ID2 Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

most common pathogen of infective endocarditis in healthy people

A

Strep Viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

H. influenzae only grows on which agar

A

chocolate agar (factor V NAD+, X hematin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

most common resp infection are what part and by what kind of pathogen

A

URT, viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

most common pathogens causing HA infection

A
  1. Gm+: 1. Coag(-) staphylo like s. epidermidis, 2. S. aureus 3. enterococci
  2. Gm-
  3. Fungi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CLABSI: catheter sites

A

risk of infection: femoral > internal jugular > subclavian

reverse is easness of putting the line in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

VRE: what are 2 species that account for almost all infections

A
Enterococcus fecalis 
Enterococcus faecuum (10%, but 90% of VRE is by faecuum)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1 & 2 HA-infection

A
  1. UTI

2. surgical incision infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
#1 HA-infection in ICU
#1 death from HA-infection
A

HA-pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are normal oropharyngeal flora? what does it become after THREE days in the hospital?

A

anaerobes & strep viridans -> Gm-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most common pathogens that cause CA-pneumonia (2)

A

strep pneumo, atypicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

most common pathogens that cause HA-pneumonia (3)

A
  1. pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. staph aureus
  3. enterobacter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

risk factors for surgical site infection

A

obesity (BMI >30) , diabetes
peri-operative antimicrobial prophylaxis
remote infection at the time of surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

prevention of surgical site infections

A

antimicrobial prophylaxis (60min within incision)
preoperative hair removal using ELECTRIC CLIPPER (not razor)
good glucose control during cardiac surgery
avoidance of hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

standard precaution (for everyone) 2

A

clean hands

wear gloves when touching pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contact isolation: wear what and what pathogens

A

GOWNS & gloves

MRSA, VRE, MDRO
adenovirus, herpes zoster
lice, scabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Droplet isolation: wear what and what pathogens

A

surgical MAST & gloves

influenza A/B/H1N1, mumps
meningitis, pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Airborne isolation: wear what and what pathogens

A

N-95 respirator + gloves
pt: surgical mask

TB, SARS, Avian flu, chicken pox, Disseminated shinges/zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

encapsulated bacteria

& 1 fungus

A

SHiNE SKiS

Strep pneumo, Hemo influenzae, N. meningtitis, E Coli
Salmonella, Klebsiella, Strep group B

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

thickly encapsulated
cause meningitis in HIV pts
Indias ink stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does the Pioneer Organisms (bacteria) need on the substratum to colonize it

A

conditioning film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the process in which the accumulation of pioneer organisms
changes the local environment to allow secondary colonizers to
adhere

A

autogenic succession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

most common cause of meningitis (sepsis, penumonia) in neonates/babies

A

Strep agalactiae (group B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

bacterial ribosome

A

70 = 50 & 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SHiN (strep pneumo, h. influenzae, N meningitis)

A

encapsulated
capsule for vaccine
makes IgA to colonize respiratory mucosa
meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
mycobacteria cell wall characteristics
high lipid content | mycolic acid in cell wall: detected by Carbolfuchsin in acid fast stain
26
Periplasmic space (only in Gm-) contains what
``` embedded in polysaccharide gel single gelatinous peptidoglycan layer hydrolytic enzymes (B-lactamse,), sugar transport system, nutrient-binding proteins ```
27
LPS (lipo poly sacharride) of Gm(-)
PAMP (highly immunoreactive) B-cell mitogen, activate complement, release cytokine from Macs/others DIC, fever, shock 3 parts: lipid A (toxic region), core, O antigen stabilized by Mg2+ (mag)
28
Strep pyogenes's TVF
M protein (cell wall)
29
M protein grades what which are what
degrades c3b (opsonin), c5a (chemokine)
30
Strep pyogene's exotoxin
``` Streptolysin O (lyse cell membrane of RBC) Exotoxin A (toxic shock syndrome) ```
31
Strepto-lysin O
Strep pyogene's exotoxin lyse RBC (b-hemolysis) antibodies against the toxin used to diagnose Rheumatic fever
32
toxic shock syndrome: s/s (3)
fever, rash, shock
33
Strep pyogenes: diseases
pharyngitis skin (pyoderma/impetigo, erysipelas, celluits, necrotizing fasciitis) scarlet fever tosic shock syndrome rheumatic fever glomerulonephritis
34
M proteins associated w/ necrotizing fasciitis & toxic shock syndrome
M 1, 3, 5
35
criteria for Acute rhuematic fever
JONES ``` joints (migratory polyarthritis) O for heart (pancarditis) N: subcutaneous nodules over joints E: erythema marginatum S: sydenham chorea ```
36
Strepto gallolyticus (S. bovis type I) is associated w/ what
bacteremia associated w/ COLON cancer do colonoscopy
37
function of Capsule
opsonophagocytosis (Avoid) opsonization phagocytosis
38
c-reactive protein binds to Psp-A/c (choline-binding proteins) on strep pneumo
.
39
strep pneumo
``` #1 bacterial pneumonia rarely a primary infection emerging resistance to penicillin live in nasopharynx vaccine (capsule) ```
40
CA-MRSA
susceptible to numerous antibiotics (not methicillin) Mec A gene/cassett produce Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL) phenol-soluble modulins (PSM) a-toxin
41
#1 & 2 pathogen in uncomplicated UTI in young woman
1. E Coli | 2. Staphylo saprophyticus
42
Anaerobic infection: clinical clues
``` infection close to skin/mucosal surface after bites foul-smelling discharge actinomyces: sulfur granules in discharge black coloration of blood-containing exudates necrotic tissue (pseudomembrane) gas in tissues endocarditis w/ (-) blood culture dec host resistance infection after use of aminoglycosides ```
43
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
ecthyma gangrenosum (necrotic skin lesion in ICPs, due to dissemination) PSEUDO (pneumonia, sepsis, otitis Externa swimmer's ear, UTI, diabetes/drug use, osteomyelitis) burn victim, hot tubs, swimmer's ear, CF w/ chronic pneumonia (monobactam)
44
ESBL
E. Coli, Klebsiella: resistant to Cephalosporins too CARBAPENEMS
45
Carbapenams can treat everything except for
PEM: PRSP, enterococci, MRSA
46
who gets CA-MRSA?
contact SPORTS, children at daycare, prison furuncles/boils (looks like acne, pus pilled but bigger
47
Complications of IE (3)
Mycotic aneurysm Suppurative thrombophlebitis Lemierre's syndrome
48
Mycotic aneurysm
infective end-arteritis (sites of artherosclerosis) aorta (ascending, abdominal: salmonella), middle cerebral a. (at the site of bifurcation) NOT emboli, due to weakened wall -> hemorrahge
49
Suppurative thrombo-phlebitis (venous wall inflammation)
inflammation of venous wall by thrombosis & pathogen medical intervention: plastic catheter infected -> thrombi s. aureus
50
Lemierre Syndrome
sequealae of oropharynx infection thrombos/infection from internal jugular vein -> embolus in lung (PE) neck/chest pain Fusobacterium necrophorum
51
encoded on chromosome
.
52
encoded on mobile genetic elements
Clostridium toxins
53
most common causes of food poisoning
1. salmonella 2. staph aureus 3. clostridium perfringens
54
Types of diarrhea
nonbloody diarrhea: staph aureus foamy/foul diarrhea: clostridium perfringens (no vomiting) C. difficile
55
lipooligosaccharide (LOS)
LPS of Gm- cocci (Neisseria, Moraxella) antigenic variation phase variation (amount of sialic acid) low: facilitate entry into mucosal cells/epithelium high: highly resistant to killing by Ig & complement in subepithelial layer
56
pathogens w/ significant drug resistance
staphylo aureus enterococcus feacuum N. meningitis
57
A sputum culture will be rejected (i.e., it will not be stained or cultured) by the clinical laboratory if
it contains many more epithelial cells than neutrophils
58
peritrichous flagella (which pathogens?)
Enterobacteriaceae (except for Klebsiella, Shigella) multiple flagella from all sides of the pathogen (instead of polar localized to one end of the cell)
59
moraxella catarrhalis cause what in 1. kids 2. older people
otitis media + sinusitis (3rd most common) bronchitis/pneumonia in COPD (underlying disease)
60
Transformation (aka Competence)
take up free/naked DNA from environment incorporate into chromosome via general/recombinant recombination by recA protein (NOT ADDITIVE) SHiN
61
specialized transduction: which toxins (5)
ABCDE esp BCD
62
Conjugation
E. Coli transfer SINGLE STRAND DNA (plasmid is double-stranded) Hfr cell: transfer lac operon
63
asplenic or sickle cell pts are more suscetible to encapsulated bacterial diseases; b/c opsonized then cleared in the spleen
.