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ID intro Flashcards

1
Q

What normal flora of the oral cavity should we know?

A

Candida

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2
Q

What normal flora of the skin should we know?

A

Staph. Aureus and coagulase-neg staph

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3
Q

What normal flora of the GI should we know?

A

E coli and klebsiella

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4
Q

What normal flora of the large bowel should we know?

A

B frag? Not seeing it on the chart but it’s in my notes?

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5
Q

What are some reasons for microorganism detection?

A

Infection, contamination, and colonization

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6
Q

What are the 5 main groups of pathogens ( there are 7 in real life)?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Fungi
  4. Protozoa
  5. Helminthes
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7
Q

What must a successful pathogen be able to do?

A
  1. ) enter the human host
  2. ) become established
  3. ) acquire nutrients
  4. ) avoid hosts innate defense
  5. ) replicate
  6. ) transmitted to a new susceptible host
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8
Q

What are the pathogenic mechanisms?

A
  • Direct tissue invasion
  • Production of a toxin
  • Immunologic enhancement or allergic reaction
  • Persistent or latent infection
  • Enhancement of host susceptibility to drugs
  • Immune suppression
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9
Q

What are the phases of infectious disease?

A

Incubation, prodromal, clinical, decline, recovery

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10
Q

What is the incubation phase?

A

time between infection and the appearance of signs and symptoms

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11
Q

What is the prodromal phase?

A

mild, nonspecific symptoms that signal onset of some diseases.

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12
Q

What is the clinical phase?

A

a person experiences typical signs and symptoms of disease- most people show up to see you at this point

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13
Q

What is the decline phase?

A

subsidence of symptoms

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14
Q

What is the recovery phase?

A

symptoms have disappeared, tissues heal, and the body regains strength

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15
Q

What is virulence?

A

A quantitative measure of pathogenicity

likelihood of causing disease

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16
Q

Are encapsulated pneumococci more or less virulent than nonencap?

A

MORE

Same goes for strains that express toxins, these are more virulent

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17
Q

What are virulence factors?

A

properties that enable microorganism to establish itself and replicate and enhance the microbe’s potential to cause overt pathology

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18
Q

What are the 2 parts of the immune system?

A

innate immunity: nonspecific and immediately available

acquired immunity: develops over time (adaptive) to specific antigens

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19
Q

What does the immune system consist of?

A

immune cells, and the central and peripheral lymphoid structures

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20
Q

What does innate immunity mediate?

A

the initial, “nonspecific” protection against infections and is referred to as natural or native immunity
Includes body defenses that are present at birth

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21
Q

Can innate immune response adapt to invading organisms?

A

NO- it is identical upon repeated exposure

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22
Q

What are the 3 innate defenses?

A

Anatomic and physical barriers
Chemical and inflammatory mediators
Cellular components

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23
Q

What is the adaptive immune response?

A

the host defense that is capable of specifically recognizing and remembering a large variety of pathogens

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24
Q

What are the important properties of the adaptive immune response?

A

Specificity and diversity
Memory,
Clonal expansion
Nonreactivity to self

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25
What factors impact host pathogen interactions?
* Metabolic changes * Nutrition * Aging * Stress * Hormones
26
What is the definition of fever?
a state of elevated body temperature that is mediated by hypothalamus typically in response to infection or inflammation >100.4 = fever on exam
27
What are non-infectious causes of fever?
Malignancy, autoimmune, RA, SLE, thyroid storm, transfusion, PE/DVT, physiologic stress, post MI/trauma/surgery, meds(DRUG FEVER)
28
What are common meds that cause fever?
PCN, cephs, sulfonamides, phenytoin, phenobarb, carbazepine, amphotericin B, salicylates, and antipsychotics
29
What might lead you to think drug fever?
Starts 1-2 weeks after initiating drug, pt looks stable otherwise, no left shift, etf
30
What are some less common causes of drug fever?
Allopurinol, impenem, vanco, NSAID, coke, antihistamines, TCA, atropine
31
What mediates drug fever?
IgE hypersensitivity reaction
32
What PE finding can you use to support the diagnosis of drug fever?
Relative bradycardia- heart rate is to slow for the elevated temp
33
When can you not use relative brady to support drug fever?
If the pt is taking any meds that can affect pulse rate
34
What in someones social hx would immediate indicate a staph A infection?
IV drug user
35
What should you suspect or look for in alcoholics?
Listeria
36
What are signs of infection?
Fever, leukocytosis, clinical findings, increased ESR and CRP and loss of glucose control
37
What are host factors that need to be taken into consideration for anti-infective therapy?
- Age - Pregnancy - Genetic or metabolic abnormalities - Renal and hepatic function - Site of Infection: need adequate concentration and penetration
38
Should daptomycin be used in pneumonia or pulmonary infections?
NO it is inactivated by pulm surfactants
39
What should you look for in antimicrobial therapy to determine treatment?
``` In vitro results – cultures Toxicity Antimicrobial synergism Adverse effects Route of administration Dosing Regimen Therapeutic Drug Monitoring ```
40
What do bactericidal agents do?
Kill the bacteria, use these in sterile site infections!
41
What normal flora of the oral cavity should we know?
Candida
42
What normal flora of the skin should we know?
Staph. Aureus and coagulase-neg staph
43
What normal flora of the GI should we know?
E coli and klebsiella
44
What normal flora of the large bowel should we know?
B frag? Not seeing it on the chart but it’s in my notes?
45
What are some reasons for microorganism detection?
Infection, contamination, and colonization
46
What are the 5 main groups of pathogens ( there are 7 in real life)?
1. Bacteria 2. Viruses 3. Fungi 4. Protozoa 5. Helminthes
47
What must a successful pathogen be able to do?
1. ) enter the human host 2. ) become established 3. ) acquire nutrients 4. ) avoid hosts innate defense 5. ) replicate 6. ) transmitted to a new susceptible host
48
What are the pathogenic mechanisms?
* Direct tissue invasion * Production of a toxin * Immunologic enhancement or allergic reaction * Persistent or latent infection * Enhancement of host susceptibility to drugs * Immune suppression
49
What are the phases of infectious disease?
Incubation, prodromal, clinical, decline, recovery
50
What is the incubation phase?
time between infection and the appearance of signs and symptoms
51
What is the prodromal phase?
mild, nonspecific symptoms that signal onset of some diseases.
52
What is the clinical phase?
a person experiences typical signs and symptoms of disease- most people show up to see you at this point
53
What is the decline phase?
subsidence of symptoms
54
What is the recovery phase?
symptoms have disappeared, tissues heal, and the body regains strength
55
What is virulence?
A quantitative measure of pathogenicity | likelihood of causing disease
56
Are encapsulated pneumococci more or less virulent than nonencap?
MORE | Same goes for strains that express toxins, these are more virulent
57
What are virulence factors?
properties that enable microorganism to establish itself and replicate and enhance the microbe's potential to cause overt pathology
58
What are the 2 parts of the immune system?
innate immunity: nonspecific and immediately available | acquired immunity: develops over time (adaptive) to specific antigens
59
What does the immune system consist of?
immune cells, and the central and peripheral lymphoid structures
60
What does innate immunity mediate?
the initial, “nonspecific” protection against infections and is referred to as natural or native immunity Includes body defenses that are present at birth
61
Can innate immune response adapt to invading organisms?
NO- it is identical upon repeated exposure
62
What are the 3 innate defenses?
Anatomic and physical barriers Chemical and inflammatory mediators Cellular components
63
What is the adaptive immune response?
the host defense that is capable of specifically recognizing and remembering a large variety of pathogens
64
What are the important properties of the adaptive immune response?
Specificity and diversity Memory, Clonal expansion Nonreactivity to self
65
What factors impact host pathogen interactions?
* Metabolic changes * Nutrition * Aging * Stress * Hormones
66
What is the definition of fever?
a state of elevated body temperature that is mediated by hypothalamus typically in response to infection or inflammation >100.4 = fever on exam
67
What are non-infectious causes of fever?
Malignancy, autoimmune, RA, SLE, thyroid storm, transfusion, PE/DVT, physiologic stress, post MI/trauma/surgery, meds(DRUG FEVER)
68
What are common meds that cause fever?
PCN, cephs, sulfonamides, phenytoin, phenobarb, carbazepine, amphotericin B, salicylates, and antipsychotics
69
What might lead you to think drug fever?
Starts 1-2 weeks after initiating drug, pt looks stable otherwise, no left shift, etf
70
What are some less common causes of drug fever?
Allopurinol, impenem, vanco, NSAID, coke, antihistamines, TCA, atropine
71
What mediates drug fever?
IgE hypersensitivity reaction
72
What PE finding can you use to support the diagnosis of drug fever?
Relative bradycardia- heart rate is to slow for the elevated temp
73
When can you not use relative brady to support drug fever?
If the pt is taking any meds that can affect pulse rate
74
What in someones social hx would immediate indicate a staph A infection?
IV drug user
75
What should you suspect or look for in alcoholics?
Listeria
76
What are signs of infection?
Fever, leukocytosis, clinical findings, increased ESR and CRP and loss of glucose control
77
What are host factors that need to be taken into consideration for anti-infective therapy?
- Age - Pregnancy - Genetic or metabolic abnormalities - Renal and hepatic function - Site of Infection: need adequate concentration and penetration
78
Should daptomycin be used in pneumonia or pulmonary infections?
NO it is inactivated by pulm surfactants
79
What should you look for in antimicrobial therapy to determine treatment?
``` In vitro results – cultures Toxicity Antimicrobial synergism Adverse effects Route of administration Dosing Regimen Therapeutic Drug Monitoring ```
80
What do bactericidal agents do?
Kill the bacteria, use these in sterile site infections!

DOOS3 (12 decks)

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