ID Flashcards

(91 cards)

1
Q

What are the five most common causes of fever in a returning traveler?

A

Malaria, dengue, typhoid fever, Mono, rickettsia

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2
Q

A blood culture with which organism should never be considered a contaminant?

A

Candida

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3
Q

Patients who have internuclear Or intracytoplasmic inclusions on a urinalysis, increasing creatinine level, and status post transplant on tacrolimus are likely to have what condition?

A

Human polyomavirus (Bk) nephropathy.

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4
Q

Bacillus anthracis TX?

A

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, doxycycline

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5
Q

Gram pos aerobic organism, appears as sporulating rod on microscopy. Mediastinal widening from hemorrhagic lymphadenitis is classic, Dx?

A

Bacillus anthracis

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6
Q

Gram neg coccobacilli w/bipolar staining “safety pin” Dx?

A

Yersinia pestis

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7
Q

Yersinia Tx?

A

Streptomycin or Gentamicin

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8
Q

What two antibiotics are most commonly used for the treatment of diverticulitis?

A

Ciprofloxacin and Metronidazole

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9
Q

Adrenal hemorrhage, hypotension, DIC Dx?

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (meningococcemia)

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10
Q

Black eschar on face of patient with diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Mucor or Rhizopus fungal infection

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11
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats Dx?

A

Pott disease (vertebral TB)

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12
Q

With terminal complement deficiency, to which organism are patients most susceptible?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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13
Q

Which HIV medication requires you to check HLA B-5701 to prevent hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Abacavir

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14
Q

Which HIV medication is known to cause an asymptomatic elevation in MCV?

A

Zidovudine

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15
Q

Painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles

A

Janeway lesions (infective endocarditis, septic emboli/microabscesses)

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16
Q

Painful, raised red lesions on pads of fingers/toes

A

Osler nodes (infective endocarditis, immune complex deposition)

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17
Q

Chancroid TX?

A

Azithromycin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin

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18
Q

Indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Nonpainful: chancre (primary syphilis, Treponema pallidum) Painful with exudate: chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)

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19
Q

Large rash with bulls-eye appearance

A

Erythema chronicum migrans from

Ixodes tick bite (Lyme disease: Borrelia) Tx: doxycycline

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20
Q

What reflexes (increased/decreased) would you expect with someone who is diagnosed with West Nile Virus meningitis?

A

Decreased

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21
Q

What organism is known to cause Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetti

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22
Q

What organism is known as the”great mimicker” of appendicitis?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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23
Q

What is the number of dermatomes over which a patient with Herpes Zoster virus requires both contact and airborne precautions?

A

Two dermatomes

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24
Q

What organism can cause febrile, hemolytic anemia esp in pts who visited Nantucket or Long Island area?

A

Babesia microti

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25
What is the most likely organism that causes post partum endometritis?
Group B Streptococcus(Streptococcus agalactiae)
26
Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers
Roth spots (bacterial endocarditis)
27
Red "currant jelly" sputum in alcoholic or diabetic patients
Klebsiella pneumoniae pneumonia
28
Strawberry tongue"
Scarlet fever, Kawasaki disease (only time to give children aspirin)
29
Splinter hemorrhages in fingernails
Bacterial endocarditis
30
Smooth, moist, painless, wart-like white lesions on genitals
Condylomata lata (2º syphilis)
31
Small, irregular red spots on buccal/lingual mucosa with blue-white centers
Koplik spots (measles [rubeola] virus)
32
Rash on palms and soles. 3 DX.
Coxsackie A, 2º syphilis, Rocky Mountain spotted fever
33
What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in individuals greater than 40 years of age?
Staph aureus
34
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in HIV patients?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
35
What is the MOST common cause of aseptic meningitis?
Enterovirus (more than echovirus)
36
What is the main vector of Lyme Disease in North America?
Ixodes scapularis
37
Empiric treatment for non complicated UTI in female?.
Nitrofurantoin
38
What is the best treatment for penicillin-allergic, pregnant female with UTI?
Nitrofurantoin
39
Rapid fire assoc: Enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies
"Owl eye" appearance of CMV
40
Rapid fire assoc: Branching gram (+) rods with sulfur granules
Actinomyces israelii
41
What enteropathic organism is most often associated with Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Campylobacter jejuni
42
What condition is often associated with pigeon or bat droppings?
Histoplasmosis
43
What condition is known as "spotless Rocky Mountain spotted fever"?
Ehrlichiosis
44
What is a very common organism for UTIs in young, pregnant women?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
45
Fever, chills, headache, myalgia following antibiotic treatment for syphilis
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction (rapid lysis of spirochetes results in endotoxin release)
46
Dog or cat bite resulting in infection, caused by what organism?
Pasteurella multocida (cellulitis at inoculation site)
47
Rapid fire assoc: Intranuclear eosinophilic droplet-like bodies
Cowdry type A bodies (HSV or VZV)
48
Rapid fire assoc:Stippled vaginal epithelial cells
"Clue cells" (Gardnerella vaginalis)
49
Rapid fire txt: Trichomonas vaginalis
Metronidazole (patient and partner)
50
Rapid fire assoc:"Steeple" sign on frontal CXR
Croup (parainfluenza virus)
51
Rapid fire txt: Treponema pallidum
Penicillin
52
Rapid fire txt: toxoplasma gondii
Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
53
Rapid fire txt: Streptococcus bovis
Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis
54
Rapid fire txt: Staphylococcus aureus
MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid, ceftaroline
55
Rapid fire txt: Sporothrix schenckii
Itraconazole, oral potassium iodide
56
Rapid fire txt: Rickettsia ricketsii
Doxycycline, chloramphenicol
57
Rapid fire txt: Neisseria meningitidis
3rd gen cephalosporin; ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)
58
Rapid fire txt: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Ceftriaxone + azithromycin or doxycycline
59
Rapid fire txt: Legionella pneumophila
Macrolides (eg, azithromycin)
60
Rapid fire txt: Enterococci
Vancomycin, aminopenicillins/cephalosporins
61
Rapid fire txt: Candida albicans
Topical azoles (vaginitis); nystatin, fluconazole, caspofungin (oral/esophageal); fluconazole, caspofungin, amphotericin B (systemic)
62
Which organism is the most common cause of diabetic foot ulcers?
Staphylococcus aureus
63
Rapid fire assoc:Streptococcus bovis bacteremia
Colon cancer
64
Which organism is notoriously known to cause hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
Escherichia coli O157:H7
65
Which organism is known to cause "desert rheumatism?"
Coccidioidomycosis
66
Which organism is considered a contaminant in the blood if no central venous catheter is present?
Staphylococcus epidermidis
67
Which organism commonly causes meningitis in infants and the elderly,requiring treatment with ampicillin?
Listeria monocytogenes
68
Which organism causes Trench Fever? five-day fever of the relapsing type, rarely exhibiting a continuous course. The incubation period is relatively long, at about two weeks. The onset of symptoms is usually sudden, with high fever, severe headache, pain on moving the eyeballs, soreness of the muscles of the legs and back, and frequently hyperaesthesia of the shin
Bartonella quintana
69
Which organism can be associated with Burkitt's Lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
70
Patient develops a pneumonia soon after recovering from the flu. What organism is most often associated in this scenario?
Staphylococcus aureus
71
Long-term use of which potent antibiotic requires performing regular eye exams?
Linezolid
72
HSV how to Dx?
PCR or DFA Viral Culture previous gold standard useful for resistant or recalcitrant infections
73
Rapid fire txt: Cryptococcus neoformans
Fluconazole (in AIDS patients)
74
Rapid fire txt: Clostridium botulinum
Antitoxin
75
Rapid fire txt: CMV
Ganciclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir
76
Rapid fire txt: Clostridium tetani
Antitoxin
77
Rapid fire txt: c diff recurrence
if after metro, vanc. If after vanc, fidaxomicin. Subsequent recurrence=longer vanc or vanc then rifaximin or fecal transplant
78
Rapid fire txt: Clostridium difficile
Oral vanc or fidaxomicin
79
Rapid fire txt: Chlamydia trachomatis
Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)
80
Rapid fire txt: actinomyces
Penicillin
81
Severe odynophagia without thrush favours what diagnosis in a patient with HIV? These infections are commonly due to organisms?
ulcerative esophagitis; viruses
82
Severe odynophagia, fevers, no classical candidal Esophagitis symptom should prompt what diagnostic modality?
Endoscopy with biopsy and culture
83
What are the 3 signs of Candida esophagitis in immunosuppressed patients. They can be given an empiric trial of antifungals (oral fluconazole)
Moderate odynophagia, dysphagia, concurrent oral thrush
84
If a patient is exposed w/in 90 d of primary, secondary or latent syphilis in a sex partner, what is the next step?
Penicillin treatment
85
What diagnosis should be made in a patient that is treated for syphilis that involves an acute febrile illness with worsening rash?
jarisch herxheimer reaction
86
What is the treatment for a jarisch herxheimer reaction
Iv fluid, acetaminophen or nsaids. Treatment supportive and illness is self limited within 48 hours of onset
87
What are 3 main components of classic dengue fever?
Flu like febrile illness with marked myalgias & joint pains, retro orbital pain, rash (white islands in the sea of red)
88
Increased vascular permeability, thrombocytopenia with platelets less than 100,000, spontaneous bleeding, positive tourniquet test which is petechiae after sphygmomanometer cuff inflation are signs of what diagnosis?
Dengue hemorrhagic fever
89
What medicine should be given pyrimethamine to prevent bone marrow suppressio?
leucovorin
90
When must you use a fluroquinolone for CAP treatment? otherwise treat with what?
When someone has comorbidities (DM, organ dysfxn, immunosuppression, ca) or recent abx in last 3 mo. Macrolide or doxy
91
What antibiotic regimen should be used for infected necrotizing pancreatitis?
Carbapenem or fluoroquinolone + metronidazole