ID Flashcards

1
Q

what is a gram negative diplococcus

A

nisseria ghnorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what nisseria has a capsule

A

meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

incubation of gonorrhea

A

2-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

most common cause of urethritis in men under age 35

A

gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

manifestations of disseminated gonococcal

A

septic arthritis, polyarthralgias, rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

use of wiff test

A

BV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tx of BV

A

flagyl l7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

clue cell relates to

A

BV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PID can also cause

A

peritonitis and perihelpatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what s fitz hugh curtis syndrome caused by

A

gonorrhea PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is fitz hugh curtis syndrome symptoms

A

RUQ pain without signs of hepatitis or cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

outpatient treatment of PID

A

Ceftriaxone and doxy for 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

if you think it is PID with an abcess what med will you add on

A

flagly or clinda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is LGV due to

A

chlamydia tach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

chancroid causes

A

heamophilus ducreyi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

who is commonly affected by lgv

A

homosexual men and people returning from abroad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

is LGV painful or painless ulceration

A

painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

you have buboes- why and what are they

A

painful lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

you have painless ulcers and painful lymphadenopathy

A

LGV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

you have painless ulcers and painless lyphadenopathy

A

Syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

tx of LGV

A

doxycyline for 21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

causitive organism for syphilis

A

t pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

if you have a painless ulcer that heals and leaves a scar what it is …how about if it doesnt

A

syphillis if it leaves a scar and LGV if it does not leave a scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

rash of syphillys

A

involvles palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are gumma

A

granulomatous lesions of skin, liver, bone and testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

screening test for syphilis

A

RPR and VDRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

false positive with RPR ir VDRL

A

lyme, pregnancy, or TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Confirmatory test for syphilis

A

FTA-ABS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

heterosexula with prostitute now painful ulcer

A

chancroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

you see donovan bodies treat me

A

doxy or bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

incubation of syphilis

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

rash with necrotic center

A

gonococcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what have preformed toxins

A

staph aureus, B. ereus, closotridium perfinges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is charateristic of preformed toxins

A

quick onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is cruise ship diarrhea

A

norwalk virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the chrons or appendicitis mimicing organism

A

yersinia enterocolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the diarrhea caused by abx

A

c. diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

immunocompromised Diarrhea

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

diarrhea coaused by mayonnaise

A

staph or salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

fried rice diarrhea

A

B. Cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

travelers diarrhea

A

e. coli= # 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

people with hemochromatosis are at risk for what type of diarrhea

A

vibrio, yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

seafood diarrhea

A

vibrio salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

undercooked hamburger diarrhea

A

e. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

eggs and diarrhea

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

unpasturised dairy

A

listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

deli meat diarrhea

A

listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

daycare

A

rotovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

recent hospitalization

A

c. diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

describe small bowel diarrhea

A

watery frequent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

describe large bowel diarrhea

A

mucoid frequent diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

should you use abx for e coli infection

A

nope

53
Q

is cmv small bowel or large

A

large

54
Q

is cryptosporidum small or large bowel

A

small

55
Q

a person that has recovered and has immunity to hepatitis b will show

A

Anti- HBs

56
Q

antigens =

A

bad

57
Q

what is used in the vaccine

A

HBsAg

58
Q

what would your body show if you were immunized with hep b

A

Anti-HBs

59
Q

this indicates a recent or acute infection

A

IgM anti-HBc

60
Q

can you see HBcAg in serum

A

nope- it is stuck in the hepatocytes

61
Q

HBeAg is for

A

the envelope antigen indicated acute and chronic infection—- means replication

62
Q

if you have a positive anti-HBc and positive anti-HBs

A

natural infection

63
Q

botulism is what type of bacteria

A

gram positive rod

64
Q

typhoid is caused by

A

salmonella

65
Q

most common cause of dysentry worldwide

A

shigella

66
Q

txfor shigella

A

cipro

67
Q

mc sympto in entomoeba histolytica

A

asymptomatic

68
Q

hookworm clinical manifestation

A

anemia

69
Q

tx for giardia

A

metrondazole

70
Q

encapsulated organisms

A

strep pneumo, h flu nisseria meningiditis

71
Q

I was camping

A

giardia

72
Q

I have CMV diarrhea treat me

A

gancyclovir for 3 weeks

73
Q

grey stool

A

vibrio chollera

74
Q

you dont use flagyl n chilrend you use

A

fruazoidone

75
Q

MCOrganisms of strep

A

strep pneumo, h flu, moxarella cat

76
Q

atypical pna

A

chlamydia, leigonella, mycoplasma

77
Q

treatmet of CAP

A

azithomycin

78
Q

downside of azithromycin

A

25% reistance

79
Q

Ceftin

A

1st generation

80
Q

Cefuroximine

A

2nd

81
Q

Ceftiazidine is used for

A

psudomonas

82
Q

drugs with good pneumococcus coverage

A

ceftriaxone, respiratory flouraquinalones

83
Q

DOC for MRSA in the lung

A

Linizolid

84
Q

organism tht can cause atypical and typical symptoms

A

leigonella

85
Q

what do you need to treat leigonella

A

doxy or azith

86
Q

Empyema tap this is seen

A

pH

87
Q

vancomycin can cause

A

red man syndrome

88
Q

what is red man syndrome

A

histamine release

89
Q

what can linizolid interact with

A

SSRI

90
Q

why can you not use daptomycin for pna

A

inactivated by lung surfactant

91
Q

tx for hcap

A

cover MRSA and gram negative

92
Q

prevent hcap

A

elevate HOB to 30 degrees

93
Q

how do you diagnose VAP

A

decreased sats, and increased secretions

94
Q

mostt important cause of hemorrhagic colitis

A

e coli 057.h7

95
Q

test used fr c diff

A

EIA- sensitivity 40%

96
Q

what is the screening test for c diff

A

glutaminase dehydrogenase

97
Q

gage the severity of c diff

A

kideny function and leukocytosis

98
Q

how do you treat a pt with c diff and illiues

A

use metronidazole

99
Q

Treat a very sick pt with c diff

A

metronidazole IV and vanco PO

100
Q

why does c diff reoccur

A

you only kill the floors

101
Q

factors sugesting encephalitis rather than meningitis

A

focal neurologic

102
Q

mcc of meningitis

A

pneumococcal, nisseria meningitis, listeria

103
Q

tx of pneucoccoccal meningitis

A

ceftriaxone and vancomycin and ampicillin (or bactrim) and dexamethasone

104
Q

HSV 1 causes

A

encephalitis

105
Q

HSV 2 causes

A

meningitis

106
Q

most common cause of aspetic meningitis

A

enterovirisus

107
Q

hsv 1 area of encephlitis

A

temporal

108
Q

poliomyleitis like syndrome, wildlife and american

A

west nile virus

109
Q

diagnosis of west nile virus

A

IgM Elisa

110
Q

risk factors for candida line infection

A

TPN, steroids, antibioitcs, abdominal surgeries

111
Q

treat candida

A

capsofungin or another fungin

112
Q

mono like syndrome

A

cmv, acute hiv and toxo

113
Q

momoneuclear refers to what cells

A

leukocytes and monocytes

114
Q

toxo

A

focal neurological deficits and cd4 less than 50

115
Q

histoplasmosis is found

A

in bats and birds in the ohio river vally

116
Q

when may you see a cryptococcal meningitis with a cd4 count abobe 150

A

when they have just started anti-retrovirals

117
Q

tx for positive ppd and neg cxr

A

inh and riphampin

118
Q

tx for hiv with neg ppd and neg cxr with exposure

A

inh and pyridoxine

119
Q

tx for vanco resistant endocarditis

A

daptomycin

120
Q

side effects of daptomycin

A

rhabdo

121
Q

fasciitis pain compared to cellulitis

A

pain ahead of the cellulitic line

122
Q

difference between acyclovir and valacyclovir

A

val is more readily absorbed

123
Q

side effects of tenofovir

A

kidney (fanconi light syndrome)

124
Q

Side efects of abacavir

A

hypersensitiity rxn (mono like reaction)

125
Q

side effects of nnrti

A

rash and liver

126
Q

side effect of efavirenz

A

psychiatric illness and teratogenic (neural tube defects)

127
Q

Protease inhibitors

A

dyslipidemias and drug to drug interactions

128
Q

what do all protease inhibitors need in combo

A

RTV (ritonovir) COBI

129
Q

HIV drug with long half life

A

Efavirenz