Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pediatrics - clinical > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

(73 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

where are atypical mycobacterial infections most frequently located in children?

A

Superior anterior cervical or submandibular nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what age group is commonly affected by atypical mycobacteria

A

1-5 year olds becasue there is an increased tendency of these children to put objects contaminated by soil or stagnant water into their mouths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is affected by Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

A

HIV pateints with CD4 <50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the presentation of MAC

A

fever, diarrhea, weight loss, anemia

present in soil and water (not person to person)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is MAC diagnosed?

A

AFB (Acid- Fast Bacilli) Smear and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is MAC treated?

A

clarithromycin + ethambutol for at least 12 months (+/- rifampin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the prophylaxis for HIV pts at risk of MAC

A

azithromycin or clarithromycin if their CD4 count is < 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the presentation and treatment of Mycobacterium kansasii

A

causes tuberculosis like disease
tx with Rifampin + ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where is mycobacterium marinum found?

A

fresh and salt water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how is mycobacterium marinum diagnosed?

A

culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how is mycobacterium marinum treated

A

tetracylclines, fluoroquinolones, macrolides, sulfonamides for 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what viral illness is characterized by Fever + lymphadenopathy + pharyngitis (+ atypical lymphocytes)

A

Epstein Barr mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the incubation period for EBV?
How is it transmitted?

A

30-50 days
transmitted via oropharyngeal secretions and saliva “kissing disease”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is EBV mononucleosis diagnosed?

A

positive heterophile antibody screen (Monospot)
atypical lymphocytes with enlarged nuclei
maculopapular rash
LUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how is EBV treated

A

supportive
-acetaminophen or ibuprofen PRN
corticosteroids in severe cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the return to sport recommendations for a patient with EBV mononucleosis

A

-athletes should avoid vigorous sports for at least first 3-4 weeks of illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is another name for erythema infectiosum

A

fifths disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what virus causes erythema infectiosum

A

parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the presentation of erythema infectiousum

A

slapped cheek rash on the face and 2-4 day lacy reticular rash on extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are sickle cell patients at a high risk of developing with erythema infectiosum

A

aplastic crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how is erythema infecttiosum diagnosed

A

based primarily on clinical observation, history and physical
(PARVO b19-specific IgM antibodies and PCR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the treatment of erythema infectiosum

A

symtpomatic
resolved in 2-3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a common childrens infection caused by coxsackievirus type A virus producing sores in mouth, hands, feet and buttocks

A

hand-foot-and-mouth disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are symptoms associated with hand-foot-and-mouth disease

A

fever, sore throat, feeling unwell, irritability, and loss of appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the treatment of hand-foot-and-mouth disease
supportive, anti-inflammatories - virus clears up on its own within 10 days
26
what are the two herpes simples virus and what do they affect
HSV1 - oral lesions (cold sore) HSV2 - genital lesions
27
what are the different Herpes Human Viruses (HHV)
HHV3 - varicella zoster virus (VZV) HHV4 - EBV HHV5 - CMV (cytomegalovirus) HHV6 - Roseolovirus HHV7 - not yet classified HHV 8 - Kaposi's sarcoma - associated herpesvirus (KSHV)
28
what virus causes influenza
orthomyxovirus Three strains: A, B and C
29
what is the treament for influenza
symptomatic (for most) or antivirals (ideally <48hours)
30
31
what virus causes Measles and how is it transmitted?
Paramyxovirus transmitted by respiratory droplets
32
how are the stages of measles characterized
prodrome (1-3 days) - cough, coryza, conjunctivitis and fever Enanthem (48hours prior to exanthem) - Koplik spots Exanthem (2-4 days after fever) - rash from face spreading cephalocaudally.
33
how is measles dx
clinical dx of measles requires hx of fever of atleast 3 days wtih at least one of the three C's (cough, coryza, conjunctivation) Koplik spots IgM antibodies or isolation of measles virus RNA from respiratory sample
34
how is measles treated?
supportive and MMR vaccine
35
when is MMR vaccine given
12-15 months and then again at 4-6 years old
36
what supplement helps to limit morbidity and mortality in pts with measles
vitamin A
37
is there an isolation period for measles
isolated for 1 week after onset of rash
38
what virus causes Mumps
paramyxovirus family
39
what is hallmark sign for mumps
parotitis (painful parotid gland swelling) can see orchitis or aspectic meningitis
40
what is the treatment for Mumps?
supportive scrotal support if painful MMR vaccine
41
what is another name for whooping cough
pertussis
42
what type of bacteria causes pertussis
gram-negative bacteria bordetella pertussis
43
How is pertussis diagnosed
nasophayngeal swab and culture
44
what is the treatment of pertussis
Macrolide (erythromycin/azithromycin) supportive care with steroids / beta2agonists
45
when is the DTap given
5 doses: 2, 4, 6,15-18 months and 4-6 years
46
who else should recieve a Tdap vaccination and when
pregnant/expecting mothers during each pregnancy , usually 27-36 weeks
47
what is the most common reason for itching in anal area making sleep difficult
pinworms
48
how are pinworms diagnosed?
"scotch tape test" in the early morning (eggs visable under microscopy)
49
what is the treatment of pinworms
albendazole or mebendazole
50
what is the only childhood viral exanthem that starts on the trunk and spreads to the face/legs
Roseola
51
what are other names for Roseola
exanthema subitum roseola infantum rose rash of infants sixths disease baby measles
52
what virus causes roseola
HHV 6 and 7
53
what age range is often affected by roseola
6 months - 2 years of age
54
what is the presentation of roseola
sudden high fever (102-104) just as child appears to be recovering, red rash appears on trunk
55
how is roseola diagnosed
clinically
56
what is the treatment of roseola
supportive - typically benign - self-limited disease
57
what is know as the "3-day rash"
Rubella
58
what is the presentation of Rubella
"3 day rash" pink light-red spotted maculopapular rash first appears on face and spreads caudally to trunk and extremities
59
does Rubella affect pregnancy?
teratogenic in 1st trimester - TORCH infection and can cause serios complications
60
how is Rubella diagnosed?
lab dx warranted when congenital rubella syndrome is suspected serologic assay and primarily enzyme immunoassays rubella virus-specific IgM antibodies
61
what is the treatment of Rubella
supportive care and prevention with MMR
62
what virus is classically identified as 'dewdrops on a rose petal'
varicella (chickenpox)
63
where does Varicella lay dorment
dorsal root ganglion
64
what is the reactivation of Varicella
herpes zoster (shingle) dermatomal pattern
65
what is Hutchinson's sign
lesion on the nose - an early indicator of opthalmic (eye) shingles
66
what is Zoster ophthalmicus
shingles involving CN5, dendritic lesion on slit lamp exam if keratoconjunctivitis is present
67
what is zoster oticus
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome facial nerve (CN7) otalgia, lesions on ear, auditory canal and TM, facial palsy, auditory sympotms
68
how is herpes zoster treated
acyclovir, valacyclovir and famciclovir - given within 72 hours to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia
69
what is postherpetic neuralgia
pain > 3months, paresthesias or decreased sensation.
70
what is the treatment of postherpetic neuralgia
gabapentin or TCA, topical lidocaine gel and capsaicin
71
when is Varicella Vaccine given
first dose at age 12-15 months and second dose at 4-6 yo
72
if a patient 13+yo who has never had chickenpox or recieved vaccine - what is their vaccine schedule
two doses at least 28 days apart
73
when is REcombinant zoster vaccine recommended
to prevent shingles in adults 50+ 2 dose series: 2-6 months apart

Pediatrics - clinical (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions