ID Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Most useful test for diagnosing congenital HIV?

A

HIV DNA PCR
- perform at birth, 2months, 4 months and 12months
- reassuring if negative at 4months

HIV antibodies not useful until >18mo due to transplacental passage of ab’s

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2
Q

What medication is used to treat infants at low risk of HIV Mother-Child transmission?

A

4 week course of PO or IV zidovudine prophylaxis

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3
Q

Features of congenital syphilis?

A

IUGR
Anaemia and thrombocytopenia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Fever and rash
“snuffles”
Chorioretinitis and cataracts
Periostitis and osteochondritis

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4
Q

Common causes of osteomyelitis

A

S aureus most common
S pneumoniae
Kingella

Neonates: S aureus, GBS and gram negs

IVDU: pseudomonas

CGD: catalase positive microbes such as serratia, s aureus and candida

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5
Q

Which bacteria cause gastroenteritis by ingestion of preformed toxins?

A

Staph aureus
Bacillus cereus

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6
Q

Side effects of ciprofloxacin

A

photosensitivity
tendon rupture
seizures
prolonged QTc

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7
Q

Mechanism of methicillin resistance in MRSA

A

Many staph aureus carry the mecA gene that encodes for penicillin binding protein 2a, which has a low affinity for beta lactams so beta lactams are unable to bind and inhibit cell wall synthesis

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8
Q

Antibiotics with MRSA cover

A

Vancomycin
Clindamycin
Bactrim
Linezolid

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9
Q

Features of congenital CMV?

A

Microcephaly
Sensorineural hearing loss
Developmental delay
Thrombocytopenia
Hepatosplenomgealy, hepatitis
IUGR
Calcifications which CircuMVent the ventricles
Chorioretinitis in 10-20% (ie less than toxo)

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10
Q

Organism most likely responsible for infection post dog or cat BITE?

A

Pasteurella multocida

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11
Q

Organism most likely responsible for infection post cat SCRATCH?

A

Bartonella henselae

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12
Q

Neonatal conjunctivitis: gonococcal vs chlamydia

A
  • Gonococcal more likely to present early (2-7 days after delivery), chlamydia more likely to present later (onset 7-14days after delivery)
  • Chlamydia associated with neonatal pneumonia in first 4months
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13
Q

Management of neonatal chlamydia infection (conjunctivitis or pneumonia)

A

Azithromycin 20mg/kg PO for 3 days (per ASID guidelines)

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14
Q

Which organisms have inducible resistance to cephalosporins on treatment? ie inducible beta-lactamase activity that is chromosomally mediated

A

ESCAPPM organisms
* Enterobacter species
* Serratia marcescens
* Citrobacter fruendii (not koseri)
* Aeromonas species
* Proteus species
* Providencia species
* Morganella morganii

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15
Q

What % of children with invasive pneumococcal disease have an underlying immune deficiency syndrome?

A

1.3% overall.

Meningitis:
3.5% of children >5yrs
10.6% of children <15yrs

Pneumonia: 8%

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16
Q

Management of gonococcal ophthalmia

A

Ceftriaxone
and further investigate with BC and/or LP

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17
Q

Treatment of latent TB

A

3mo of Rifamp + isoniazid OR
3mo of rifapentin + isoniazid OR
4mo rifampicin only OR
6mo of isoniazid only
(RCH)

18
Q

Treatment of TB disease

A

2mo of Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinimide, Ethambutol +
4 months of rifampicin and isoniazid (if non-severe can do 2mo)

19
Q

Who gets window prophylaxis in TB?

A

Children <5yrs should get latent TB treatment if TST/IGRA negative whilst awaiting repeat TST/IGRA in 3months

20
Q

Side effects of ethambutol

A

E= eyes
Optic neuritis
Red-green colour blindness

21
Q

Side effects of rifampicin

A

R= red urine
Thrombocytopenia
LFT derangement

22
Q

Side effects of isoNiazid

A

Peripheral Neuropathy
transaminitis
acne

Give pyradoxine (vit B6)

23
Q

Definitions for positive TST in TB?

A
  • 5+mm if high risk (immunocompromised, symptomatic + known close contact)
  • 10+mm if mod risk (age <4, high prevalence area)
  • 15+mm if low risk (age >4 w/o risk factors)
24
Q

CSF findings in TB meningitis

A

High protein (>5)
Low glucose (<0.3 CSF: serum ratio)
Neutrophils <100
Lymphocytes 50-1000 but maybe normal

25
Transmission of leptospirosis
Rat urine
26
Which infection commonly causes a relative bradycardia/ pulse-temperature dissociation?
Typhoid fever
27
Most common organism causing cellulitis?
Group A strep (followed by staph aureus)
28
Why is mycobacteria pneumoniae resistant to beta lactams?
It is an atypical bacteria that lacks a cell wall and therefore has intrinsic resistance to beta lactam antibiotics
29
When to start treatment for HIV?
ASAP when diagnosis made, regardless of age Usually 2x NRTIs + 3rd drug of different class
30
Risk factors for MTCT of HIV?
- Highest risk at delivery (60-75%) - High maternal viral load, low CD4 count, placental infection or STI - Prematurity, low birthweight - PROM, NVD or instrumental - Breastfeeding
31
What maternal viral load is considered 'low risk' in HIV?
Maternal viral load <50copies/ml
32
Rifampicin resistance gene in TB?
rpoB gene
33
Which TB medication has poor CNS penetration (and is often not used in TB meningitis)?
Ethambutol
34
How does zika virus present?
"Influenza like syndrome" with rash Can cause guillain barre syndrome Congenital zika virus presents with severe microcephaly, hypertonia, contractures, macular scarring
35
What is cutaneous larva migrans?
Skin disease from animal hookworm (cat or dog faeces) - pruritic serpiginous tracts in skin
36
Management of hookworm (ancylostoma) infection?
Albendazole
37
What is cystic echinococcosis?
AKA Hydatid disease tapeworm found in dogs (definitive host) and sheep, cattle, goats, and pigs (intermediate hosts). Causes slowly enlarging cysts in lung and liver
38
Management of echinococcocis (hydatid disease)
Cysts <5cm may be managed with anti-parasitic treatment (albendazole) alone Larger, or complicated cysts need albendazole + surgical removal eg percutaneous aspiration, injection of chemicals, respiration (PAIR)
39
Anopheles mosquito transmits which infection?
Malaria
40
Classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis?
1. Chorioretinitis 2. Calcifications - scattered throughout the brain 3. Hydrocephalus (CSF) also can get anaemia, thrombocytopenia, jaundice, hepatosplengomegaly, pneumonitis, rash
41