ic11 schizophrenia Flashcards

(74 cards)

1
Q

what are the diagnoses associated with psychotic symptoms?

A

organic disorders:
- CNS: infections, epilepsy, dementia, parkinsons.
- Head: trauma, tumours/malignancy.
- Endocrine: hypo/hyperthyroidism
- Drug or substance abuse related
- Iatrogenic causes
- metabolic disorders/physiological disturbances affected nervous system.

affective disorders:
- mania, psychotic depression, postpartum depression

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2
Q

drugs associated with drug-induced psychosis (examples)

A

alcohol
barbiturates (eg phenobarbital)
benzodiazepines
beta blockers (eg propanolol)
corticosteroids
cns stimulants (amphetamines)
dopamine agonists (levodopa, for PD)

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3
Q

what is the dsm5 criteria for diagnosis of schizophrenia?

A

at least 2 of the following for at least 1 month
- disorganised speech
- catatonic behaviour (two extremes)
- hallucinations
- negative symptoms (affective flattening, avolition)
- delusions

symptoms for more than 6 months

social or occupational dysfunction

rule out medical disorders or substance abuse.

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4
Q

what are the labs and monitoring prior to diagnosis and treatment

A

almost all labs to rule out any general medical conditions or substance induced psychosis.

FBC
TFT
LFT
kidney function U/E/Cr
FBG
Lipids
ECG
urine toxicology

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5
Q

non phx interventions for schizophrenia

A

Psychosocial rehab: to help with adaptive behaviour/function

Support, counselling (incl vocational sheltered)

CBT: individual and group (eg family members)

ECT: electroconvulsive therapy
rTMS: repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation

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6
Q

when is ECT used in schizophrenia?

A

for treatment resistant schizophrenia

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7
Q

when is rTMS used in schizophrenia?

A

may be used to help with auditory hallucinations.

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8
Q

mechanism of dopamine antagonism and the additional adverse effects of antipsychotics?

A

1) mesolimbic tract
- positive symptoms

ADR
2) mesocortical tract
- cause negative symptoms (region of higher order thinking and executive functions)
3) nigrostriatal tract
- EPSE
4) tuberofundibular tract
- hyperprolactinemia (anterior pituitary blockade)

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9
Q

receptor affinities and associated clinical implications (therapeutic and side effects)

A

D2
- antagonism: improve positive symptoms
- side effects: EPSE, hyperprolactinemia

5HT2A
- antagonism: possibly antidepressant effects, improve negative symptoms(?)

5HT2C
- antagonism side effects: weight gain

H1
- antagonism side effects: sedation, weight gain

alpha 1
- antagonism side effects: orthostatic hypotension

M1
- antagonism side effects: memory dysfunction, peripheral anticholinergic effect (constipation, dry mouth…)

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10
Q

what is the treatment algorithm for schizophrenia

A

1) FGA or SGA except clozapine
if inadequate or intolerable SE
2) FGA or SGA except clozapine
if inadequate or intolerable SE
3) Clozapine

4) Combination therapy:
- clozapine + FGA/SGA/ECT
- FGA + FGA
- FGA + SGA
- FGA/SGA + ECT

should have adequate response, no intolerable side effects, and compliant

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11
Q

how long should treatment be initiated for schizophrenia before swapping to another agent?

A

atleast 2-6 weeks at OPTIMAL therapeutic doses

(except clozapine up to 3 months for mono therapy; 8-10 wks for combination)

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12
Q

treatment considerations if patient is non-compliant?

A

consider long acting injectable antipsychotics

  • iM risperidone microspheres, paliperidone, aripiprazole, haloperidol decanoate, flupenthixol decanoate, zuclopenthixol decanoate.
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13
Q

what tx can be considered for acute agitation (where patient is cooperative)?

A

consider
1) oral lorazepam 1-2mg

2) oral antipsychotic
- halo 2-5mg tab/sol with pre tx ecg
- risp orodispersible tab/sol 1-2mg
- quetiapine IR tab 50-100mg
- olanzapine orodispersible tab 5-10mg

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14
Q

what tx can be considered for acute agitation (where patient is uncooperative)?

A

1) fast acting
IM lorazepam 1-2mg

2) antipsychotic
- IM olanzapine, aripiprazole, haloperidol, promethazine

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15
Q

what tx can be considered for catatonia (abnormal movement/behaviour, withdrawal)

A

po/im lorazepam

or ECT

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16
Q

what tx can be considered for depressive sx or negative sx

A

depression: antidepressant

negative symptoms: mild/moderate efficacy antidepressant

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17
Q

which oral antipsychotics have poor Tmax >3h (less rapidly absorbed and or slower onset)

A

aripiprazole
brexpiprzole

olanzapine

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18
Q

which oral antipsychotics have shorter t1/2 (will require divided dosing)

A

chlorpromazine
sulpiride
amisulpride
clozapine
quetiapine
ziprasidone

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19
Q

which antipsychotics can be given with food to increase BA

A

lurasidone
ziprasidone

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20
Q

what are the EPSE side effects and their characteristics?

A

fast onset (hours to weeks)
1) dystonia: muscle spasms (mins to hours)
2) akathisia: restlessness
3) pseudo-parkinsonism: dyskinesia, tremors, rigidity, salivation..

late onset
4) tardive dyskinesia: orofacial movements, tongue protrusions (IRREVERSIBLE)

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21
Q

what are the risks and management of dystonia caused by antipsychotics?

A

associated with high potency antipsychotics

lower dose or switch to SGA
manage with IM anticholinergics: benzatropine, diphenhydramine

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22
Q

what are the risks and management of pseudo-parkinsonism caused by antipsychotics?

A

higher likelihood in elderly females and previous neurological damage (stroke, head injury)

lower dose or switch to SGA
manage with benztropine or trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol)

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23
Q

what are the risks and management of akathasia caused by antipsychotics?

A

associated with high potency antipsychotics
FGA> risp > olan >quetiapine, clozapine

Lower dose or switch to SGA
anticholinergics are not effective
consider
clonazepam PRN or
propanol 20mg TDS (max 160mg/day)

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24
Q

what are the risks and management of tardive dyskinesia caused by antipsychotics?

A

FGA > SGA

WORSENS WITH ANTICHOLINERGICS
DISCONTINUE any anticholinergics
lower dose or switch to SGA

consider:
- reversible vesicular monoamine transporter 2 (VMAT2): valbenazine 40-80mg/day
- clonazepam PRN

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25
what are the risks and management of HYPERPROLACTINAEMIA caused by antipsychotics?
FGA > pali > risp > SGA decrease dose of drug consider switching to aripiprazole OR use dopamine agonist (amantadine, bromocriptine)
26
manifestations of hyperprolactinaemia?
females decrease libido galactorrhea or amenorrhea male: gynaecomastia
27
what are the risks and management of metabolic disorders caused by antipsychotics?
risk: high: olanzapine, clozapine mid: risp, quet, cpz low: brex, ari, lura, cariprazine, zipra, haloperidol management: - change to lower risk agents - lifestyle modification: diet and exercise - treat diabetes with eg metformin AND hyperlipidaemia
28
what are the manifestations of metabolic disorders?
increase FBG, diabetes increased lipids weight gain
29
what are the risks and management of orthostatic hypotension caused by antipsychotics?
risk: - CPZ, Clozapine > Risp, pali, quetiapine > olan, lura, ari, sulpiride (choose these) get up slowly from a sitting or lying position switch to lower risk agents.
30
what are the risks and management of QTC prolongation caused by antipsychotics?
risk: high doses, IV haloperidol, decreased serum k+, IHD, female gender thioridazine > CPZ > ziprasidone > halo > ilo > quet > risp > olan if qtc >440ms (male), >470ms (female) = switch to lower risk agent if qtc >500ms, refer to cardiologist
31
what are the risks and management of VTE/PE caused by antipsychotics?
low potency FGA (CPZ) prevent monitor and treat
32
what are the risks and management of sedation caused by antipsychotics?
CPZ, clozapine > quetiapine > olanzapine consider amisulpride, aripiprazole, brexpiprazole, ziprasidone, paliperidone (switch to lower risk agents)
33
what are the risks and management of seizures caused by antipsychotics?
CPZ, clozapine > other antipsychotics (consider -dones, piprazoles) also high doses, rapid titration, or history of epilepsy. consider switching to high potency agents
34
what are the risks and management of NMS caused by antipsychotics?
high potency antipsychotics management: - IV dantrolene 50mg TDS - oral dopamine agonist: amantadine, bromocriptine - switch to SGA
35
what is the presentation of NMS
autonomic dysfunction: increase PR, labile BP, diaphoresis (sweating) altered consciousness increased CK muscle rigidity fever
36
what is the risk associated with anticholinergics + antipsychotics
psychogenic polydipsia (thirst) temperature dysregulation
37
what are the risks and management of hepatic side effects caused by antipsychotics?
CPZ, quetiapine, olanzapine > other SGAs if jaundice occurs, discontinue and switch
38
what are the hepatic side effects:
increased LFTs cholestatic jaundice
39
what are the risks and management of opthamologic side effects caused by antipsychotics?
phenothiazines (CPZ, thioridazine), quetiapine if on QUET: EYE exam q6months
40
what are the ophthalmologic side effects:
cornea, lens changes pigmentary retinopathy
41
what are the dermatological side effects
maculopapular rash photosensitivity pigmentation
42
what are the risks and management of DERM SE caused by antipsychotics?
phenothiazines protective clothing or switch to another agent
43
what are the risk associated with clozapine?
may decrease WBC and ANC and cause agranulocytosis discontinue if severe: WBC<3x10^9 or ANC <1.5x10^9
44
what are the parameters to monitor for antipsychotics
x7 Metabolic: - BMI, Waist circumference, FBG, Lipid Plasma prolactin BP EPSE exam
45
how often to monitor for BMI?
WEEKLY x 6 wks OR EVERY VISIT (at least monthly) x3-6 months (3mth for SGA) Q3months when dose stabilised
46
how often to monitor for waist circumference
EVERY VISIT x 6 months then ANNUAL
47
how often to monitor for FBG
low risk: annual high risk: 4 months from initiation (3 months if SGA), then annually
48
how often to monitor for LIPIDS
low risk: q2-5 years high risk: 3 months after initiation (SGA), THEN Q6 MONTHS
49
how often to monitor for PLASMA PROLACTIN
at baseline
50
how often to monitor for BP
3 months after initiation THEN ANNUALLY
51
how often to monitor for EPSE
q weekly x 2 weeks OR until dose stabilised low risk: q6mth (FGA), q12mth (SGA) high risk: q3 mth (FGA), 12mth (SGA)
52
how often and wat to monitor for side effects in clozapine
WBC and ANC for leucopenia and/or agranulocytosis weekly x 18 weeks then monthly
53
what to monitor specifically for ziprasidone
QTC prolongation do ECG repeat if risk of symptoms like syncope.
54
what antipsychotics to choose for pregnancy
clozapine olanzapine
55
what antipsychotics to choose for breastfeeding
olanzapine quetiapine continue clozapine and stop breastfeeding
56
what antipsychotics to choose for hepatic impairment
amisulpride and sulpiride RENALLY CLEARED
57
what antipsychotics to choose for renal impairment
aripiprazole PO DO NOT USE AMISULPRIDE OR SULPIRIDE
58
WHAT to caution and treatment planning for elderly on antipsychotics
consider drugs with high alpha adrenergic and anticholinergic side effects start low go slow, simplify, and avoid long t1/2 drugs risk of increased mortality and CVAs in dementia patients on FGA / SGA.
59
what is one pertinent drug disease to caution
drug disease: antipsychotics will worsen PD
60
what are substrates of cyp1a2
1a2 substrate phenothiazines halo olan zipra clozapine
61
1a2 inhibitors and inducers
ia2 inducers: rifampicin, phenobarbital, phenytoin, cigarette smoke 1a2 inhibitors: fluvoxamine, macrolides, quinolones, isoniazid, ketoconazole
62
cyp 2d6 substrates?
phenothiazines halo olan risp aripiprazole brexpiprazole
63
2d6 inhibitors and inducers
2d6 inhibitors: fluoxetine, paroxetine, bupropion, duloxetine 2d6 inducer: rifampicin, phenobarbital, phenytoin, cbz
64
3a4 substrates for antipsychotics
lumateperone (CONTRA) lura (CONTRA) quet cariprazine risp ari brex
65
3a4 inhibitors?
3a4 inhibitors: macrolides, azoles, **grapefruit juice**, fluvoxamine, norfluoxetine, TCA, imidazole, isoniazid 3a4 inducers: CBZ, phenytoin, barbiturates
66
what drugs will have additive cns effects
cns depressants - alcohol, opioids, psychotropics like benzodiazepine
67
what drugs will have additive adverse effects
antimuscarinics, antihistaminic, alpha1 adrenergic blockade, dopamine blockade
68
what drugs will antagonise antipsychotics
dopamine agonists levodopa bromocriptine
69
What drugs will increase hypotensive effects
antihypertensives, trazodone (SARI)
70
what happens with adrenaline + antipsychotic combination
pressor effects reversed by CPZ or other low potency antipsychotics
71
what will increase the toxicity and alter response of antipsychotics
TCAs
72
what may cause neurotoxicity
lithium
73
what drug with special interaction with clozapine?
carbamazepine maybe increase risk of agranulocytosis
74
what is the time course of treatment response?
early: 1st week: decreased agitation, aggression, hostility 2nd-4th week: decrease hallucinations, paranoia, bizarre behaviors improved organisation in thinking late: 6-12 weeks: decreased delusions, possibly negative symptoms may improve