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Infectious Disease > ID Test 1 > Flashcards

ID Test 1 Flashcards

(59 cards)

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1
Q

Compare prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA arrangement

A

Prokaryotic - NO nuclear membrane

Eukaryotic - YES nuclear membrane

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2
Q

Compare prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosome size

A

Prokaryotic 70s

Eukaryotic 80s

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3
Q

How do prokaryotes (bacteria) divide?

A

binary fission

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4
Q

What are the outer layers of a virus called

A

protein capsid covered in a lipoprotein coat

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5
Q

Name the outer coating of bacteria.

A

Peptidoglycan

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6
Q

Name the outer coating of fungus.

A

Chitin

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7
Q

How do fungus replicate?

A

budding or mitosis

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8
Q

How do protozoa replicate?

A

mitosis

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9
Q

Name two functions of pili

A
  1. adherence (adhesins) 2. sex (replication)
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10
Q

List 4 bacteria with pili

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae – binding to cervical cells and buccal cells
Escherichia coli and Campylobacter jejuni – binding to intestinal epithelium in order to allow bacteria to induce diarrhea
Bordetella pertussis – binds to ciliated respiratory cells and causes whooping cough

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11
Q

List 8 obligate aerobes

A

Nocardia, Bacillus cereus, Neisseria, Pseudomonas, Bordetella, Legionella, Brucella, Mycobacterium

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12
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Nocardia

A

obligate aerobe

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13
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Bacillus cereus

A

obligate aerobe

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14
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Neisseria

A

obligate aerobe

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15
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Pseudomonas

A

obligate aerobe

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16
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Bordetella

A

obligate aerobe

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17
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Legionella

A

obligate aerobe

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18
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Brucella

A

obligate aerobe

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19
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Mycobacterium

A

obligate aerobe

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20
Q

Name 2 obligate anaerobes.

A

Bacteroides, Clostridium

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21
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Bacteroides

A

obligate anaerobe

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22
Q

Obligate aerobe or anaerobe? Clostridium

A

obligate anaerobe

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23
Q

Normal GI flora (name 3)

A

E. coli, Enterococcus faecalis, Bacteroides fragilis

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24
Q

Normal skin flora (name 3)

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A

Staph. aureus, Staph. epidermidis, Candida albicans (a yeast)

25
Where is Staph aureus normally found?
primarily in the nose!!! some on the skin
26
Normal oropharynx flora (name 1)
Viridians group (which contains S. mutans and S. salivarius) subacute endocarditis
27
Normal vaginal flora (name 1)
Lactobacillus (keeps pH low and holds back C. albicans and anaerobic overgrowth)
28
Normal flora urethra
Outer third of the urethra contains mixture of bacteria, primarily Staphylococcus epidermidis
29
Define pathogen
any microorganism with the capacity to cause disease
30
Opportunistic pathogens
cause disease in immunocompromised individuals
31
Virulence
quantitative measure of pathogenicity; units are number of cells needed to elicit disease
32
LD50
50% lethal dose; number of cells needed to kill 50% of hosts
33
ID50
50% Infectious dose; number of cells needed to infect 50% of hosts
34
Parasite
(1) bacteria-Host relationship where bacteria is detrimental to host (2) Helminths and protozoa as a group
35
Endemic
disease that is naturally found in a region in low level and infecting only a certain number of people on average per year
36
Epidemic
infection occurring in increased numbers above normal incidence
37
Pandemic
worldwide distribution on an infection
38
Subclinical state
infection with no overt symptoms; only detectable via serology (titer rise 4x) or culture growth
39
Communicable
diseases that are able to spread from host to host
40
Latent State
period of infection inactivity after initial symptoms, then reactivates with recurrence of symptoms
41
Carrier State
no symptoms, but bacteria replicating in host
42
Fomite
inanimate object that harbors microorganisms
43
Horizontal Transmission
person-to-person (other than mother to offspring)
44
Vertical Transmission
placenta, within birth canal during birth, breastmilk
45
Portal of Entry
means of disease entry into the host; the four primary portals are respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, genitourinary tract, and skin
46
Reservoir
the originating source of the infection
47
Vector
the mode of transmission from the reservoir to the host
48
Zoonoses
diseases where animal is the reservoir
49
Ethylene oxidase
Used for sterilization of heat-sensitive materials (e.g., surgical instruments, plastics) Kills by alkylating proteins and nucleic acids Hydroxyethyl group attacks reactive hydrogen atoms on essential amino acids and hydroxyl groups Classified as a mutagen and carcinogen
50
Silver nitrate and silver sulfadiazine
Silver nitrate drops used to prevent gonococcal neonatal conjunctivitis Silver sulfadiazine used in preventing infection in burns (keep in fridge bc cooling)
51
Chlorhexidine
Chlorhexidine is chlorinated phenol used as surgical hand scrub; denatures proteins
52
Define sterilization, disinfection, and antiseptics.
Sterilization: killing or removing of all microorganisms (including spores) Disinfection: killing of many, but not all, microorganisms Antiseptics: chemicals used to kill microorganisms on the surface of skin and mucous membranes
53
All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except...
Poxviruses (replicate in the cytoplasm)
54
All DNA viruses have 2 strands except....
Parvovirus (single strand)
55
List the stages of viral replication in order.
1.Attachment 2. Penetration 3. Uncoating 4. Biosynthesis 5. Assembly 6. Release
56
Malaria
Plasmodium (pathogen) | Mosquito (vector)
57
Chagas's Disease (Latin America)
``` Trypanasoma CRUZI (pathogen) Reduviid Bug (vector) ```
58
African Sleeping Sickness
``` Trypanasoma BRUCEI (pathogen) Tsetse fly (vector) ```
59
Causes visceral Leishmeniasis
``` Leishmania donovani (pathogen) Sandfly (vector) ```

Infectious Disease (1 decks)

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