ID Flashcards
1
Q
Brodie’s abscess presentation and X-ray findings
A
Chronic osteomyelitis, insidious onset. Localised abscess often near the site of the metaphysis
Xray: Lytic lesion with sclerotic margins
2
Q
“Honeycomb” appearance on limb xray
A
Osteomyelitis - thickened bone with irregular and patchy sclerosis
3
Q
When are topical aminoglycosides c/i in otitis externa
A
If the TM is perforated
Note acetic acid can be used as 1st line treatment if there is no hearing impairment or discharge
4
Q
Side effect of chloramphenicol ear drops
A
Contact dermatitis (10% of people)
5
Q
Mechanisms of action of the 3 drugs in typical PEP for HIV?
A
2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors plus either non nucleoside RT inhibitor, protease inhibitor or integrase inhibitor
6
Q
1st line antibiotics for pyelonephritis in patient > 3months
A
Oral: cefalexin or co-amoxiclav
If IV required co-amoxiclav
7
Q
NICE guidelines on UTI criteria for diagnosis of pyelonephritis?
A
Bacteriuria and fever 38C or higher
or fever less than 38 with loin pain/tenderness and bacteriuria
8
Q
Onset of staph aureus food poisoning usually starts about 24hrs after ingestion of contaminated food T/F
A
F - onset is usually from 30 minutes to 8 hours post ingestion.
9
Q
Diarrhoea with s aureus gastroenteritis is usually profuse and watery T/F
A
T - symptoms start with emesis and then diarrhoea a few hrs later, usually only symptomatic for one day
10
Q
Vibrio vulnificus is classically associated with what food?
A
Oysters
Note: other seafood too. Symptoms vomiting, diarrhoea and fever about 24-48 hrs after ingestion
11
Q
How long after ingestion of contaminated food does presentation with clostridium perfringens (welchii) or botulinum typically occur?
A
6-12 hours
12
Q
What finding on a CBC is highly indicative of a helminth infection?
A
Eosinophilia
13
Q
Antibiotics are routinely prescribed as part of the management of dental abscess T/F
A
F - only prescribed if the patient is systemically unwell
Mgmt is analgesia and dental referral
14
Q
What is a kerion?
A
A large swelling that is a complication of tinea capitis, it is a hypersensitivity reaction
15
Q
What is the treatment of a kerion?
A
Systemic antifungal +/- a short course of steroids
16
Q
Herpes is a DS DNA virus T/F
A
True
17
Q
Haemophilus ducreyi causes what STI?
A
Chancroid
Note: painful necrotising genital ulcer; it is a gram neg cocci
18
Q
E coli is able to multiple in typical fridge temperatures of about 4degrees T/F
A
False - E coli can survive but not multiply.
Listeria monocytogenes can grow/multiple at temperatures of 0-4degrees C
19
Q
Prophylactic antibiotic(s) of choice for meningitis exposure What should be used for a pregnant patient
A
Ciprofloxacin or Rifampicin
Pregnancy: ceftriaxone
20
Q
Hepatosplenomegaly is common in which Reye’s syndrome, malaria, dengue or leptospirosis?
A
Malaria
Hepatomegaly is common in other diseases but splenomegaly is rare in the other disease
21
Q
What is the incubation period of Dengue?
A
5-10 days
Note: incubation period for leptospirosis is 7-12 days
22
Q
Patient’s with malaria may be hyper or hypoglycaemic at presentation T/F
A
F - hyper is usually earlier in disease and hypoglycaemia is in more severe disease or cerebral malaria
Other common findings in malaria - symptomatic haemolytic anaemia (systolic murmur) with hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice
23
Q
Neisseria meningitidis morphology
A
Gram -ve coccus
24
Q
Is psuedomonas aeruginosa gram + or -
A
Gram -ve
25
Is haemophilus influenzae gram + or -
Gram -ve
26
Morphology of e coli and klebsiella
Gram -ve bacillus
27
Morphology of listeria
Gram + bacillus
28
Morphology of strep
Gram + coccus in chains
29
What is the most common invasive fungal infection in children admitted to the ICU?
Invasive candida
Note: often associated with indwelling venous caterer
30
What is the tx of CNS aspergillosis?
IV voriconazole
31
What is the treatment of invasive mucormycosis?
Posaconazole
32
When a patient is on voriconazole the dose of cyclosporin needs to be increased T/F
F - azole antifungals limit the metabolism of cyclosporin and hence increase it's serum levels and so dose of cyclosporin needs to be reduced
33
C/I to lumbar puncture in suspected meningitis?
```
An evolving and rapidly progressive rash
Coag abnormalities
Shock
Resp insufficiency
Local superficial infection at LP site
Signs of increased ICP (reduced or fluctuating level of consciousness, relative bradycardia, HTN, focal neuro signs or abnormal posturing)
```
34
Incubation period for N meningitidis?
2-7 days
Note: droplet spread, gram -ve diplococci
35
Morph of staph
Gram + cocci in clusters
36
Most common cause in community acquired pneumonia in those < 5 yrs?
Strep pneumo
Note: > 5 mycoplasma pneumonia
37
Children with parvovirus infection are no longer contagious once the rash has appeared T/F
T
Note: incubation period is 4-20 days
38
Classic exam findings in congenital TB?
Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and abdo distension
39
Clinical manifestations of congenital TB?
Poor feeding, irritability, failure to thrive and fever
| Cough +/- resp distress
40
Incubation period of scarlet fever? How long is a person infectious?
Incubation 1-7 days
| Infectious for 3 weeks
41
What is Lemiere's disease?
Retropharygneal abscess followed by thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and another abscess (commonly in the lungs)
42
Use of azithromycin is C/I in those with a renal tx T/F
F - it is not CI but if the pt is on tacrolimus these two drugs interact and hence will need careful monitoring of tacro levels
43
What age patient and where does tuberculosus arthritis often effect?
2- 5 yrs old
Hip
Note: early signs on ray - decrease in density of bone (rarefication), followed by fuzziness and narrowing of joint space
44
How many serotypes does the botulinum toxin have?
7
45
What antibiotic needs to be avoided in those on theophylline?
Ciprofloxacin
Note: it is an enzyme inhibitor and increases serum levels of theophylline
46
Tx of non TB mycobacterium lymphadenopathy?
Surgical excision
Can use azithromycin if excision is CI
47
Lab test for Wilson's disease?
Serum ceruloplasmin - it is low
48
What is Menke's disease?
Disease of Cu absorption leading to Cu deficiency
| Features - kinky hair, FFT, neuro symptoms such as hypotonia
49
Features of leprospirosis?
Asymptomatic or flu like illness
| Can progression to jaundice and renal impairment; conjunctival suffusion is characteristic but not always present
50
In the setting of Hep B was is AntiHBs indicative of?
Vaccination (hep B surface antibody)
51
Lab finding indicative of a person with Hep B being highly infectious?
Hep B envelop antigen
52
In the setting of Hep B what is IgM antiHBc indicative
Acute infection
53
HBsAg and Anti HBc what type of hep B infection?
Unable to tell, could be acute or chronic
54
Tx of neonatal chlam conjunctivitis
oral erythromycin
55
Tx of neonatal gon conjunctivitis
IV ceftriaxone or cefotaxime
| Also saline irrigation
56
Which would be expected to present earlier, neontal conjunctivitis due to chlam or gon?
Gon - incubation is 2-5 days
Note: gon - serosanguious discharge which later becomes pustular.
Chlam incubation 5-14 days, inflammation of eyelids and purulent discharge
57
What percentage of infants with RSV require hospitalisation? When is the peak incidence?
1-3%
2-7 months
58
Leishman-Donovan bodies may be see in what disease?
Leishmaniasis
Can also be diagnosised using Giemsa stain
59
Main clue for diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis
Dark skin, blackening of the skin (common name in India is black fever)
60
Tx of a <28 day old infant with chickenpox
IV acyclovir - cannot use PO in neonates as pharmacokinetics is unpredictable
Note: for prophylaxis use varicella zooster immunoglobulin
61
Hepatitis A incubation period is 1-7 days T/F
F
Incubation period is 14-28 days
62
Hepatitis A incubation period is 14-28 days T/F
T
63
A patient is vaccinated against varicella and then develops a rash. What is the likely aetiology?
A vesicular rash can occur due to vaccination - timing 15-42 days post vaccination
If the rash occurs less than 14 days or > 42 days it is likely due to wild type varicella
NB: samples should be taken from the lesions for diagnosis, to know if it is vaccine or wild type
64
How does salmonella typhi usually present?
Mild/mod diarrhoea + high fevers
Note: Yersinia enterocolitica can also present this was but tends to have more abdo pain
65
Prophylactic AEDs are indicated in the tx of HSV encephalitis T/F
F - there is insufficient evidence to rec this
66
What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia in those < 2 yrs?
Viral
67
Regarding the treatment of scabies when should all clothes and linens be washed?
At the end of treatment
Note: the permethrin cream also needs to be reapplied each time hands are washed as the cream needs to be on the skin for 8 - 10 hours
68
In children what is chronic bilateral parotid infection caused by?
It is pathognomonic of HIV
Presents with dry mouth, dry eyes and swelling of salivary glands and lymphadenopathy - similar to Sjogren's but no autoantibodies
69
What type of virus is hepatitis B?
DNA virus
70
When are antibiotics required for the treatment of an AOM?
Symptoms for four days of more
Systemic upset (not only fever)
<2 yrs with bilateral infection
TM perforation or drainage in the ear canal
71
Acute hydrocephalus is a common feature of what type of meningitis?
TB meningitis
Note: clues to this un vaccinated child, lymphocyte predominance in CSF. Listeria would also cause a lymphocyte predominance but would not cause acute hydrocephalus
72
Features of chronic suppurative otitis media?
Recurrent discharge (> 2 weeks) which escapes through a perforated TM
Absence of an acute infection (no fever or pain)
Hx of previous AOM supports diagnosis
73
Mgmt of chronic suppurative otitis media?
ENT referral
Do not swab or treat w/antibiotics
Complications: mastoiditis, facial nerve palsy and intracranial infection. Hearing loss from perforation is usually temporary
74
In rheumatic fever who long are prophylactic antibiotics needed in those with carditis?
10 yrs or until the pt turns 21 (whichever is longer)
Note: need tx antibiotics for 10 days first
75
High fevers for 3 days without an obvious source and when the fever subsides a red maculo-papular rash develops on centrally. Rash resolves within 48-72 hours. What virus?
HHV 6 (aka roseola)
Also children will commonly have a febrile seizure
Note: Contrast this to rubella when the rash and fever are present at the same time
76
What life cycle stage is common is P vivax and ovale but not P falciparum?
What is the clinical significance of this?
Hypnozoites - a dormant liver stage
They can cause late relapses after treatment, hence to eradicate them (and precent relapse) a course of primaquine must be given following a course of chloroquine for vivax/ovale
77
What is the treatment of schistosomiasis?
Praziquantel
Note: transmitted by freshwater snails
78
Who long should a child with diarrhoea or emesis stay out of school until?
48 hours after last emesis or diraahoea
79
Management of suspected Lyme disease?
1: Empiric treatment > 12 yr doxycycline, < 12 yrs amoxicillin
2: Acute and convalescent titres
Note: typical course is 21 days; if facial palsy 2 months; if arthritis 4 months
80
Periventicular calcification are seen in what congenital infection?
CMV
Note: toxoplasma gondii will also have calcifications but they are diffuse
81
Erythema chronic migrans is assoc with what infectious disease?
Lyme disease
82
Patients with B19 are infectious for 5-7 days after the rash appears T/F
F - no longer infectious once rash appears
83
An infant is born to a mother with active TB but has no signs of TB themselves. What is the mgmt?
Isoniazid for 3 months (or until develops signs of TB) then do a Mantoux if < 5mm can d.c med and give BCG
84
What type of cells seen on LP in bacterial meningitis?
Lots of polymorphs
Few lymphocytes
Note: also up to 5g/L protein and glucose less than 2/3 of blood level
85
CSF findings in TB meningitis?
High protein
Low glucose
Lymphocytosis
Also CSF may have a cobweb appearance on standing
Note: also have lymphocytes in viral meningitis but low protein
86
In a child and neonate how many cell is normal in CSF
Child: 5 lymphocytes
Neonate: up to 15 cells of which 1-2 can be PMNs
Note: any PMNs in child is abnormal
87
Bilateral parotitis is a red flag for what in children?
HIV infection
88
Effective therapy can reduce maternal foetal transmission of HIV from 25% to 5% T/F
F - from 25% to 1%
89
For how many days prior to onset of vesicular rash is a person with chicken pox infectious? How long is the incubation period?
2 days prior
Incubation period is 21 days
90
What age group does roseola usually affect?
6 months to 2 yrs
Note: typical presentation, several days of fever and then as the fever breaks a rash
91
What is the average total length of illness with acute otitis?
4 days
92
What is the average total length of illness with acute pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
1 week
93
What is the average total length of illness with the common cold?
1.5 weeks
94
What is the average total length of illness with acute rhinosinusitis?
2.5 weeks
95
What is the average total length of illness with acute cough?
3 weeks
96
CSF investigation of choice in a partially treated meningitis?
CSF latex agglutination - with identify polysaccharide cell walls from killed bacteria
97
Torula stain is for what pathogen?
Cryptococcus
98
HIV and Hep B can be transmitted through breast milk T/F
F - only HIV
Other diseases that can be transmitted - GBS, gc, CMV
99
A well appearing febrile infant of 2 months presents with urine dip concerning for a UTI what is the next step in mgmt?
Bloods - FBC, CRP, and blood culture; IV abx while awaiting results
Note: If < 1 month or ill appearing needs LP too
100
There is an increased risk of nec fasciitis when a patient with chickenpox infection is given what medication?
NSAIDs
Consider nec fac if they have rapidly progressing pain and erythema (likely GAS)
101
CBC findings in salmonella typhi?
Thrombocytopenia and neutropenia
102
Presentation of salmonella typhi in an infant?
Prolonged fever without significant exam findings
Relative bradycardia
Thrombocytopenia and neutropenia
103
What month is the peak of rotavirus?
March
104
What is the presentation of tick born viral encephalitis?
Typically a biphasic course
Features: headache, ataxia and meningism are commonest. Can also have myelitis or meningoradiculoneuritis (can cause flaccid paralysis of a single limb)
Note: arboviruses are among the commonest causes of meningoencephalitis worldwide ; endemic to eastern europe
105
Prior to starting a pt on primaquine what lab test need to be obtained?
G6PD
If pt is G6PD def primaquine will cause severe haemolytic anaemia
106
What is the incubation period of glandular fever / EBV?
1-2 months
107
What is the first and 2nd line oral antibiotics for impetigo?
1st : flucloxacillin
| 2nd: clarithromycin
108
What is the classic triad for congenital toxo?
Hydrocephalus (NB for differentiating from other TORCH infections)
Retinochoroiditis
Intracerebral calcification (diffuse)
Note: this is uncommon presentation, 90% are asymptomatic in neonatal period.
109
What is the most common mode of Hep C transmission worldwide?
Vertical
Note: vertical transmission rate is about 9%
110
What is the most likely infectious pathogen in mastitis?
S aureus
111
Leishmania infantum and donovani are endemic to much of the Mediterranean basin T/F
F - infantum is endemic to Mediterranean
Donovan is seen in east Africa and Asia
112
What is the initial treatment for uncomplicated H pylori eradication?
What is the exception?
One week of amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole
Exception: if haematemesis still do abx for 1 week but PPI is for 4 weeks
Note: can sub clarithromycin for metronidazole
113
What % of children with Kawaskai disease develop coronary artery aneurysm?
25% untreated
| 5% treated
114
Neuro manifestation occur in less than 10% of patients with Lyme disease T/F
F - neuro manifestations in approx 15%
115
Borrelia burgdorferi gram + or neg?
Neither - stains weakly
116
When should a mother be treated for syphilis to reduce the risk of vertical transmission?
At least one mother prior to delivery
117
What titre in syphilis correlate with disease activity and hence increased risk of transmission?
High VDRL titres
Note: this is only if the case has already been confirmed by TPPA screening tests, as there is a high rate of false positive with VDRL
Positive IgM titres also indicates a recent infection
118
What are the 3 Kocher criteria and to what disease are they related?
Septic arthritis
NWB; WBC > 12 and ESR > 40
If all 3 present a 93% chance of septic arthritis
119
What are the typical bacteria that cause CRMO?
None! Bacterial cultures are usually negative and inflammatory markers normal
They do however have fever
120
What bones does CRMO typically affect
Long bones
121
What are the physical exam findings in brucellosis?
Papular rash
Hepatosplenomegaly
Marked lymphadenopathy
Note: incubation is 1-5 weeks; from unpasteurised dairy or working with goats, sheep, pigs or cattle
Has an acute and chronic phase. Chronic phase included relapsing fevers, sweats, arthralgia, constipation, emotional disturbance.
122
What class of antibiotics (and examples) should be used to treat whooping cough?
Macrolides - azithromycin, clarithromycin and erythromycin
123
Bordetella pertussis gram + or -ve?
Negative
124
What is the treatment of choice for malaria falciparum?
Malarone (proguanil and atovaquone)
NB WHO recommends that all malaria tx should be combo due to high rates of resistance. Only exception is quinine mono therapy can be given initially to patients presenting with severe malaria as it can be given IV
125
What malaria medication can be given IV? when would this be needed?
Quinine - severe malaria; this is the only time mono therapy should be used
126
What is the medication of choice for malaria prophylaxis?
If > 11kg Malarone (proguanil and atovaquone) - not actually licensed for use in children but rec by CDC and Public Health England for those over 11kg travelling to endemic areas.
If > 5 but less than 11kg mefloquine
127
Foul smelling perspiration is a classic sign of what infection?
Brucellosis
128
How to interpret a mantoux in a patient who has had BCG and not?
Positive if > 5mm if no hx BCG
| Positive if > 10mm if hx BCG
129
In a patient who is asymptomatic for TB but has a strongly positive mantoux what is the likely diagnosis latent or recovered from previous TB infection?
Latent TB
Note: in pt with a hx of TB but recovered would expect a negative or very weakly positive mantoux
130
A patient with measles is infectious for how long?
5 days after rash onset, hence should be excluded from school for that long.
131
When is a patient with parvovirus most infectious?
Most infectious prior to onset of rash
132
Cough, coryza and conjunctivitis followed by a confluent rash that typically begins behind the ears?
Measles
133
Treatment of choice in MRSA bacteraemia?
Need to use combo antibiotics and this combo should NOT include any beta lactams due to resistance possibility
Hence can use vancomycin + rifampicin or another duo (other options linezolid, tigecycline)
134
3 classic features of pertussis infection
What is treatment?
Paroxysms of coughing
Subconjunctival haemorrhages from repeated coughing
Marked lymphocytosis
Treatment: supportive but azithromycin is given to limit infectivity of to other children
135
Anorexia, abdo pain, megaloblastic anaemia and eosinophilia what infection?
Tapeworm (the anaemia is due to vitB12 def)
136
What is the first line treatment of tapeworm infection
Praziquantel
137
Meningococcal PCR is now a standard investigation in cases of suspected meningococcal septicaemia T/F
T - it gives a definitive diagnosis so should be prioritised
138
What is the clinical significant of a rapidly spreading purpuric rash in a pt with suspected meningococcal infection?
1. More likely to be septicaemia than meningitis (although the 2 can coexist)
2. It is a C/I to LP due to concern for severe coag defects
139
What is the standard treatment of Cryptosporidum related gastro?
Supportive care with oral rehydration
140
When is treatment indicated in Cyrptosporidum related gastro?
Immunocompromised
Unusually severe features
Persistent (> 2 weeks)
Note: not great data for treatment but can try antiprotazoal agents such as albendazole, nitazoxanide or paromomycin
141
What broad class of medication is mebendazole
Anthelminthic
142
A feature about the presentation of eczema herpeticum that can help distinguish it from an eczema flare or superimposed bacterial infection?
Presentation of lesions at different stages - condition starts with a group of fluid filled lesions with further new lesions forming over 7 -10 days
143
Indications for IV acyclovir in eczema herpeticum?
Severe infection
Rapid spread
Eye involvement
Note: otherwise can be treated outpatient with oral
144
An eye infection with which pathogen would respond best to chloramphenicol eye drops? Chlamydia trachomatis, p aeruginosa, s aureus
S aureus would respond best
Chlamydia can be treated with chloramphenicol but responds better to a macrolide such as azithromycin
P aeruginosa is resistant
145
In a patient with CF what is the commonest organism causing infection in the first year of life?
Staph aureus
Note: flucloxacillin prophylaxis can be used
146
What is the typical presentation of dengue
Fever arthralgia and rash
Note: retro orbital pain and photophobia may also be prominent
147
Treatment of group A strep pharyngitis?
Penicillin V for 10 days
Note: greater treatment failure has been shown with a 7 day course.
148
Phases of yellow fever?
Acute febrile flu like phase, recovery phase and then ill again
149
What is the main feature on presentation to differentiate bacterial tracheitis from croup?
Both will have a preceding coryzal illness, stridor, fever and barking cough but the patient with bacterial tracheitis will be more more ill appearing.
150
Peripheral neuropathy is a side effect of what medication used to treat TB?
Isoniazid
151
Which blood group antigen helps to protect those of West African descent from P vivid malaria?
Duffy
Note: high rates in that pop and extremely rare in other populations
152
In a pt with bacterial meningitis when are steroids indicated?
1. Must be > 3 months old PLUS
2. i CSF frankly purulent or
ii CSF WBC > 1000 or
iii CSF WBC elevated with protein conc 1 g
iv or > or bacteria on gram stain
NB different in TB meningitis mgmt
153
Steroids may be indicated in the mgmt of meningococcal septicaemia T/F
F - NEVER
Sometimes indicated in bacterial meningitis
154
When should vancomycin be added in the treatment empiric tx of bacterial meningitis?
If hx of recent foreign travel or prolonged use of antibiotics
155
Empirical tx of bacterial meningitis
1. < 3 months CTX/cefotaxime PLUS ampicillin (listeria coverage)
2. > 3 months CTX
+/- vanc if hx of prolonged abx use or foreign travel
+/- steroids (> 3months only)
156
Which TB medication can cause elevation of AST and ALT?
Isoniazid
Note: the drug undergoes acetylation in the liver
157
Infant with chlam trachomatis eye infection what treatment?
Oral macrolide such as erythromycin
No role for any topical treatment
158
What is the approx carriage rates of c diff in neonates? More common in breast or formula feed?
50% in neonates
More common in formula feed
159
Morphology of C diff
Anaerobic gram + rod
160
Classic side effect of quinine?
Tinnitus
161
Exposure prophylaxis for VZV in an asymptomatic immunosuppressed child?
Treatment if child develops symptoms?
Asymptomatic: IM varicella zoster Ig
Symptomatic: IV normal immunoglobulin
Note: if it is an onc patient on chemo should only hold the chemo if child becomes systemically unwell/haemodynamically unstable.
162
Post exposure measles prophylaxis for immunosuppressed pt?
IM normal immunoglobulin
The idea that normal immunoglobulin has contains antibodies against a range of infections including measles
163
What is the most common cause of viral encephalitis in infants?
Enteroviruses
164
The mortality rate of untreated HSV encephalitis is 50% T/F
F - 75%
165
The mortality rate of untreated HSV encephalitis is 75% T/F
T
166
In a mother with HIV IV zidovudine during labour has been shown to decrease the risk of HIV transmission to the neonate T/F
F - no evidence to support this.
Oral zidovudine from 28 weeks gestation onwards and for the infant until 6 weeks old are both shown to reduce risk
167
Which eye infections caries an increased risk of corneal perforation chlam or gonorrhoea?
Gonorrhoea
168
Trichomonias and BV both cause a fishy bacterial odor, what clinical way to differenciate?
BV: no vaginal pain or itching, not associated with sexual activity
Trich: associated with pain and itching, sexually transmitted
169
The parotid swelling in mumps is bilateral > 90% of time T/F
F - up to 25% of the time the swelling is unilateral
170
All children with HIV infection require PCP prophylaxis regardless of CD4 count T/F
T
Note: in a new diagnosis HIV start prophylaxis immediately and plan to start anti retrovirals when the results of drug susceptibility and Hep B status are available
171
How long is the course of treatment for TB meningitis?
1 year
Note: steroids are used at the start of the treatment course.
172
Empiric abx for suspected meningitis for 3 month to 18 yr old patient?
IV CTX or cefotaxime
173
H pylori is a common cause of gastritis T/F
F - not a common cause
174
H pylori infection is often asymptomatic T/F
T
Note: it is a gram neg bacillus
175
H pylori can be associated with nosocomial transmission T/F
T - endoscopes not correctly clean are one mode of nosocomial transmission
176
Listeria meningitis can be associated with a minimal rise in CRP T/F
T
177
Necator Americans is also known as?
Hookworm
Note: Ancylostoma duodenale is another type of hookworm
Common cause of chronic GI bloodless worldwide
178
Enterobius vermicularis is AKA?
Pinworm
Anal itch, esp at night is the most common symptom. Can also cause vulvovaginitis and abdominal pain. Stool is often negative for ova but adults worms are frequently seen at the anus
