IC Level 1 >Sub.O. Flashcards
(213 cards)
1
Q
How should appliances be sited when attending IED’s?
A
Facing away from IED withwindows open under direction of police.
Not in direct sight.
Away from glass.
Away from secondary hazards such as cars, garages.
Behind cover.
Upwind of chemicals are suspected.
2
Q
What is a EOD officer ?
A
Explosive Ordinance Officer.
3
Q
What are the 5 C’s?
A
Confirm-location and position.
Clear-evacuation taken place.
Cordon-cordons in place.
Control-control informed, RVP designated and searched.
Check-cordons clear, secondary devices considered, request for more resources.
4
Q
What are the 5 W’s?
A
What-what is it, size description, components.
Where-where is it, exact position, map of approach.
When-time found has it been moved?
Why-why suspicious, potential targets, suspects.
Who-witnesses.
5
Q
What the distances for hand-held radios at a terrorist attack?
A
Appliance and main scheme 50m.
Hand-held 10m.
6
Q
What are the 3 types of risk assessments ?
A
Generic Nationally produced.
Locally produced risk assessment-Produced by the local fire authority.
Dynamic risk assessment-Done by the IC.
7
Q
What is NILO
A
National Inter-agency Liaison Officer.
8
Q
MTA Is ?
A
Marauding Terrorist Attack.
9
Q
In the LFB, what can the NILO advise on?
A
Conventional terrorism
CBRN terrorism
Firearms incidents
Public disorder
Crisis management
10
Q
What is MTA?
A
Terror attack using weapons to inflict large number of casualties.
11
Q
What information should be passed to control if crews find themselves in a terrorist incident ?
A
Number and location of terrorist
Weapons being used
Descriptions of terrorist
12
Q
What is an IED?
A
Improvised Explosive Device
13
Q
What steps should be followed ?
A
Steps 1,2,3 plus
14
Q
What should OIC’s be cautious of when attending IED?
A
Secondary devices
15
Q
What are the 3 types of warning for a bomb threat ?
A
No warning, device actuated
Warning given, device actuated
Warning given, device not actuated made safe.
16
Q
Are the LFB to be used for searching of suspect devices?
A
No, unless they are on a fire station or premises personnel are attached to.
17
Q
What are the cordons for IED’s?
A
Suitcase 100m
Car 200m
Lorry 400m
(Any doubt 400m)
18
Q
What is the PDA for firefighter emergency ?
A
6 Pumps including 3 PL with 3 Station Officers in charge.
2 FRU
FIT
CU
LAS
Press Liaison
FSO
3 SC
Group Manager
DAC
SAI
19
Q
What is the minimum restricted zone for asbestos?
A
25m around the incident
20
Q
When asbestos in suspected or involved, what should be done ?
A
Priority Message sent to control.
‘Asbestos Reported’
21
Q
What should crews wear when working in the hazard zone ?
A
Full PPE
BA
GTS if not firefighting
22
Q
Who can advice the IC?
A
HMEPO
SA
23
Q
What can’t personnel do at an asbestos incident?
A
Smoke, eat, or drink until decontamination.
24
Q
Who must the IC leave the incident with?
A
The local authority with the message,
‘Control given to local authority’
25
What are the UK threat levels ?
Low
Moderate
Substantial
Severe
Critical
26
What information must the IC obtain upon arrival about the explosives?
Type
Quantity
Location
Storage
Involvement
Site plans
Fixed installation
Safety control measures
Separation
27
When explosives are confirmed involved, what must the IC do?
Send a Priority Message
‘Explosives confirmed involved’
28
Maximum storage amounts of explosives permitted ?
Fireworks domestic shop 250kg in ISO container.
Gun enthusiast 20kg of Black powder.
29
What are hazard zones for fireworks/explosives?
200m for 250kg (small car)
600m for 251kg -2000kg and military explosives HD1
1000m for explosives over 2000kg.
30
Who can advise the OIC?
HMEPO.
31
When dealing with IED explosives who takes the lead?
Police.
32
What distance must radios not be used in from the explosive materials ?
60m.
33
What distance can’t radios be used for military explosives ?
600m
34
What can identify a vehicle carrying explosives ?
Orange plate fixed to the front and rear.
35
What is tactical withdrawal ?
The removal of personnel from a specific area of potential danger in a safe and plan manner.
36
Who can implement a tactical withdrawal ?
IC.
Opérations commander
Sector commander
Safety officer
37
What is emergency evacuation ?
The immediate and controlled withdrawal of all personnel from the scene of operations.
38
Who can implement the emergency withdrawal?
IC
Sector Commander
Operational Commander
Safety Officer.
39
Can a firefighter implement a emergency evacuation?
Yes.
When it’s not practical possible to pass the information to the IC and unsafe conditions are detected.
IC MUST be informed ASAP.
40
What actions will be taken for a Emergency Evacuation ?
Short Blast on the Whistle
BA crews via telemetry board
Radio
41
What tactical mode is the IC in when completing a Emergency Evacuation ?
Oscar (Offensive) as some personnel will still be in the hazard zone.
42
What must be done after a Emergency Evacuation ?
A Roll Call.
43
What is a Firefighter Emergency ?
When any fire service personnel or personnel working under the control of LFB are unaccounted for and/or in need of rescue.
44
What Message should be sent for a Firefighter Emergency ?
‘From LFF. E-Muhammad
At (Address)
Firefighter Emergency, Tactical Mode Oscar’.
45
When will Roll Call be taken?
Anytime during an incident.
After any Tactical Withdrawal or Firefight Emergency.
46
Where can asbestos be commonly found ?
Cément roofing
Artex
Pipe installation
47
What is ACM?
Asbestos Containing Materials
48
You are the OIC at a compartment fire, in what circumstances if any can you use HRJ (Hose Reel Jet) instead of 45mm jet?
Where information gathering confirms there is a known small fire the IC may consider that hose reels or hand-portable equipment as an alternative.
49
In a fire involving derived fuels, why is it important to contain FF water run off?
Water run off from firefighting may contain contaminants and should be contained, wherever possible, to avoid environmental pollution of water courses.
50
According to the fire service act 2004, which of the following can we lawfully do?
Extinguishing or preventing the fire or protecting life or property (if they reasonably believe a fire to have broken out or to be about to break out), rescuing people or protecting them from serious harm (if they reasonably believe a road traffic accident to have occurred), discharging any function conferred on the fire and rescue authority in relation to the emergency (if they reasonably believe an emergency of another kind to have occurred), or preventing or limiting damage to property resulting from action taken as mentioned above.
Enter premises or a place, by force if necessary, without the consent of its owner or occupier of the premises or place, move or break into a vehicle without the consent of its owner,
Close a highway, stop and regulate traffic, or restrict the access of persons to premises or a place,
51
What are the flashpoints and fire points of a flammable liquid ?
Flashpoint : The lowest temperature at which a flame can propagate in the vapour above the liquid.
Fire point: A higher temperature than flashpoint, the temperature at which the vapour continues to burn after being ignited.
52
Where should smoke blockers be deployed ?
The smoke blocker must only be used to protect the stairwell in a high rise building from products of combustion.
53
What is the definition of explosives?
Any material that is capable of undergoing a self-contained and self-sustained exothermic chemical reaction at a rate that is sufficient to produce substantial pressure.
54
Explosive hazards are identified as?
Yankee Hazard.
55
How far away can radio controlled explosive be detonated from?
60 meters.
56
How far away can radio controlled explosive be detonated from?
60 meters.
57
How will crews identify explosive hazards?
7.2D
ORD
Fire Safety
Local Authority
HSE
58
What is the sign for Yankee hazard on the MDT?
Red Triangle with black exclamation mark.
59
On arrival where should the appliance be sited?
At a distance from the known explosive hazard.
60
When crews are working within the defined risk area what Tactical mode would be declared ?
Tactical Mode Oscar.
61
Building regulations state that FF shafts and fixed installations should be installed at which height?
6 floors/18m high to make provisions for firefighting and firefighter access.
62
Define a Major Incident ?
‘An event or situation with a range of serious consequences, which requires special arrangements to be implemented by one or more emergency responder agencies’.
63
In the mnemonic METHANE what does the A stand ?
M Major incident declared
E Exact Location
T Type of incident
H Hazards present or suspected
A Access route that are safe to use
N Number, Type, severity of casualties
E Emergency services present and those required
64
What would the evacuation of all personnel mean you have instigated ?
Emergency evacuation
65
Who or what does oncoming officers and appliances report to on arrival to incident?
Appliance commanders and senior officers are to report to the ICP, hand in their nominal roll boards and gather information on the incident from the CPO.
66
When can a monitoring officer make decisions on behalf of the OIC?
The Monitoring Officer should not make any command decisions on behalf of the IC unless they are risk critical. The IC must immediately be informed of any such actions taken by the MO.
67
Who has overall responsibility for risk critical decision on the foreground?
The Incident Commander
68
When should you send an informative ?
An initial informative message should be sent within 20 mins of arrival at an incident, or as soon as possible after the first assistance message has been sent. For incidents with less than 8 appliances in attendance further informative messages are to be sent every 30 minutes ; at 8 pump incidents and above further informative messages can be sent once every 60 minutes.
69
What information is written on an indemnity form?
Show the address of the incident, the name and address of the person /organisation receiving the service and the rate of charge. A brief description of the service rendered is to be entered on the form. A detailed description of the action taken, including the substances involved.
70
Who does the Sector Commander report to ?
A Sector Commander of an operational sector will report direct to the incident commander or operational commander, if appointed.
71
What are the 5 JESIP principles ?
Co-ordinate
Co-locate
Communication
Joint understanding of risk
Shared situational awareness
72
What is the description of a control measure?
Actions taken to reduce the likelihood of exposure to a hazard from a given risk, or to reduce the exposure of the impact.
73
What are the behaviours of a successful Incident Commander?
Being self-aware,
Demonstrating and fostering trust,
2 way communication
Understanding the use of the authority
Setting expectations and standards
Safety leadership
Values and supports people
74
What are the barriers of communication?
Language difference
Communication network failure
Poor listening skills
Body language does not reflect the message.
75
What is the description of a risk?
Something that has the likelihood that a hazard will actually cause it’s adverse effects, together with a measure of the severity of the harm.
76
How many Span of control should the Incident Commander not exceed?
Five. 5.
77
What is a safe person’s concept?
The right person with the right equipment, doing the right job at the right time.
78
What 7 elements of make up the IIMARCH briefing model ?
Humanitarian issues
Information
Communications
Risk assessment
Intent
Administration
Method
79
What 5 things are caused by stress.
Impaired decision making
Impaired Performance
Poor communication
Lack of teamwork
Ineffective leadership
80
What are the 6 keys objectives of an incident Commander?
Comply with relevant legislation
Manage an incident safely
Collaborate and co-operate with other emergency responders
Encourage innovation
Instill confidence
Motivate and inspire others.
81
What are the Tactical Modes?
Offensive
Defensive
82
What are the 2 types of stress described within the fire and rescue environment ?
Chronic
Acute
83
Once a formal handover of command at an incident has taken place, who is informed?
Brigade control and the incident ground.
84
What is the definition of a major incident ?
‘An event or situation with a range of serious consequences which requires special arrangements to be implemented by one or more emergency responder agencies’.
85
What are the 3 types of briefings given on the incident ground?
Command
Task
Tactical
86
Name 3 core behaviours of an Incident Commander?
Compassion
Togetherness
Accountability
87
When can a sprinkler or drenched be turned off at the main stop valve?
As soon as he/she is satisfied that the operated sprinklers or drenched can be dispensed with, the Incident commander of the fire should order the valve controlling the installation affected to be closed, the booster pump switched off and the drain valve opened.
88
What are the 4 categories of incident response ?
Normal
Enchanced
Reduced
Batch mobilisation
89
Who can declare a Major Incident ?
A Major Incident may be declared by a blue light service, jointly or by other Category 1 and 2 responder organisations.
90
What are the 3 stages of an incident ?
Initial assessment
Containing
Under control
91
When can ‘Fire Surrounded’ message be sent ?
For a 6 pumps and above or if 3 main jets have been used.
92
DRM-Dry rising Main
WRM-Wet rising main, have how many litres and time?
WRM-Wet rising mains are designed to supply 1500 litres per minute for 45 minutes as a minimum.
93
How are inner and outer cordons demarked?
Inner cordons- boundary will be marked using the yellow barrier tape with ‘Hazard Zone - Do Not Cross’ written in black.
Outer cordon- It may be designated using the white barrier tape, marked in red with ‘Fire Service - Do Not Cross’.
94
Definition of Safe Systems Of Work is?
A safe system of work is a procedure that results from a systematic examination of a working process, and the production of a risk assessment, designed to control hazards and risks by elimination or some other suitable method.
95
Where do you write FSG information?
Control information forms
Forward information board
96
When do you use guidelines?
Where no other suitable means exist for tracing the way out of a risk area, such as when hose lines are submerged or tangled, or premises layout is complex.
To enter high expansion foam.
97
What is a CAP test?
The wetting test in conjunction with a thermal Imaging Camera (TIC) is known as the cylinder assessment process (CAP).
This test is the recognised way of checking if decomposition is taking place within the a cylinder.
If decomposition were taking place the heat given off by the reaction would warm the cylinder shell above ambient temperature.
98
What are the 3 types of cordons?
The inner cordon is established around the immediate scene of operations in order to restrict or even to exclude access to an area of hazard.
The outer cordon is generally wider, separating the public from areas used by the Emergency Services for support activities.
The traffic cordon is set up by the police at or beyond the outer cordon to prevent unauthorised vehicles access to the surrounding area.
99
What would be instigated if you evacuate all personnel in a controlled manner from the risk area to a place of safety ?
Tactical withdrawal is the removal of personnel from a specific area of potential danger in a safe and planned manner.
Planned evacuation - A pre-determined strategy for a premise to secure the removal of any persons in or around the premises to a place of safety.
100
What is Minimum initial hazard zone for an asbestos incident ?
Setting up a minimum 25 m restricted zone around the incident - greater if weather conditions and nature of the incident dictate.
101
What does the symbol of a red triangle and black exclamation mark mean on the MDT?
Yankee hazard/Explosives.
102
Your EPD begins to sound with an intermittent double beep, what should you do?
Withdraw from the incident until EPD stops sounding.
103
In what circumstances should the OIC establish an ICP?
An initial command pump (ICP) will be established as soon as possible whenever more than one pumping appliance is in attendance. Headlights and blue beacons should remain on to identify it. An incident command
Wallet (OCW) should be set up at , Or near the ICP. A command pump operator (CPO) should be designated.
104
What does a H in a yellow box with a X through it mean on the MDT?
An inoperable fire hydrant that will not supply water for firefighting.
105
Récipients of a briefing should understand clearly what they should do to confirm understanding by?
Repeating the briefing back.
106
You are the IC at an incident involving ducting. In what circumstances should the ducting/inspection panels be opened?
Inspection and access panels should be identified , the IC must ensure that the entire length of the ducting or flue are is thoroughly checked for fire spread, these may only be opened on the instruction of the IC, appropriate extinguishing media must be in position to cover possible fire spread. Where it is necessary to cut into the ducting to apply firefighting media similar control measures should be applied.
107
How long should an LPG cylinders be cooled if directly affected by flame?
Once the fire has been extinguished, crews should continue to cool the cylinder(s) until it is returned to ambient temperature as assessed with a TIC.
108
You are the OIC at a gas leak incident. The gas has ignited, what general operations tactics should be employed ?
Where a natural gas leak has ignited, the flames should not be extinguished but surrounding risks should be protected by lashing off jets in place and evacuating the area until the gas supply has been isolated.
109
What is the hot zone identity as at an MTA incident ?
Hot Zone.
Where the attackers are known or believed to be present and /or there’s an immediate threat to life.
110
In what following situations should respirators not be used ?
Oxygen deficient atmospheres
Toxic gases
Flammable atmospheres
Confined space
Incident involving confined spaces
111
A running call is received to a lock out; however, it is ascertained that there is no danger to life or life-threatening circumstances, what should you do?
If there is no long danger to life or life-threatening circumstance, the incident Commander is to decline render a service and withdraw from the incident as quickly and tactically as possible, explaining the Brigade’s policy for handling requests for effecting entry for persons locked out.
112
Which of the following piece of information should not be given to the media ?
*Names of people involved in the incident - including those who have been rescued, injured or died. Requests for that information should be directed to the police and/or the communication department.
*The names of any Brigade personnel who have been injured or killed at incidents. Any such enquiry must always be referred the communications department.
*Any operational difficulties including failure of water supply or problems with equipment, accidents involving fire appliances or any difficulties which may be the subject of a subsequent inquiry.
*Detailed information about the contents of the building.
*Incident information at government premises.
*Buildings subject to diplomatic immunity such embassies or royal residences should be referred to the Communications Department or duty press officer (if the incident occurs out of office hours).
* Any information on disciplinary matters, industrial relations, Brigade policies or initiatives, equipment. appliances, buildings.
113
The entry control point supervisor (ECPS) must be appointed when Stagd II BA entry control procedures are us Ed d, this rank must be a minimum of LFF. Stage II procedures are to be used when any of the following apply,
*More than one ECP is required.
*More than 6 wearers see deployedjnyo a risk area at any one time.
*The incident and structures Involved are complex and or the increased deployment of BA, plus the increased risks associated with BA operations, demand a greater degree of control and supervision.
*BA operations are likely to be protracted.
*Guidelines are required.
* The risks presented to BA teams demand a higher level of BA emergency provision, involving the nedd for BA emergency teams.
*EDBA is required.
* BA telemetry repeater(s) or leaky feeder is deployed.
* Confirmed Basement fire ( where size and layout indicate Stage II is appropriate).
*BA emergency team(s) have been committed.
* When chemical protective clothing are not in sight of ECP.
*When committing BA wearers to Hi-Ex Foam.
*When other agencies are being committed in BA.
114
The entry control point supervisor (ECPS) must be appointed when Stagd II BA entry control procedures are us Ed d, this rank must be a minimum of LFF. Stage II procedures are to be used when any of the following apply,
*More than one ECP is required.
*More than 6 wearers see deployedjnyo a risk area at any one time.
*The incident and structures Involved are complex and or the increased deployment of BA, plus the increased risks associated with BA operations, demand a greater degree of control and supervision.
*BA operations are likely to be protracted.
*Guidelines are required.
* The risks presented to BA teams demand a higher level of BA emergency provision, involving the nedd for BA emergency teams.
*EDBA is required.
* BA telemetry repeater(s) or leaky feeder is deployed.
* Confirmed Basement fire ( where size and layout indicate Stage II is appropriate).
*BA emergency team(s) have been committed.
* When chemical protective clothing are not in sight of ECP.
*When committing BA wearers to Hi-Ex Foam.
*When other agencies are being committed in BA.
115
If a build utilises phased evac where would it normally begin?
Floors of origin of fire (high-rise premises built prior to 2006 may be managed to the design category of the fire floor and the floor above as the initial evacuation). People with reduced mobility, wherever they are in the building will be evacuated with gjisd on the floor.
116
What is operational discretion?
To achieve specific objectives, operational discretion empowers individuals to adapt or move away from operational policy, if it is justifiable in terms of risk verses benefit.
117
What 2 things are risk assessment s used to consider impact on the brigade in relation to?
Financial & Public expectations.
118
What is a hazard?
Something v with the potential to cause harm.
119
What is a risk?
The measure of likelihood thst harm from a particular hazard will oc ur and possible severity of the harm.
120
What is risk assessment?
The process of identitying hazards and who, what isst risk ftom those hazards and the likely severity of the risk and control measures required to minimise or eliminate the risk.
121
What is risk / benefit analysis?
A compression between the risk assessment and the potential benefits from a course of action.
122
What is SSOW?
Safe Systems Of Work.
A method of working designed to eliminate or reduce risk.
123
What is decision logging?
A means to record decision sand the rationale behind them at incidents.
124
What is a professional judgement?
Intelligent application of relevant train ing, knowledge and experience within the context of operational experience, training to nske calculated decision.
125
What is the safe person concept?
The right person doing the right job with the right equipment at the right time.
126
What 5 things are the responsibility crewmembers with regards to DRA?
Identify the hazard
Evaluate the risk
Select the SSOW
Implement a tion to eliminate or control the risk
Evaluate how effective that action is.
127
Where may operational discretion be used?
*Rescue savable life, where implement full policy would lead to delay and greater injury or life being lost.
* Tackle a known small fire through pre emptied strike, where policy would lead to delay and create higher levels of risk.
* where no action by the brigade may cause the public to place themselves at risk and escalate incident.
128
When using operational discretion, where must this be recorded?
On the key decision log
129
What are the 5 steps to a DRA?
1. Evaluation of the situation, task and persons at risk.
2. Select safe systems of work.
3. Assess the chosen system if work.
4. Introduce additional control measure.
5. Reassess systems of work and additionalcontrol measures.
130
Who can implement Sectors?
The IC.
131
What is the ideal amount of spans of control ?
5.
132
What are the 2 types of sectors?
Operationa - Management of a physical area on thd incident ground.
Functional - Responsible for management of a suport function. I.e, water.
133
When sectorisation takes place, who is responsible for the tactical mode?
The IC.
134
What is a Sectir Commander?
An Officer nominated to take command of a sector whether its operations or functional.
135
Who would a sector commander report to?
The IC or Operational sector. Commammder.
136
Who would a functional commander report to?
The IC.
137
What defines a Operational Sector?
An area of responsibility defined by a physical boundary such as floors or walls.
138
What defines a functional sector?
An area of responsibility by a support role and the resources it commands.
139
What sector is often sector 1?
The main entrance or main scene of operations.
140
Where can vertical sectorisation take place?
High-riseor Basement incidents.
141
What must be done before handing over command of a sector?
Formal hand over.
142
What is the minimum weight of attack for a Basement Incident?
45mm Jet.
143
What setting should the branch be set at?
230 litres per minute
144
What should be in ace before committing crews to the Basement fire?
*2 x 45mm Jets
*3 x 45mm Jets
*Entrance and Exit protected
*Secured water supply Twinned with 70 mm hose.
145
List 10 hazards with Basements?
*Utilities
*Heat Barrier
*Fire loading
* Rabbit warren layout
*Heat stress
*Cramped conditions
*Flashover/Backdraught
*Entanglement
* Hoarding
* Communication difficulties
* Where will crews get information from at Basements
*7.2D’s
*ORD
146
What fixed installations can be present at Basements?
Sprinklers
Automatic fire alarm
Falling mains
Foam inlets
Mechanical ventilation or smoke extraction
147
Where should the IC locate for a basement incident?
At Surface level unless pre-planning states otherwise, such as fire control room.
148
Who should the first IC try to locate?
A Responsible Person
149
What considerations should the IC be thinking about?
Additional Resources
Safety Officers
Sectors
150
Who can advise the IC on fixed installations?
Senior Fire Safety Officer
151
IC should also consider what at ducting fires?
Ducting and ventilation pipes and a full search of these done with TIC.
152
What equipment can a firefighting crew use to assist them in search and firefighting?
The TIC
153
What stage of BA is used at Basement incidents?
Stage 1
Consideration should be given to early use of stage 2 or criteria hit for stage 2.
154
When should ‘Basement Procedure Implemended” message be sent?
When the IC has committed BA teams to the basement with a minimum of a 45mm hose and branch set at 230lpm.
A team protecting egress and access with the second 45mm hose a length longer set at 230 lpm.
155
What does it mean when a ‘Basement Procedure Implemented’ message is sent?
A DRAMA has been carried out and SSOW has been implemented.
156
What can be used to improve communication at Basement Incidents?
Leaky feeders on channel 5
157
If using open water from water supply what must it be?
Virtually inexhaustible i.e river canal.
158
When can ventilation take place?
Only on the order of the IC.
159
What must be in place before ventilation takes place?
Covering Jets adjacent to the opening of the Basement.
These must not be directed directly into the fire as they will push flames back.
160
Can ventilation take place before crews are committed?
Yes. If no life is to be saved and it can improve conditions for crews prior to entry
161
What can incorrect use of ventilation systems cause?
Worsen conditions for persons involved.
Increase fire spread
Lead to a backdraught.
162
Define Incident Commander?
The nominated Responsible Person.
However, the most senior officer present holds organisational accountability.
163
When will a support officer take over?
*When there’s immediate concerns over safety.
*And the incident is beyond the capability of IC.
*Competent to do so.
*No other suitable officer.
164
Who is responsible when land appliances and fire boat are in attendance?
The most senior land based appliance officer.
165
What is the colour of the incident Commander surcoat?
White yoke and yellow body.
Marked with Incident Commander
166
When will a Sub. Officer or Station Officer take over?
First attending Sub or Station Officer will take the IC and remain in charge until 4 pumps are in attendance.
167
When will a Station Officer take over?
A Station Officer will take command for the incident that exceeds 4 pumps until the station Commander turns up.
168
Who takes control when a substantive or temporary sub officer are in attendance?
Substantive
169
If a station officer is mobilised but not in attendance, can a stop message be sent?
No.
170
What must be said when taking over?
I am taking over.
A message then sent to control with the new OIC’s name.
171
What is the colour of the monitoring officer surcoat?
White yoke and yellow lower body with monitoring officer on the back
172
List duties of a monitoring officer SC and above?
1. Undertake remote monitoring of incidents
2. Gather information of operational performance.
3. Provide support and guidance.
4. Take command if required or necessary.
173
What should the Monitoring officer not do?
Make command decisions on behalf of the IC unless risk critical.
174
Where can monitoring officer provide feedback?
IMPD
175
What is the purpose of ORT?
To provide assurance for the incident ground when in attendance.
176
What is FSG?
When a caller believes that they are unable to leave their premises due to the effects of fire and where control officers stay on the line providing advice.
177
Who needs to be notified is a monitoring officer is taking over/command of an incident?
Brigade Control and the incident ground.
178
What are the 2 types of sector
Operational / functional
179
Who assigns the sector commander?
Incident Commander and/or operations commander
180
What are the 4 types of debriefs?
Self-reflection
Performance review of operations.
Performance reviews of functions.
Post traumatic incident manager debrief.
181
What 4 things does a PRO examine the performance of?
Teams
Individuals
Procedures
Equipment
182
What are the 5 principles of command function?
1.Risk acceptance involves judgment and balance.
2. A willingness to make decisions in conditions of uncertainty is a core need of the fire rescue service.
3.The primary consideration for making decisions is the safety of individuals and communities.
4. To reduce risk aversion, improve decision making and avoid decision traps, learning from success and failures.
5.Harm can never be totally prevented, risk critical decisions should be judged by decision making not the outcome.
183
If the WRM should fail what must the IC do?
The IC should identify whether the system has isolation valves installed and use these to optimise water supplies to the outlets used.
184
Why is sectorisation important?
*Helps IC maintain their span of control at an incident.
*Enhances safety management at an incident.
*Provides visible leadership across the incident ground.
*Provides clear lines of communication and reporting for everyone on the incident ground.
185
What are the responsibilities of the PRC chair?
Define the aim and objectives of the PRC and outlining the format and protocols of the PRC including confidentiality and mutual respect.
Identifying and highlighting both good and bad practice and areas where improvement can be made, taking account of individuals own reflection on their performance and development activities implemented since the incident. Encourage attendees to provide detailed information on their command decisions and operational actions of each attendee and determining whether the command function was effective.
Processing through the incident in a logical manner, with reference to incident command, using the DMM to introduce and explain the roles of all participants.
Ensuring all information regarding positive and development points are recorded on the IMPD in conjunction with the ORT officer.
Review and summarise the actions of each participant and provide verbal feedback to them.
E
186
What are the 6 components that make up SHOP-AC?
S-Situation
H-Hazard
O-Objectives
P-Plan
A-Any questions
C-Communication and confirmation.
187
What 3 sector are there in vertical sectorisation?
Lobby
Fire.
Search.
188
True/False.
Debrief are an essential part of the the management of health and safety on the incident ground.
True.
189
True/ False.
Is it the role of the MO to record both good and improvement on the IMPD?
True.
190
What is the definition of explosives?
Any material that is capable of undergoing a self-contained and self-sustained exothermic chemical reaction at a rate that is sufficient to produce substantial pressure.
191
What are the 2 types of explosive materials?
Detonating
Deflagrating
192
What are the qualities of a good IC?
Self-aware.
Displays and instills confidence.
Demonstrate and foster trust.
Foster 2 way communication .
Understands the use of authority.
Sets expectations and standards.
Leads safely, values and supports people and is competent.
193
Actions when attending incidents with unsecured guard dogs?
Request the attendance of the key holder,
And Police with a dog handler.
194
What are the 3 levels of incident command?
Bronze
Silver
Gold
195
What are the 3 phases of an incident?
Initial assessment
Containing
Under control
196
What 2 main heading can a collapse be broken down into?
Natural
Human
197
What are the natural collapse causes?
Earthquake
Hurricane
Lightning
Flooding
Subsidence
198
Buildings may be divided into two categories, what are they?
Framed
Unframed
199
What are the 3 categories of collapse?
Internal
External
Total
200
Which agency investigates collapse structures?
Health and Safety Executive
(HSE).
201
When dealing with a fire that originated in the roof, what is the best course of action?
Cool the inert gases within the roof while limiting ventilation, then ventilate.
202
Why is it important to gather key information when faced with unseen fire spread?
This will the inform the tactical decisions around evacuation, considering the ventilation profile in the roof.
203
Who has overall responsibility for an Analytical Risk Assessment?
The IC.
204
Between what hours do the brigade control undertake call filtering?
06:00-21:00
205
True/False.
The Boxwall flood barriers are able to dam 0.5 of water and is lightweight at only 3.4kg, it stands firm without any external fastening and is anchored by the water itself.
True.
206
What are the dedicated radio channels waves and short codes for East and West?
East Channel 5 554*
West Channel 6 545*
207
What are key decisions?
*Decision to apply with operational discretion.
*Decision that may have a significant impact on members of the public.
*Decision that may have a significant impact on the environment and other agencies.
208
How does an analytical risk assessment add value?
*Provides a clearer recognition of the risk/benefit analysis.
*Provides a framework to structure safety briefings.
* Enables clearer communication of the joint understanding of risk at multi agency briefings.
209
At a major incident who should the IC request via control to help with record keeping?
A loggist to record decisions.
210
How should operational discretion be declared?
By sending a ‘Priority Message
‘Operational Discretion In Use’
211
When is an analytical risk assessment completed?
When the IC recognises the value, a safety sector commander is appointed and resources allow.
212
What should fire crews do if they are called to an ISO container with harmful and hazardous materials present?
They should don their BA sets for any immediate lifesaving operations avoiding any visual products where possible and declaring a ‘Level 2 Hazmat’ with control
213
There 3 debrief formats, what are they?
Hot Debrief
Operational Debrief
Command review
