ID and STIs Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

Schistosomiasis Features (5)

A
Frequency
Heamaturia
Bladder calcification
Swimmers itch
CAn cause obstructive uropathy depending on locaiton of calcification
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2
Q

Schistosomiasis Mx

A

Single oral dose of Praziquantal

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3
Q

Toxoplasmosis Rx

A

pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine for at least 6 weeks

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4
Q

Interval between vaccines

A

Live vaccines can be given on the same day, but if not then wait 4 weeks

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5
Q

Live attenuated vaccines (7)

A
BCG
MMR
Intranasal influenza
Oral rotavirus
Oral polio 
Yellow fever
Oral typhoid
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6
Q

Inactivated preparation vaccines (3)

A

Rabies
Hep A
IM Influenza

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7
Q

Toxoid vaccines (3)

A

Tetanus
Diptheria
Pertussis

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8
Q

Subunit/conjugate vaccines (5)

A
pneumococcus (conjugate)
haemophilus (conjugate)
meningococcus (conjugate)
hepatitis B
human papillomavirus
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9
Q

Most common cause of travellers diarrhoea

A

E Coli

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10
Q

Most common causes of ‘food poisoning’ (3)

A

Staph aureus, bacilus cereus, Clostridium perfringens

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11
Q

1-6 hours incubation period gastroenteritis

A

Staph aureus

Vomming subtype Bacilus cereus (diarrhoeal 6-14)

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12
Q

12-48h incubation period gastroenteritits

A

Salmonella

E coli

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13
Q

48-72h incubation period gastroenteritis

A

Shigella

Campylobacter

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14
Q

> 7 day incubation period gastroenteritis

A

Giardiasis

Amoebiasis

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15
Q

Aciclovir MoA

A

Specific against herpes virus DNA polymerase
Guanosine analogue
Gets into herpes infected cell, phosphrylated then merks herpes DNA polymerase

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16
Q

Aciclovir SE

A

Crystalline nephropathy

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17
Q

Acyclovir indications

A

HSV, VZV

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18
Q

Ganciclovir MoA

A

Guanosine analogue, phosphrorylated by thymidine kinase, which in turn inhibits the DNA polymerase

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19
Q

Ganciclovir Indications

A

CMV

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20
Q

Ganciclovir SEs

A

Myelosupression/agranulocytosis

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21
Q

Ribavirin MoA

A

guanosine analogue, inhibits the inosine monophosphate (IMP) dehydrogenase, interferes with the capping of viral mRNA

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22
Q

Ribavirin indications

A

Chronic Hep C, RSV

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23
Q

Ribavirin side effects

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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24
Q

Amantidine MoA

A

Inhibits uncoating (M2) protein of virus in cell, also releases dopamine from nerve endings

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25
Amantidine indications
Influenza, Parkinsons
26
Amantidine SEs
confusion, slurred speech, ataxia
27
Oseltamivir MoA
Inhibits neuramidase
28
Oseltamivir Indication
influenza
29
Foscarnet MoA
Pyrophosphate analog which inhibits viral DNA polymerase
30
Foscarnet Indicaitons
CMV, HSV if not responding to aciclovir
31
Foscarnet SEs
hypoCa, hypoMg, seizures, nephrotoxicity
32
Interferon A MoA
Human glycoproteins which inhibit synthesis of mRNA
33
Interferon A indications
Chronic Hep B & C, Hairy cell leukaemia
34
Interferon A SEs
FLu like Sx, myelosupression, Anorexia
35
Cidofovir MoA
Acyclic nucleoside phosphonate, and is therefore independent of phosphorylation by viral enzymes (compare and contrast with aciclovir/ganciclovir) CMV retinitis in HIV
36
Cidofovir Indications
CMV retinitis in HIV
37
Cidofovir SEs
Nephrotoxicity
38
Nuceloside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in HIV
zidovudine (AZT), didanosine, lamivudine, stavudine, zalcitabine
39
Protease inhibitors in HIV
inhibits a protease needed to make the virus able to survive outside the cell examples: indinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir, saquinavir
40
Non nuceloside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors
nevirapine, efavirenz
41
Causes of false positive VDRL/RPR (anti-cardiolpin) syphilis testing (6)
``` Pregnancy OCP HIV TB Malaria Lupus/anti-phospholipid ```
42
Trypanosomiasis Rx
early disease: IV pentamidine or suramin | later disease or central nervous system involvement: IV melarsoprol
43
Chagas disease acute Mx
benznidazole or nifurtimox
44
Ix in meningococcal septicaemia
Blood cultures (likley neg if already had benpen) Blood PCR LP usually contraindicated FBC and clotting for ?DIC
45
Trichomonas Features
vaginal discharge: offensive, yellow/green, frothy vulvovaginitis strawberry cervix pH > 4.5 in men is usually asymptomatic but may cause urethritis
46
Trichomonas Ix
Microscopy on wet mount shows motile trophozoites
47
Trichomonas Rx
Oral metronidazole for 5-7 days or sinlge 2g metro
48
Brucellosis Rx
Doxycycline and sterptomycin
49
EBV associated malignancies (3)
Burkitt's lymphoma Hodgkin's lymphoma nasopharyngeal carcinoma
50
Gram positive cocci (2)
Staph and strep
51
Gram neg cocci (2)
Neisseria, moraxella
52
Gram negative rods (ABCD L)
``` Actinomyces Bacillus anthracis (anthrax) Clostridium Diphtheria: Corynebacterium diphtheriae Listeria monocytogenes ```
53
Genital Warts Mx - 3 stages
``` topical podophyllum (non keratinised) or cryotherapy (keratinised) first line imiquimod is a topical cream which is generally used second line ```
54
Features of severe malaria (6)
``` schizonts on a blood film parasitaemia > 2% hypoglycaemia acidosis temperature > 39 °C severe anaemia ```
55
Complications of malaria (4)
cerebral malaria: seizures, coma acute renal failure: blackwater fever, secondary to intravascular haemolysis, mechanism unknown acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) hypoglycaemia disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
56
Gram positive bacteria (7)
``` Staph Strep Clostridium Actinomyces sp. Bacillus anthracis Corynebacterium diphtheriae Listeria monocytogenes ```
57
HIV CT multiple ring enhancing lesions
Cerebral toxoplasmosis
58
HIV cerebral toxoplasmosis Mx
sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
59
Cutaneous leismaniasis agent
leismaniasis mexicana or tropicana
60
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis agent
Leish brasiliensis
61
Visceral leishmaniasis agent
Leish donovani
62
C Diff treatment Stages (3)
Oral metro 10-14 days Oral vancomycin Oral fidoxamicin
63
CMV pathophysiology
Owls eye - due to intranuclear inclusion bodies
64
Post splenectomy infections at risk of (4)
Pneumococcus Haemophilus meningococcus Capnocytophaga canimorsus
65
Causes of false negative Mantoux test (8)
``` miliary TB sarcoidosis HIV lymphoma very young age (e.g. < 6 months) Immunosupressed (eg high dose steroids >15) Recent viral infection/live vaccination Very recent TB infection ```
66
Less than 1 week incubation period (4)
meningococcus diphtheria influenza scarlet fever
67
1-2 weeks incubation period (4)
malaria dengue fever typhoid measles
68
2-3 weeks incubation period (3)
mumps rubella chickenpox
69
Longer than 3 weeks incubation period (4)
infectious mononucleosis cytomegalovirus viral hepatitis HIV