ID and STIs Flashcards

1
Q

Schistosomiasis Features (5)

A
Frequency
Heamaturia
Bladder calcification
Swimmers itch
CAn cause obstructive uropathy depending on locaiton of calcification
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2
Q

Schistosomiasis Mx

A

Single oral dose of Praziquantal

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3
Q

Toxoplasmosis Rx

A

pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine for at least 6 weeks

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4
Q

Interval between vaccines

A

Live vaccines can be given on the same day, but if not then wait 4 weeks

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5
Q

Live attenuated vaccines (7)

A
BCG
MMR
Intranasal influenza
Oral rotavirus
Oral polio 
Yellow fever
Oral typhoid
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6
Q

Inactivated preparation vaccines (3)

A

Rabies
Hep A
IM Influenza

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7
Q

Toxoid vaccines (3)

A

Tetanus
Diptheria
Pertussis

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8
Q

Subunit/conjugate vaccines (5)

A
pneumococcus (conjugate)
haemophilus (conjugate)
meningococcus (conjugate)
hepatitis B
human papillomavirus
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9
Q

Most common cause of travellers diarrhoea

A

E Coli

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10
Q

Most common causes of ‘food poisoning’ (3)

A

Staph aureus, bacilus cereus, Clostridium perfringens

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11
Q

1-6 hours incubation period gastroenteritis

A

Staph aureus

Vomming subtype Bacilus cereus (diarrhoeal 6-14)

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12
Q

12-48h incubation period gastroenteritits

A

Salmonella

E coli

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13
Q

48-72h incubation period gastroenteritis

A

Shigella

Campylobacter

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14
Q

> 7 day incubation period gastroenteritis

A

Giardiasis

Amoebiasis

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15
Q

Aciclovir MoA

A

Specific against herpes virus DNA polymerase
Guanosine analogue
Gets into herpes infected cell, phosphrylated then merks herpes DNA polymerase

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16
Q

Aciclovir SE

A

Crystalline nephropathy

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17
Q

Acyclovir indications

A

HSV, VZV

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18
Q

Ganciclovir MoA

A

Guanosine analogue, phosphrorylated by thymidine kinase, which in turn inhibits the DNA polymerase

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19
Q

Ganciclovir Indications

A

CMV

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20
Q

Ganciclovir SEs

A

Myelosupression/agranulocytosis

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21
Q

Ribavirin MoA

A

guanosine analogue, inhibits the inosine monophosphate (IMP) dehydrogenase, interferes with the capping of viral mRNA

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22
Q

Ribavirin indications

A

Chronic Hep C, RSV

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23
Q

Ribavirin side effects

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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24
Q

Amantidine MoA

A

Inhibits uncoating (M2) protein of virus in cell, also releases dopamine from nerve endings

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25
Q

Amantidine indications

A

Influenza, Parkinsons

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26
Q

Amantidine SEs

A

confusion, slurred speech, ataxia

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27
Q

Oseltamivir MoA

A

Inhibits neuramidase

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28
Q

Oseltamivir Indication

A

influenza

29
Q

Foscarnet MoA

A

Pyrophosphate analog which inhibits viral DNA polymerase

30
Q

Foscarnet Indicaitons

A

CMV, HSV if not responding to aciclovir

31
Q

Foscarnet SEs

A

hypoCa, hypoMg, seizures, nephrotoxicity

32
Q

Interferon A MoA

A

Human glycoproteins which inhibit synthesis of mRNA

33
Q

Interferon A indications

A

Chronic Hep B & C, Hairy cell leukaemia

34
Q

Interferon A SEs

A

FLu like Sx, myelosupression, Anorexia

35
Q

Cidofovir MoA

A

Acyclic nucleoside phosphonate, and is therefore independent of phosphorylation by viral enzymes (compare and contrast with aciclovir/ganciclovir) CMV retinitis in HIV

36
Q

Cidofovir Indications

A

CMV retinitis in HIV

37
Q

Cidofovir SEs

A

Nephrotoxicity

38
Q

Nuceloside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in HIV

A

zidovudine (AZT), didanosine, lamivudine, stavudine, zalcitabine

39
Q

Protease inhibitors in HIV

A

inhibits a protease needed to make the virus able to survive outside the cell
examples: indinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir, saquinavir

40
Q

Non nuceloside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

nevirapine, efavirenz

41
Q

Causes of false positive VDRL/RPR (anti-cardiolpin) syphilis testing (6)

A
Pregnancy
OCP
HIV
TB
Malaria
Lupus/anti-phospholipid
42
Q

Trypanosomiasis Rx

A

early disease: IV pentamidine or suramin

later disease or central nervous system involvement: IV melarsoprol

43
Q

Chagas disease acute Mx

A

benznidazole or nifurtimox

44
Q

Ix in meningococcal septicaemia

A

Blood cultures (likley neg if already had benpen)
Blood PCR
LP usually contraindicated
FBC and clotting for ?DIC

45
Q

Trichomonas Features

A

vaginal discharge: offensive, yellow/green, frothy
vulvovaginitis
strawberry cervix
pH > 4.5
in men is usually asymptomatic but may cause urethritis

46
Q

Trichomonas Ix

A

Microscopy on wet mount shows motile trophozoites

47
Q

Trichomonas Rx

A

Oral metronidazole for 5-7 days or sinlge 2g metro

48
Q

Brucellosis Rx

A

Doxycycline and sterptomycin

49
Q

EBV associated malignancies (3)

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
nasopharyngeal carcinoma

50
Q

Gram positive cocci (2)

A

Staph and strep

51
Q

Gram neg cocci (2)

A

Neisseria, moraxella

52
Q

Gram negative rods (ABCD L)

A
Actinomyces
Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
Clostridium
Diphtheria: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Listeria monocytogenes
53
Q

Genital Warts Mx - 3 stages

A
topical podophyllum (non keratinised) or cryotherapy (keratinised) first line 
imiquimod is a topical cream which is generally used second line
54
Q

Features of severe malaria (6)

A
schizonts on a blood film
parasitaemia > 2%
hypoglycaemia
acidosis
temperature > 39 °C
severe anaemia
55
Q

Complications of malaria (4)

A

cerebral malaria: seizures, coma
acute renal failure: blackwater fever, secondary to intravascular haemolysis, mechanism unknown
acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
hypoglycaemia
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

56
Q

Gram positive bacteria (7)

A
Staph
Strep
Clostridium
Actinomyces sp.
Bacillus anthracis
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Listeria monocytogenes
57
Q

HIV CT multiple ring enhancing lesions

A

Cerebral toxoplasmosis

58
Q

HIV cerebral toxoplasmosis Mx

A

sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

59
Q

Cutaneous leismaniasis agent

A

leismaniasis mexicana or tropicana

60
Q

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis agent

A

Leish brasiliensis

61
Q

Visceral leishmaniasis agent

A

Leish donovani

62
Q

C Diff treatment Stages (3)

A

Oral metro 10-14 days
Oral vancomycin
Oral fidoxamicin

63
Q

CMV pathophysiology

A

Owls eye - due to intranuclear inclusion bodies

64
Q

Post splenectomy infections at risk of (4)

A

Pneumococcus
Haemophilus
meningococcus
Capnocytophaga canimorsus

65
Q

Causes of false negative Mantoux test (8)

A
miliary TB
sarcoidosis
HIV
lymphoma
very young age (e.g. < 6 months)
Immunosupressed (eg high dose steroids >15)
Recent viral infection/live vaccination
Very recent TB infection
66
Q

Less than 1 week incubation period (4)

A

meningococcus
diphtheria
influenza
scarlet fever

67
Q

1-2 weeks incubation period (4)

A

malaria
dengue fever
typhoid
measles

68
Q

2-3 weeks incubation period (3)

A

mumps
rubella
chickenpox

69
Q

Longer than 3 weeks incubation period (4)

A

infectious mononucleosis
cytomegalovirus
viral hepatitis
HIV