IDR Flashcards
(127 cards)
1
Q
small, nonenveloped DNA virus that infects the stratum basale of the epithelium, replicating in keratinocytes
A
human papilloma virus
2
Q
what 3 bacteria produce IgA protease
A
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria species
3
Q
M protein is associated with molecular mimicry. It is produced by __
A
Streptococcus pyogenes
4
Q
petechiae, purpura, and intractable epistaxis alongside prolonged international normalized ratio (INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and thrombocytopenia are evident of ______
A
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
5
Q
Migratory polyarthritis and elevated C-reactive protein level describe _____
A
rheumatic fever
6
Q
Migratory polyarthritis and elevated C-reactive protein level describe rheumatic fever. It may follow ___ infection
A
strep. pyrogenes
7
Q
Petechial rash and bilateral hemorrhage into the adrenal gland are consistent with a diagnosis of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome caused by ___
A
neisseria meningiditis
8
Q
CSF with linear, positive sense, single-stranded RNA virus that causes seizures
Mississippi River Valley region
A
western equine encephalitis
9
Q
β-hemolytic, gram-positive coccus, bacitracin resistant
A
strep. agalactiae
10
Q
what is the agar used for B. pertussis, the bacterial infection that leads to whooping cough
A
Bordet-Gengou or Reagan Lowe
11
Q
Thayer Martin agar is used for what bacteria
A
Neisseria
12
Q
MacConkey agar is a bile salt-containing agar that is optimized to grow members of what bacteria
A
Enterobacteriaceae
13
Q
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a progressive form of brain inflammation caused by what virus
A
measles
14
Q
what is an example of complementation
A
HepB providing the envelope protein for HepD
(When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in a nonfunctional protein, the nonmutated virus “complements” the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses)
15
Q
woman presents with pain, swelling, and morning stiffness in her hands with a positive test for cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody, all typical of ___
A
rheumatoid arthritis
16
Q
HLA-A3 is associated with _____
A
hemochromatosis
17
Q
HLA-B8 is associated with __, __, and __
A
Addison disease
myasthenia gravis
Graves disease
18
Q
HLD-DR5 is associated with __ and __
A
pernicious anemia
Hashimoto thyroiditis.
19
Q
HLA-DR4 is associated with _____
A
rheumatoid arthritis
20
Q
Thin, white, vaginal discharge with fishy odor
A
bacterial vaginosis
21
Q
Frothy, yellow-green, foul-smelling discharge
A
Trichomonas vaginitis
22
Q
Thick, white, “cottage-cheese” discharge
A
Candida vulvovaginitis
23
Q
water diarrhea in kids is most likely caused by __
water diarrhea outbreak in confided areas is most likely caused by __
A
daycare/kids= rotavirus
confided= norovirus
24
Q
Herpesvirus linear or circular DNA
A
linear
25
monoarticular arthritis (1 joint involvement) is most likely caused by ___
oligoarticular arthritis (>1 joint involvement) is most likely caused by __
1 joint= gonorrhea
>1 joint= chlamydia
26
chest pain that improves on leaning forward and worsens with inspiration, recent viral upper respiratory tract infection
coxsackie B (devils grip)
27
In bacterial causes of meningitis, CSF analysis shows an ___ (high or low) opening pressure, __ (high or low) protein, ___ (increased of decreased) glucose concentration, and a significant ___ (increase or decrease) in WBC count (pleocytosis) in the CSF with a predominance of neutrophils.
high
high
decreased
increase
28
bacterial meningitis CSF lab values
__ opening pressure
__ WBC count
__ protein
__ glucose
high opening pressure
high WBC count
high protein
low glucose
29
what are the 3 causes of meningitis in babies
strep agalactiae
E. coli
listeria monocytogenes
30
cookout
intestinal issues-->muscle involvement
periorbital edema+chemosis (eye irritation)
high eosinophils
high liver enzymes
trichinella spiralis
31
how can you differentiate chlamydia vs gonorrhea infection in neonates
gonorrhea infection usually appears 2-5 days after birth
chlamydia can take up to 2 weeks
32
in neonates, chlamydia infection can lead to __
pneumonia
33
gram + cocci in clusters
staph aureus
34
which bacteria has protein A which binds to the Fc portion of an antibody, blocking opsonization
staph aureus
35
what bacteria can cause both a UTI and endocarditis
enterococci
36
catheter
costovertebral angle tenderness
negative nitrates
bacteria in urine
what bacteria is this?
enterococcus
37
nitrate += gram __
negative
38
haemophilus influenzae vaccine (HiB) is against __
anti-capsular protein conjugated against polyribosylribitol phosphate capsule
39
mumps will cause an increase in what enzyme, why
amylase due to salivary gland involvement
40
Plasmodium ____ causes a 24-hour cyclic fever
Plasmodium ____ causes a 72-hour cyclic fever.
Plasmodium ____ infection causes a 48-hour cyclic fever.
falciparum
malariae
ovale/vivax
41
___ is consistent with a patient’s eosinophilia, constitutional symptoms, worsening abdominal pain, mild fever, and dry cough. The imaging findings of lesions, involving the liver and lung, support this diagnosis
Visceral larva migrans
42
lytic bone lesions
"flower cells/hypersegmented nuclei"
mainly in Carribean and S. Japan
human T cell leukemia virus (HTLV-1)
43
Gomori methenamine silver stain can be used to stain sputum for _____
Pneumocystis jiroveci
44
Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for ____
Mycobacteria
45
India ink is used to negatively stain ___
Cryptococcus
46
Giemsa stain is used to visualize ___
Chlamydia
47
Leigonella pneumophila are rod-shaped bacteria that Gram stain poorly, ___ stain is used
silver
48
sickle cell with osteomyelitis
staph aureus
49
with an eosinophil response to worms/parasites, what is the main defensive mechanism
release of major basic proteins
50
cavitary lung mass and her history of tuberculosis
acute angle branching
aspergillus
51
Great Lakes
bone lesions
blastomyces
52
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by the early onset of __, __, __, and __
sarcomas
leukemias
cancers of breast
cancers of adrenal glands
53
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is caused by loss-of-function mutations of the ___ tumor suppressor gene, which results in uncontrolled cell division that eventually leads to malignancy at a younger age
TP53
54
no thymus
no B or T cells
recurrent opportunistic infections
SCIDs due to deficiency in adenosine deaminase
55
what are the 4 NADH oxidase genes
gp91(phox)
p22(phox)
p47(phox)
p67 (phox)
56
___ syndrome presents with retained primary teeth, scoliosis, recurrent skin infections, and eczema.
hyper IgG
57
Hyper IgE syndrome is caused by a mutation in the __ or __ gene that leads to dysregulation of the Th17 cells that eliminate extracellular bacterial and fungal pathogens
STAT3
DOCK8
58
Infection-related ___ can present with proteinuria, hematuria, and hypertension 1 to 3 weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis
glomerulonephritis
59
Histologically, infection-related glomerulonephritis is characterized by enlarged hypercellular glomeruli, with __________
dense subepithelial humps on the basement membrane
60
what is the triad of symptoms for ataxia telangiectasia
low IgA
telangiectasia (spider veins)
cerebral defects (ataxia)
61
hypercalcemia
lytic bone lesions and pain
increased risk of infection
multiple myeloma
62
what accounts for increase in protein level as seen with multiple myeloma
increased IgG
63
Job syndrome (hyper IgE) present with __, __, and __
history of recurrent staphylococcal abscesses
retained primary teeth
hypereosinophilia
64
pale irises
cellulitis
photophobia
bruising
Chediak Higashi syndrome
PLAIN:
Progressive neurodegeneration
Lymphohistiocytosis
Albinism(partial)
Recurrent pyogenic Infections
Peripheral Neuropathy
65
The alpha toxin produced by Clostridium perfringens is a lecithinase that ____
degrades cell membrane phospholipids
66
Recombination is the exchange of genetic material between two chromosomes of similar or related viral strains that have coinfected a host cell. The exchange occurs through crossing over of genes between two regions of homologous base sequences, which results in progeny with genetic material from two parental viral strains. This process increases genetic diversity in viral progeny
67
Complementation occurs when two viruses coinfect a host cell. One virus (virion A) produces a functional protein while the other (virion B) has a mutation in its genome that results in the production of a nonfunctional protein. Through complementation, the functional protein produced by virus A is used in both progeny A and B viruses. No genetic information is exchanged
Ex: HepB and HepD
68
Phenotypic mixing occurs with coinfection of a cell with two related viruses (virus A and virus B). The genome of virus A is partially or completely coated by the surface proteins of virus B, resulting in the formation of a pseudovirion (viral hybrid), comprising the genome of virus B and the surface proteins of virus A. The new protein coat determines the infectivity of the hybrid virus. Because no genetic information is exchanged, future generations lose their infectivity and return to their previous state (future virions will have the coat from virus B)
69
Viral reassortment is the exchange of genetic material between segments of two (or more) viruses of the same strain that have coinfected the same cell. Progeny has the new assortment of genetic material. This process only occurs in viruses with segmented genomes (e.g., influenza virus, rotavirus) and can cause antigenic shift, which significantly increases the pandemic potential of a virus
70
rash associated with herpes simplex infections and with characteristic of target lesions (macules with a dusky center surrounded by a lighter ring)
erythema multiforme
71
mucicarmine and india ink are used to stain what organism
cryptococcus yeast
72
intracellular gram-negative diplococci
Neisseria gonorrhea
73
What drug is used to treat N. gonorrhea
ceftriaxone
74
immunosuppressed
ground-glass opacities on chest CT scan
nonproductive cough, dyspnea on exertion, fever
pneumocystis jirovecii
75
76
ground-glass opacities
large cells with intranuclear inclusions with clear halos
CMV
77
pertussis toxin of B. pertussis has what effect
impairs inhibition of adenylate cyclase activity. The resultant accumulation of cAMP
78
what agar do you use to culture legionella
charcoal yeast extract
79
genital area itching
sexually active
pubic hair
phthirus pubis
80
white lesions on palate and tongue that can be easily scrapped off
oral thrush= c. albicans
81
main drug to use for CMV retinitis
valgancyclovir
82
cystine-tellurite agar or Löffler medium are used to culture what bacteria
corynebacterium diptheriae
83
how do -navir drugs act
protease inhibitor
84
painful, multiple, small, grouped vesicles on an erythematous base on the shaft of the penis
herpes
85
Chlamydophila psittaci is the organism that causes psittacosis, a rare zoonotic disease that causes atypical pneumonia and is transmitted via feces and dander of infected
birds
86
fever and malasie weeks after a sore throat
rheumatic fever- s. pyrogenes
M protein- inhibits opsonization and C3 activation
87
esophagus involvement
S3 plexus
T. cruzi
destruction of myenteric plexus
88
young
pressure creates a blister
no oral abnormalities
s. aureus scalded skin syndrome
exotoxin-desmoglein-1
89
2 main adverse effects of valgncyclovir
pancytopenia
myelosuppression
90
what is the main virulence factor of neisseria gonorrhea that allows for reinfection
variation in pili protein
91
traveler's diarrhea is caused by __
ETEC
92
the virulence factors of ETEC, the cause of traveler's diarrhea are __ which increases __ and ___ which increases ___
increases cGMP
increases cAMP
93
Kaposi sarcoma is also known as __
HHV8
94
what is seen histologically in someone with HHV8 (kaposi sarcoma)
spindle shaped cells with lymphocytic infiltration
95
gram positive rod with narrow zone of beta hemolysis
Listeria
96
what bacteria has a poly-glutamate capsule
B. anthracis
97
how are flaviviruses transmitted
direct body secretions
ebola and marburg are filoviruses
98
rash starts on wrists and ankles then spreads to trunk
outdoors
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
dermacantor
rickettsia rickettsii
99
isoniazid inhibits what
mycolic acid synthesis
100
isoniazid has what adverse affect
liver damage
101
croup is caused by narrowing of what part of the airway
subglottic larynx
102
schistocytes are seen on peripheral blood smear with what infection
E. coli (hemolytic uremic syndrome)
103
gp120 of HIV is used for ___
attachment of HIV to host CD4+
104
what is the most common cause of septic arthritis in sexually active young adults
n. gonorrhea
105
K1 capsule is a virulence factor of what bacteria
E.coli
106
e. coli use what virulence factor to cause UTI
P fimbriae
107
budding yeast cells with pseudohyphae at 20–25°C
C.albicans
108
liver transplant= risk for __
lung transplant= risk for __
liver= candida
lung= aspergillus
109
retinal hemorrhage
heart issue
strep sanguinis
110
2 main virulence factors of B. anthracis
edema factor-->increases cAMP
lethal factor-->inactivates MAPK
111
osteomyelitis in someone with sickle cell most likely has what bacterial infection
s. aureus
112
Acute bacterial prostatitis presents with dysuria, urgency, frequency
E.coli
113
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is generally associated with what pH range
a normal vaginal pH range (3.8 to 4.5)
114
neonate with bacterial meningitis. what can you test to differentiate the cause
lactose fermentation
115
painful, perianal lesions
HPV
116
what is the main virulence factor of p. aeruginosa
exotoxin A ribosylates ADP and inhibits EF2
117
what media is used for legionella
buffered charcoal yeast extract
118
HSV can cause hepes labalis or __
keratinoconjunctivitis
119
does viral or bacterial meningitis show normal glucose levels
viral
120
gardinella vaginalis presents with
grey/white vaginal discharge
fishy odor
121
what is the morphologic characteristic of gardinella vaginalis
gram variable pleomorphic rod
122
___ is a parasitic infection that presents with chronic rash, cough, and eosinophilia
Strongyloidiasis
123
Councilman bodies are found in liver biopsy of someone infected with ___
yellow fever
124
RUQ pain
liver mass
eosinophilia
echinococcus granulosus
125
flaviviruses use __ dependent __ polymerase
RNA
RNA
126
africa
skin discoloration
sand fly- Leishmania
127
RSV main virulence mechanism
Fusion protein
