein.
59
What was the human genome project?
An initiative to map all the genes in the human genome.
60
Which specific gene codes for a male?
XY chromosomes on the SRY gene
61
What is a sex-linked gene?
A gene located on a sex chromosome.
62
What are autosomes?
Chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes.
63
How many pairs of autosomes do humans have?
22 pairs.
64
Divide the cell cycle into its various stages.
* Interphase
* G1 phase
* S phase
* G2 phase
* M phase (mitosis)
65
What happens during the G1 phase?
Cell growth and preparation for DNA replication.
66
What happens during the G2 phase?
Preparation for mitosis and further growth.
67
What is crossing over?
Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
68
What is random alignment?
The random arrangement of chromosomes during metaphase I of meiosis.
69
What is produced in meiosis?
Four genetically diverse haploid cells.
70
What are the two main purposes of meiosis?
* Production of gametes
* Genetic diversity
71
What are the 3 main events in the human life cycle?
* Growth
* Reproduction
* Aging
72
What is the main difference between mitosis and meiosis?
* Mitosis: produces 2 identical cells; Meiosis: produces 4 diverse cells
73
What is the significance of the S phase in relation to mitosis?
It provides the necessary DNA for chromosome duplication.
74
How does 6 feet of DNA fit inside a microscopic nucleus?
DNA is packaged into nucleosomes, forming a compact structure.
75
What is a purine?
A type of nitrogenous base with a double-ring structure (adenine and guanine).
76
What is a pyrimidine?
A type of nitrogenous base with a single-ring structure (cytosine, thymine, uracil).
77
What does it mean that DNA is antiparallel?
The two strands run in opposite directions (double helix)
78
What is transcription?
The process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template.
79
In which direction does transcription take place?
5’ to 3’ direction.
80
What is a chain reaction in the context of DNA amplification?
Chain reaction is fundamental to PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) which exponentially increases the number of copies of a specific DNA segment.
81
What is the general process of PCR?
It involves the following steps:
* Denaturation: DNA strands separate.
* Annealing: Primers bind to target sequences.
* Extension: Taq polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands.
## Footnote
Temperature changes are critical in each step, with high temperatures for denaturation and lower temperatures for annealing.
82
What is gel electrophoresis?
A lab technique used to separate DNA fragments based on size by applying an electric field to a gel.
## Footnote
Smaller fragments move faster through the gel, allowing for the analysis of DNA samples.
83
What is transcription?
The process of converting DNA into RNA, occurring in the 5' to 3' direction.
## Footnote
This is the first step in gene expression.
84
Define gene.
A segment of DNA that contains the instructions for coding a specific protein.
85
What are the three processes involved in protein production in a eukaryotic cell?
* Transcription
* RNA processing
* Translation
## Footnote
Each process occurs in specific locations within the cell.
86
List the steps of transcription.
1. initiation: DNA unwinds, RNA polymerase binds to promoter
2. elongation: RNA polymerase synthesises RNA by moving along the coding sequence in a 5'->3' direction
3. Termination: RNA polymerase reaches terminator & releases RNA strand & enzyme; DNA rewinds
87
What is the role of the promoter in transcription?
It is a specific DNA sequence at the beginning of a gene that signals the start of transcription.
88
What is the role of the terminator in transcription?
A sequence of DNA that signals RNA polymerase to stop transcription.
89
What happens during post-transcriptional modification?
Introns are removed, exons are retained, a 5' G cap is added, and a poly-A tail is added to the mRNA.
90
What is produced in translation?
Proteins or amino acid chains.
91
List the major components of translation and their roles.
* mRNA: Carries the genetic code from DNA to the ribosome.
* tRNA: Transfers the correct amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain.
* Ribosome: Facilitates the assembly of amino acids into proteins.
* Peptide bond: Connects amino acids together.
92
Where do proteins made at cytoplasmic ribosomes go?
They can remain in the cytoplasm or be sent to the rough ER or Golgi apparatus.
93
What are the steps of translation?
* Initiation: Assembly of mRNA, tRNA, and ribosome.
* Elongation:
* -a second tRNA molecule pairs w/ the next codon in the ribosomal A site
* -the amino acid in the p site is covalently attatched (peptide bond) to amino acid in a site
* Translocation:
* -ribosome moves along mRNA strand by one codon 5'->3'
* -tRNA moves into e site & is released
* -tRNA carrying the peptide chain goes to the p site
* Termination: Disassembly of the components and release of the polypeptide chain.
94
Define gene regulation.
The mechanisms that control the expression of genes in a cell.
95
What does it mean that DNA base sequences are not altered by epigenetic changes?
Phenotype may change without altering the underlying genotype.
96
Define genome, transcriptome, and proteome.
* Genome: The complete set of DNA in an organism.
* Transcriptome: The complete set of RNA transcripts produced by the genome.
* Proteome: The complete set of proteins expressed by the genome.
97
Define substitution mutation.
A genetic mutation where one base pair is replaced by another.
98
Define insertion mutation.
A genetic mutation where one or more base pairs are added into the DNA sequence.
99
Define deletion mutation.
A genetic mutation where one or more base pairs are removed from the DNA sequence.
100
How can some mutations cause genetic disorders while others remain silent?
Mutations affecting critical areas of genes can disrupt protein function, while silent mutations do not change the amino acid sequence.
101
How are mutations related to sickle cell anemia?
A single point mutation in the hemoglobin gene causes red blood cells to become sickle-shaped.
102
What causes a frameshift mutation in DNA?
Insertion or deletion of nucleotides that alters the reading frame of the genetic code.
103
What is CRISPR/Cas9?
A gene-editing technology that allows for precise modifications to DNA sequences.
104
Define phenotype.
The physical appearance or observable characteristics of an organism.
105
Define genotype.
The genetic makeup of an organism.
106
What is a locus?
The specific location of a gene on a chromosome.
107
What is heterozygous?
Having two different alleles for a particular gene.
108
What is homozygous?
Having two identical alleles for a particular gene.
109
What is a recessive allele?
An allele that is only expressed phenotypically when two copies are present.
110
What is a dominant allele?
An allele that is expressed phenotypically in the presence of another allele.
111
What does true breeding mean?
Organisms that, when mated, produce offspring identical to themselves.
112
What is a test cross?
Breeding an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual.
113
What is a carrier?
An individual who has one copy of a recessive allele but does not express the trait.
114
What is phenylketonuria?
A genetic disorder resulting from the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.
115
How does meiosis relate to inheritance and Punnett squares?
Meiosis produces gametes with allele combinations that can be predicted using Punnett squares.
116
Define the law of segregation.
The principle stating that allele pairs separate during gamete formation.
117
How many copies of alleles are present at each gene locus in a gamete produced by a diploid organism?
One copy.
118
What term describes an individual with two different alleles for a particular gene?
Heterozygous.
119
In pea plants, if a pink flowered (Pp) and a white flowered (pp) plant are crossed, what is the predicted phenotype of the offspring?
50% pink and 50% white.
120
Could a cross between two white flowers result in offspring with purple flowers?
No.
121
IGNORE THIS CARD I MESS UP
1000 seeds will be red flowers.
122
Define incomplete dominance.
A genetic scenario where neither allele is completely dominant, resulting in a blend of traits.
123
Define codominance.
A genetic scenario where both alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype.
124
Define sex-linked traits.
Traits that are associated with genes located on sex chromosomes.
125
Define linked genes vs. unlinked genes.
* Linked genes: Genes located close together on the same chromosome and tend to be inherited together.
* Unlinked genes: Genes located on different chromosomes and assort independently.
126
What is a recombinant?
An offspring whose phenotype differs from that of the parents due to genetic recombination.
127
Define discrete vs. continuous variation.
* Discrete variation: Traits that fall into distinct categories.
* Continuous variation: Traits that show a range of phenotypes.
128
Define polygenic inheritance.
Inheritance of traits that are controlled by multiple genes.
129
What is color blindness?
A genetic condition that affects a person's ability to see colors accurately.
130
What is hemophilia?
A genetic disorder that impairs the body's ability to make blood clots.
131
How many different genotypes can be found for a gene with three possible alleles?
Six different genotypes.
132
What would be true of the offspring of two brown, white spotted gerbils?
They may produce offspring that exhibit brown, white spotted, or white fur.
133
Which blood group phenotype always has a homozygous genotype?
Blood group O.
134
What are the possible blood groups for a baby from a heterozygous blood group B woman and a homozygous blood group A man?
Possible groups: A, B.
135
What are the possible genotypes of children from a woman with blood group B and a man with blood group O?
Genotypes: IBi or ii.
136
What is the most likely pattern of inheritance for a genetic disease in a daughter of two unaffected parents?
Autosomal recessive.
137
In what inheritance pattern are males more affected by a genetic disease?
X-linked inheritance.
138
Is Huntington’s disease sex-linked or autosomal? Dominant or recessive?
Autosomal dominant.
139
What are the genotypes of unaffected parents of a child with cystic fibrosis?
Both parents are carriers (heterozygous).
140
What are the genotypes of the parents of a color blind son from two individuals with normal vision?
Mother: XcX (carrier), Father: XY.
141
What is the probability of the couple’s sons and daughters having hemophilia if the woman has no history of hemophilia and the husband has hemophilia?
Sons: 50% chance; Daughters: 0% chance.
142
What would be the chance of color blindness in children of a color blind woman and a man with normal vision?
Sons: 100% chance; Daughters: 0% chance.
143
Which two individuals in a hemophilia pedigree chart must be carriers?
The unaffected parents of an affected child.
144
What deduction can be made about the allele for hemophilia from the pedigree chart?
It is likely recessive and X-linked.
145
What is evolution?
The change in the heritable characteristics of biological populations over successive generations.
146
What is meant by variation within a species?
Differences in traits among individuals of the same species, caused by genetic diversity.
147
How do selection pressures drive the process of evolution?
They favor certain traits over others, leading to adaptations in populations.
148
What evidence is there for evolution?
* Fossil record
* Comparative anatomy
* Molecular biology
* Biogeography.
149
Define artificial/selective breeding.
The process of breeding plants or animals for specific traits.
150
What are homologous structures?
Anatomical features in different species that share a common ancestry.
151
What are analogous structures?
Features in different species that serve similar functions but do not share a common ancestry.
152
What is a vestigial structure?
A remnant of a structure that was functional in ancestral species but is no longer useful.
153
What is adaptive radiation?
The diversification of a group of organisms into forms filling different ecological niches, exemplified by Darwin’s finches.
154
How can variation and misuse of antibiotics lead to new strains of bacteria?
Variation provides genetic diversity, and misuse creates selection pressures that favor resistant strains.
155
Who proposed the theory of evolution by means of natural selection?
Charles Darwin.
156
What are the four major principles of natural selection?
* Variation: Individuals have differences.
* Inheritance: Traits are passed to offspring.
* Overproduction: More offspring are produced than can survive.
* Differential survival and reproduction: Individuals with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce.
157
Why is sexual reproduction important for evolution?
It increases genetic variation, which enhances adaptability.
158
What causes the struggle for survival in a population?
Limited resources lead to competition among individuals.
159
What is the phenomenon where individuals with certain gene combinations survive better in changing environments?
Natural selection.
160
Are characteristics acquired by an individual passed on to its offspring?
No, only genetic traits are inherited.
161
Where did Darwin study finches?
The Galápagos Islands.
162
What caused the divergence of finch species?
Different environmental pressures and available resources.
163
What is the term for the development of new species from a common ancestor?
Speciation.
164
What did Peter and Rosemary Grant discover regarding finches during droughts?
Beak sizes changed in response to food availability.
165
What is industrial melanism?
The phenomenon where darker individuals become more common due to industrial pollution.
166
How did pollution affect moth populations in Britain during the Industrial Revolution?
Dark moths became more common due to better camouflage against polluted backgrounds.
167
How did the Clean Air Act affect moth populations?
Light-colored moths became more prevalent as pollution decreased.
168
Why does evolution matter now?
Understanding evolution helps address challenges such as antibiotic resistance.
169
Is it correct to say that evolution is JUST a theory?
No, in science, a theory is a well-substantiated explanation of an aspect of the natural world.
170
What are the three types of natural selection?
* Stabilizing selection
* Directional selection
* Disruptive selection.
171
What is meant by the universality of DNA and protein structures?
All living organisms share similar DNA and protein structures, indicating common ancestry.
172
Define cladogram.
A diagram that shows the evolutionary relationships among various biological species based on similarities and differences in their physical or genetic characteristics.
173
What is phylogenetics?
The study of evolutionary relationships among biological entities, often using genetic data.
174
Define evolution.
The change in the heritable characteristics of biological populations over successive generations.
175
What is a gene pool?
The total collection of genes in a population at any one time.
176
What are allele frequencies?
The proportion of different alleles of a gene in a population.
177
What is speciation?
The formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution.
178
What type of natural selection occurs when extreme phenotypes are favored?
Disruptive selection.
179
What is genetic drift?
A mechanism of evolution that refers to random changes in allele frequencies in a population.
180
During geographic speciation, what happens?
A species is separated by a physical barrier, leading to the formation of new species.
181
What is polyploidy?
The condition where an organism has extra sets of chromosomes, often occurring in plants.
182
What is the difference between graduated and punctuated equilibrium?
* Graduated equilibrium: Evolution occurs gradually over time.
* Punctuated equilibrium: Evolution occurs in rapid bursts followed by long periods of stability.
183
What is the binomial system?
A two-part naming system for species consisting of the genus and species name, important for universal identification.
184
Define taxonomy.
The science of classifying organisms into categories based on shared characteristics.
185
List the three domains of living organisms.
* Archaea
* Eubacteria
* Eukarya
186
Fill in the missing taxa: Domain, Kingdom, ______, Order, ______.
Phylum, Species.
187
What is the importance of having a naming system for species?
It provides a universal language for scientists to communicate about organisms.
188
What is an autotroph?
An organism that can produce its own food from light or chemical energy.
189
What is a heterotroph?
An organism that cannot produce its own food and must obtain nutrients by consuming other organisms.
190
Define catabolic reaction.
A metabolic process that breaks down complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy.
191
Define anabolic reaction.
A metabolic process that builds up complex molecules from simpler ones, requiring energy input.
192
What is cellular respiration?
A process by which cells convert glucose and oxygen into ATP, carbon dioxide, and water.
193
What is photosynthesis?
The process by which autotrophs use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.
194
Define carbon fixation.
The process of converting inorganic carbon into organic molecules during photosynthesis.
195
What is the equation for cellular respiration?
C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP.
196
What is the energy source for photoautotrophs?
Light energy (sun)
## Footnote
Photoautotrophs obtain energy through photosynthesis, examples include plants and algae.
197
What process do chemoautotrophs use to obtain energy?
Chemosynthesis
## Footnote
Chemoautotrophs get energy from chemical energy in inorganic molecules, such as hydrogen and ammonia.
198
What is the equation for cellular respiration?
C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP
199
Where does cellular respiration take place in the cell?
Mitochondria (animal cells) and chloroplasts (plant cells)
200
What is the equation for photosynthesis?
6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy -> C6H12O6 + 6O2
201
Where does photosynthesis take place in the cell?
Chloroplast
202
What is the connection between cellular respiration and photosynthesis?
They are connected in a cycle that moves energy.
203
What causes the annual fluctuation in carbon dioxide levels?
Seasonal plant activity
## Footnote
CO2 levels decrease in spring and summer due to photosynthesis and increase in fall and winter due to decomposition.
204
Define the term niche.
Animal’s role in an ecosystem
205
How do rainforests contribute to global stability?
Absorb CO2, regulate climate, biodiversity hotspot
## Footnote
Rainforests act as massive carbon sinks and help drive rainfall patterns.
206
What is a mesocosm?
A controlled outdoor experimental system that simulates natural environments
207
What is a keystone species?
A species that has a disproportionately large impact on its ecosystem.
208
Define eutrophication.
Nutrient enrichment in aquatic systems leading to excessive growth of algae.
209
What is biomagnification?
The process where the concentration of toxins increases in organisms at higher trophic levels.
210
Define ecological succession.
The process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time.
211
What is primary succession?
Succession that occurs in an environment without soil, starting from bare rock.
212
What is cyclical succession?
A repeated pattern of succession due to disturbances, such as wildfires.
213
What is a climax community?
A stable community that undergoes little change in species composition.
214
List some causes of climate change.
* Greenhouse gas emissions
* Deforestation
* Industrial activities
215
Define positive feedback in the context of global warming.
A process where an initial change leads to further changes in the same direction.
216
What is carbon sequestration?
The process of capturing and storing atmospheric CO2.
217
What is biodiversity?
The variety of life in the world or in a particular habitat or ecosystem.
218
What is the current number of known species on Earth?
Approximately 1.8 million species.
219
What is the sixth extinction?
A current ongoing extinction event caused by human activity.
220
What are the causes of ecosystem loss?
* Habitat destruction
* Pollution
* Climate change
221
What is the role of enzymes in metabolism?
They catalyze biochemical reactions.
222
Define catabolism.
The breakdown of molecules to obtain energy.
223
Define anabolism.
The synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones.
224
What is denaturation?
The alteration of an enzyme's structure, affecting its function.
225
What is feedback inhibition?
A regulatory mechanism where the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step.
226
What is an allosteric site?
A site on an enzyme where molecules can bind, affecting enzyme activity.
227
Compare competitive vs. non-competitive inhibition.
* Competitive: Inhibitor competes with substrate for active site
* Non-competitive: Inhibitor binds to an allosteric site
228
How does temperature affect enzyme activity?
Enzyme activity increases with temperature to a point, then decreases due to denaturation.
229
Explain the effect of enzymes on activation energy.
Enzymes lower the activation energy required for reactions.
230
What mechanisms do cells use to increase substrate-active site collisions?
* Increasing substrate concentration
* Enzyme concentration
* Temperature adjustments
231
232
Antisense coding strand vs. sense coding strand (transcription)
Antisense coding strand: strand transcribed into RNA
Sense coding strand: Strand NOT transcribed into RNA
